Surgical Flashcards
(63 cards)
1
Q
what is sepsis?
A
- The presence of pathogens and their toxins.
2
Q
What are the 2 types of sepsis and where do they originate from?
A
- Endogenous - From the patient.
- Exogenous - From the environment.
3
Q
What is asepsis?
A
- The absence of pathogens and their toxins.
4
Q
What is antisepsis?
A
- The process of eliminating microorganisms using an antiseptic.
5
Q
What is an antiseptic?
A
- A chemical used on living tissues to destroy microorganisms.
6
Q
What is sterilisation?
A
- The destruction of all microorganisms and the spores.
7
Q
What is disinfection?
A
- The process of cleaning to destroy microorganisms but not always their spores.
8
Q
What is disinfectant?
A
- Chemical normally used on inanimate objects to destroy microorganisms.
9
Q
What is a solid top operating table?
A
- One that doesn’t fold so it is easy to get fluid pools and soil the patient. Less expensive.
10
Q
What’s a split top operating table?
A
- Tray to collect fluid run off. Adjustable so can be lowered, raised and tilted. Static or maintained on wheels, hydraulic.
11
Q
What is the ambient temperature for theatre?
A
- 15-20 degrees celcius.
12
Q
What process enables the drug molecules to cross the blood brain barrier?
A
- They need to be lipophilic molecules to bind to the protein.
13
Q
What happens to the acid base balance?
A
- When carbon dioxide is in the blood because of the water in the blood, it becomes carbonic acid. This decreases the blood pH.
14
Q
Where is the respiratory centres in the brain?
A
- The hindbrain, specifically the pons and the medulla oblongata.
15
Q
What centre controls inspiration?
A
- The inspiratory centres.
16
Q
What centre controls expiration?
A
- Apeustic and pneumotaxic centres.
17
Q
What are chemoreceptors?
A
- They are located in major blood vessels e.g. carotid artery and they detect a decrease in the blood pH. This then sends a signal to the brain to stimulate them to breathe.
18
Q
What are stretch receptors?
A
- They are located in the smooth muscle of the lungs. When the lungs inflate the stretch receptors are activated. When the lungs are getting full the stretch receptors send a signal to the brain via the vagus nerve to inhibit respiration and expire.
19
Q
What is this process also called?
A
- The Hering-Breuer reflex.
20
Q
What is anatomical dead space?
A
- The airway from the trachea down to the level of the terminal bronchioles?
21
Q
What is physiological dead space?
A
- The volume of gas that enters the alveoli but doesn’t diffuse/take part in gas exchange.
22
Q
What is mechanical dead space?
A
- From the anaesthetic equipment such as the ET tube, the amount it sticks out of the mouth is additional dead space created.
23
Q
Why is hypercapnia more common during anaesthetic?
A
- Because the patient doesn’t clear the cO2 as well when anaesthetised.
24
Q
What is tidal volume?
A
- The volume of air moved in each breath.
25
What is residual volume?
- The volume of air left in the lungs following forced exhalation.
- this can't leave and always stays there as without it the lungs would collapse.
26
What is total capacity?
- The total volume of the lungs.
27
What are 3 changes/ effects that anaesthetic drugs have on the cardiac system?
- Depressed cardiac output.
- Changes in heart rate.
- Changes in blood pressure.
28
What happens to the central part of the cardiovascular system?
- Depression of the cardiovascular centres in the brain.
29
What happens to the peripheral part of the cardiovascular system?
- Changes in blood vessel tone. Vasodilation or vasoconstriction (drug dependent).
30
What impact can the depression of the cardiovascular system have on a patient during anaesthesia?
- Pale MM
- Cold peripheries.
- Myopathy (like a dead leg) as all there body weight is lying onto one side of the body squishing it to the table, starving it of o2.
31
What effect does anaesthesia have on the liver?
- Reduction of blood flow to the liver do to reduced cardiac output.
- This results in a lower blood flow but the workload is increased due ti metabolising the anaesthetic drugs.
32
Renal blood flow is decreased during anaesthesia, what 3 things does this result in?
- Reduced rate of glomerular filtration.
- Reduced urine output.
- Reduced electrolyte excretion.
33
What is the purpose of a surgical gown?
- A surgical gown provides a barrier to prevent the transmission of micro
organisms if applied correctly.
34
How does a nerve block work?
- The injection is distant from the area of interest but it blocks the nerve that feeds into the area of interest.
35
What's a pro & a con for general anaesthesia?
- PRO - They won't move.
| - CON - Does have an effect on the whole body.
36
What's a pro & a con for epidural?
- PRO - Increased analgesia.
| - CON - High infection risk, can be dangerous.
37
What's a pro & a con for regional nerve block?
- PRO - Helps locate pain, and provides additional analgesia.
- CON - May not cover exact area.
38
What's a pro & a con for topical anaesthesia?
- PRO - Easy to apply.
| - CON - Short lasting.
39
What's a pro & a con for local anaesthetic?
- PRO - Area specific.
| - CON - Can wake up.
40
What are the 3 materials that instruments are made of?
- Stainless steel (iron, chromium & carbon).
- Chromium plated carbon steel.
- Tungsten carbide inserted into the tips and jaws (hard wearing).
41
What are the 3 finishes of instruments?
- Mirror finish - Highly polished and resistant to corrosion.
- Satin finish - Reduces glare.
- Ebony finish - Eliminates glare.
42
What is cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA)?
- The sudden cessation of spontaneous and effective ventilation and systemic perfusion (circulation) which leads to inadequate o2 delivery to tissues, shock and death.
43
What is the goal of CPR?
- To support ventilation and circulation until spontaneous functions can be restored and sustained.
44
What is CPCR?
- Cardiopulmonary cerebral resuscitation.
45
What is CPCR?
- The same as CPR but with the emphasis being on the importance of preserving cerebral (brain) function.
46
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA)?
- Check airway and breathing, check pulse, commence CPR.
47
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of a seizuring patient?
- Darken the room, minimise noise, administer diazepam (if prescribe by a VS).
48
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of a haemorrhage.
- Apply a pressure bandage, monitor MM, CRT, pulse rate and quality.
49
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of dyspnoea/apnoea?
- Check airway, commence IPPV if possible.
50
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of an adverse reaction to a medication?
- Check ABC – follow instructions for CPR, seizure or dyspnoea if appropriate.
51
In terms of emergency protocols, what would you do in the situation of collapse?
- Check ABC – follow instructions for CPR, seizure or dyspnoea if appropriate.
52
How many staff is ideal for the process of doing CPR?
- 3-5.
53
What are the roles of a 3 person CPR?
1- IPPV.
2- Give CPR.
3- Give CPR (rotate with person number 2. Give drugs etc.
54
What are the roles of a 5 person CPR?
1. Person in charge/overseeing.
2. IPPV.
3. Runner - Get what you need and write down medication administrations, timings etc.
4. Give CPR in rotation with person number 5.
5. Give CPR in rotation with person number 4.
55
What is the pulse oximetry measuring?
- arterial oxygen saturation.
56
How is pule oximetry read?
- As a percentages.
57
What is SpO2?
- peripheral capillary oxygen saturation.
58
What does ECG stand for?
- Electrocardiography.
59
What are the 2 main reasons to use the ECG?
- Records the electrical activity of the heart.
| - Primarily used to detect dysrhythmias.
60
What can a subtle change in the ECG mean?
- That it is possibly going to be followed by change in the patient so monitor closely.
61
Why should you still monitor yourself whilst using an ECG?
- Because it only looks at the electrical activity of the heart, not if it's actually beating.
62
What is the systolic BP for a dog?
- 90-140.
63
What is the systolic BP for a cat?
- 80-140.
