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Liverpool (Year 3) > Surgery > Flashcards

Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the “3 I’s” of “Thumbprinting” ?

A

Infection (C.diff or salmonella colitis) / Inflammation (UC or Crohn’s) / Ischaemia (Ischaemic colitis)

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2
Q

Surgical Sieve “TIN CAN BEDs”

A 
Trauma
Infection
Neoplasm 
Congenital 
Acquired
Neuro
Blood
Endocrine
Drugs
Syphilis
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3
Q

List Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) differentials

A

Oesophageal carcinoma (Squamous/ adenocarcinoma)
Achalasia (LES dysfunction)
Oesophageal / peptic stricture
Hyperthyroidism
Oesophageal candidiasis (immunosuppressed patients)
Bulbar Palsy (CN IX - XII)
Trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease) tropical disease
GORD
Extrinsic Malignancies (lung/lymph node) can externally compress oesophagus)

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4
Q

Name the 3 Bacteria that can cause life threatening infections in patients with splenectomy.

A 
Neisseria Meningitidis (aka Menigococcus)
Streptococcus Pneumonia (aka Streptococcus)
Haemophilus Influenza
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5
Q

Most common places for oesophageal metastases

A

The 2 L’s - Liver and Lungs

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6
Q

List differentials for a RIF mass

A

Appendix abscess / Mass (omentum envelopes inflammed appendix giving a mass like feeling on palpation)
Hepatomegaly
Crohn’s
Caecal carcinoma
Meckels diverticulum (paeds)
Ileo-ceacal stricture (Yersinia and TB - 2 rare but important differentials to be excluded with CXR)

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7
Q

List the criteria that make a UTI complicated

A

> 2 in 6 months / > 3 in 1 Year
Pyelonephritis (i.e loin pain and upper UTI)
Men
Anatomical disruption (stent/catheter/stricture)

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8
Q

List the causes of Pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED

Iatrogenic
Gall stones
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma 
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune 
Scorpion bite
Hyperlipidaemia 
ERCP
Drugs (Azothioprine/ Anticonvulsants (ex. sodium valproate) / Antimicrobials (metronidazole) / Diuretics (ex. Thiazides and Furosemide)
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9
Q

Name the two strains of bacteria and the toxin that causes Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS). List the classic pathological triad associated with HUS.

A

E.Coli (0157:H7) and Shigella - Shiga toxin

Anaemia
AKI
Thrombocytopaenia (Low platelets)

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10
Q

List post surgical complications of GI surgery

A 
Infection (Suture site/from laporotomy/UTI/ Hospital acquired pneumonia) 
DVT/PE
Haemorrhage 
Obstruction
Paralytic ileus (bowel goes to sleep)
Anastomotic leak
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11
Q

Name the 3 Features of Charcot’s Triad and which condition this indicates.

A

Fever (usually with rigors)
Jaundice
RUQ pain

Ascending Cholangitis (infection of the biliary tree)

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12
Q

5 risk factors for acute cholecystitis

A 
5F's
Female 
Forty 
Fat
Fertile 
Family History

Pregnancy / oral contraceptives (oestrogen causes more bile to be secreted into bile duct) / any condition that causes haemolysis (sickle cell disease etc) / Malabsorption (ileal resection / crohns)

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13
Q

What is the normal diameters of the Small bowel / Large bowel / Appendix / Caecum ?

A

3-6-9 rule

Small bowel <3cm
Large bowel <6cm
Appendix <6mm
Caecum <9cm

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14
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

Apply pressure to RUQ and ask patient to inhale. Cessation of inspiratory effort due to pain in RUQ is indicative of Gall bladder Inflammation (i.e cholecystitis and not biliary colic).

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15
Q

Name 6 complications of gall stones

A

Acute Pancreatitis
Gall bladder mucocoele (mucous filled overdistended gall bladder - can become infected and lead to empyema)
Porcelain gall bladder (calcified gall bladder wall)
Small bowel obstruction (lodge at ileo-coecal valve)
Ascending cholangitis (infection of biliary tree)

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16
Q

List the Glasgow-Imrie score criteria that determines the severity of Pancreatitis?

A

Remember Mnemonic PANCREAS

PaO2 (<60 mmHg)
Age (> 55 y/o)
Neutrophilia (>15)
Calcium (<2)
uRea (>16)
Enzymes (LDH > 600 AST/ALT > 200)
Albumin (<32)
Sugar (glucose >10)
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17
Q

Name the synonym for ovulation pain, and the causes.

A

Mittelschmertz - Endometriosis / Adhesions/ Surgical Scarring/ Scarring from STI’s (ex. Chlamydia).

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18
Q

Mesenteric Adenitis is typically precipitated by which type of infection? It is thus important to perform which examination to rule out mesenteric adenitis as the cause of GI pain.

A

Respiratory Tract Infection

Ear and Throat examination (sore ears/throat and symptoms of cold predate mesenteric adenitis)

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19
Q

Thiamine (B1) deficiency can lead to which two neurological conditions? Name the triad of symptoms for each.

A

Remember mnemonic - “COAT RACK”

Wernicke's Encephalopathy 
(1) Confusion 
(2) Ophthalamoplegia 
(3) Ataxia
Thiamine deficiency

If left untreated (thiamine reverses condition) can progress to Korsakoff’s Psychosis.

(1) Retrograde Amnesia
(2) Anterograde Amnesia
(3) Confabulation
Korsakoff’s psychosis

20
Q

State Courvoisier’s Law:

A

Painless jaundice and palpable RUQ mass is indicative that pathology is not caused by gall stones and thus an obstructing pancreatic or biliary neoplasm until proven other wise. Could also be a gall bladder stricture.

21
Q

What is a Krukenberg Tumour?

A

Rare tumours that arise in the ovaries of women as a result of metastases of a gastric malignancy.

22
Q

At what level of serum bilirubin does jaundice become clinically evident?

A

2-3 mg/dL or 34-51 µM

Normal Bilirubin: 0-21 µM

23
Q

Name the most common infective organisms in ascending cholangitis

A

E.Coli (27%) / Klebsiella (16%) / Enterococcus (15%)

24
Q

List the Features of Reynad’s Pentad and the pathology this pentad is associated with.

A 
RUQ pain 
Fever
Jaundice 
Hypotension 
Confusion

Cholangitis (patients may also present with tachycardia)

25
Q

List the causes of cholangitis.

A

Usually due to obstruction of the biliary tree

Gall stones
ERCP
Cholangiocarcinoma

More rarely
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Ischaemic cholangiopathy (damage/stricturing of biliary tree due to lack of blood flow).
Parasitic infection

26
Q

What is the mortality rate of Cholangitis?

A

5-10% when treated with antibiotics

27
Q

What is the initial steps of management in cholangitis

A

IV Fluids
Broad spec Antibiotics (do not delay and wait for culture results as these patients can become septic very quickly)
Analgesia

Other investigaitons
LFTs
Bloods (FBC)
Culture

Imaging:
Ultrasound for stones and duct dilatation

MRCP if dilatation but no stone identified on ultrasound

ERCP for biliary decompression sphincterotomy/stenting if stone identified.

Patient may need laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the long term.

If patient too unwell for ERCP then a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) can be performed.

28
Q

List the common sites of metastases for Colon Cancer.

A

Remember 3L’s : (oesophageal cancer is 2 L’s)
Liver
Lung
Lymph nodes

Also more rarely:
Bone
Peritoneum
Brain 
Skin
29
Q

Colon carcinomas are most likely to be what kind of tumour?

A

Adenocarcinomas

30
Q

Which kind of polyps are most likely to become malignant?

A

Sessile (adhered tightly to mucosal wall)

and

Villous (histological subdivision of polyps with large surface area)

31
Q

What is the screening process for colorectal cancer in the UK?

A

Men and Women aged 60-75 are tested every 2 years using a FIT (Faecal Immunochemistry Test) whereby antibodies bind to haemoglobin to detect blood.

If blood detected - specialist nurse carries out colonoscopy.

32
Q

Give the ages and associated symptoms that need urgent investigation for bowel cancer.

A

<40 - Unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain
<50 - Unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia)
<60 - Iron deficient anaemia or change in bowel habit

33
Q

Causes of Pseudo-Obstruction

A

Surgery (orthopaedic)
Severe illness (cardiac ischaemia)
Trauma
Electrolyte imbalance (Hypercalcaemia/Hypomagnesaemia/Hypothyroidism/Hypokalaemia)
Neurological (Parkinsons/MS/Hirschsprung’s disease)
Medications (Opiates/Calcium channel blockers/Anti-depressants)

34
Q

Pseudo-Obstruction increases the risk of which three pathologies?

A

Toxic Megacolon
Ischaemic Colitis
Perforation

35
Q

Identify the management steps of pseudo-obstruction.

A

Conservative (i.e Nil by mouth/ IV fluids/ NG tube if vomiting)

If this fails to resolve within 48hrs

Endoscopic decompression with flatus tube

Failing this

IV Neostigmine (anticholinesterase) - should be avoided if possible due to complications.

Surgery required if all this fails or evidence of perforation

36
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal?

A

Remember mnemonic SAD PUCKER

Suprarenals (adrenal glands)
Aorta/IVC
Duodenum (except proximal cap 2cm)
Pancreas
Ureters
Colon (Ascending and Descending)
Kidneys
Esophagus
Rectum
37
Q

List the main layers of the GI tract

A

Remember “Marks + Spencers X2” i.e MSMS

Mucosa (3 layers - Epithelium / Lamina propria/ Muscularis interna)
Submucosa
Muscularis propria/externa (circular and longitudinal)
Serosa or adventia (when it is fibrous connective tisseu)

Remember muscularis propria is divided into 2 layers (circularis and longitudinal) by the myenteric/ auerbach plexus.

Submucosal / Meissners plexus (Secretions and dilation of blood vessels)

Myenteric / Auerbach’s plexus (muscle relaxation)

38
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease is associated with an increased risk of developing which infection?

A

Clostridium difficile

39
Q

List the complications of C.difficile Infection

A 
Toxic Megacolon 
Perforation 
Peritonitis 
Sepsis 
Acute Renal Failure 
Hypokalaemia 
Hypoalbuminaemia
40
Q

List two inflammatory areas associated with C.difficile infection

A

Iritis (inflammation of the Iris)

Arthritis

41
Q

Name two classical features of a hernia on examination? And a situation where they cannot be exhibited.

A 
Cough reflex (owing to an increase in intra-abdominal pressure)
Can be reduced (i.e pushed back)

If bowel or mesentery gets caught in the hernial orifice (where they have herniated through the abdominal wall for example) then neither the cough reflex or reducibility are elicitable.

This is called an incarcerated/obstructed hernia

42
Q

Name the contents of the spermatic cord that pass through the processus vaginalis and inguinal canal?

A

Remember rule of 3’s:

3 Arteries - Testicular / Cremasteric / Vas deferens
3 Nerves - Genitofemoral / Sympathetics / Ilioinguinal (not actually part of the cord but pass through the canal)
3 Other structures - Vas deferens / Veins (pampniform plexus) / Lymphatics

43
Q

What are the components of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Medial – lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle.
Lateral – inferior epigastric vessels.
Inferior – inguinal ligament.

44
Q

Name the classes of medications used to treat Over Active Bladder syndrome (OAB) and examples of each?

A

Anticholinergics, more specifically antimuscurinics
- Oxybutynin / tolterodine / Solifenacin or darifenacin

Can cause dry mouth/constipation and unfit for eldery as memory loss and increased likelihood of fall.

Beta 3 adrenergic agonist - acts directly on bladder smooth muscle causing it to relax.

Ex. Mirabegron

45
Q

What are the treatment options for hyperthyroidism?

A

1st line: Carbimazole
(Titration-block / block and replace)

2nd line: Propylthiouracil (small risk of severe hepatic reaction and death) also preferred option for thyroid storm.

Radioactive iodine also an option (avoid pregnancy for 3 months - avoid children and pregnant women for 3 weeks).

Surgery

Both the latter options require lifelong levothyroxine replacement.

46
Q

What are the LUTS Storage and Voiding Symptoms?

A

Remember Mnemonic **FUN WISE Harry*.

Storage:

Frequency
Urgency
Nocturia

Voiding:

Weak Stream
Intermittent Flow
Straining
Emptying incompletely

Hesitancy

Liverpool (Year 3) (3 decks)

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