Sybex Book Review 3 Flashcards
Dorothy is using a network sniffer to evaluate network connections. She focuses on the initialization of a TCP session. What is the first phase of the TCP three-way handshake sequence?
A. SYN flagged packet
B. ACK flagged packet
C. FIN flagged packet
D. SYN/ACK flagged packet
A. The SYN flagged packet is first sent from the initiating host to the destination host; thus it is the first step or phase in the TCP three-way handshake sequence used to establish a TCP session. The destination host then responds with a SYN/ACK flagged packet; this is the second step or phase of the TCP three-way handshake sequence. The initiating host sends an ACK flagged packet, and the connection is then established (the final or third step or phase). The FIN flag is used to gracefully shut down an established session.
UDP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the Transport layer of the OSI model and uses ports to manage simultaneous connections. Which of the following terms is also related to UDP?
A. Bits
B. Logical addressing
C. Data reformatting
D. Simplex
D. UDP is a simplex protocol at the Transport layer (layer 4 of the OSI model). Bits is associated with the Physical layer (layer 1). Logical addressing is associated with the Network layer (layer 3). Data reformatting is associated with the Presentation layer (layer 6).
Which of the following is a means for IPv6 and IPv4 to be able to coexist on the same network? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Dual stack
B. Tunneling
C. IPsec
D. NAT-PT
E. IP sideloading
A, B, D. The means by which IPv6 and IPv4 can coexist on the same network is to use one or more of three primary options: dual stack, tunneling, or NAT-PT. Dual stack is to have most systems operate both IPv4 and IPv6 and use the appropriate protocol for each conversation. Tunneling allows most systems to operate a single stack of either IPv4 or IPv6 and use an encapsulation tunnel to access systems of the other protocol. Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT) (RFC-2766) can be used to convert between IPv4 and IPv6 network segments similar to how NAT converts between internal and external addresses. IPsec is a standard of IP security extensions used as an add-on for IPv4 and integrated into IPv6, but it does not enable the use of both IPv4 and IPv6 on the same system (although it doesn’t prevent it either). IP sideloading is not a real concept.
Security configuration guidelines issued by your CISO require that all HTTP communications be secure when communicating with internal web services. Which of the following is true in regards to using TLS? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Allows for use of TCP port 443
B. Prevents tampering, spoofing, and eavesdropping
C. Requires two-way authentication
D. Is backward compatible with SSL sessions
E. Can be used as a VPN solution
A, B, E. TLS allows for use of TCP port 443; prevents tampering, spoofing, and eavesdropping; and can be used as a VPN solution. The other answers are incorrect. TLS supports both one-way and two-way authentication. TLS and SSL are not interoperable or backward compatible.
Your network supports TCP/IP. TCP/IP is a multilayer protocol. It is primarily based on IPv4, but the organization is planning on deploying IPv6 within the next year. What is both a benefit and a potentially harmful implication of multilayer protocols?
A. Throughput
B. Encapsulation
C. Hash integrity checking
D. Logical addressing
B. Encapsulation is both a benefit and a potentially harmful implication of multilayer protocols. Encapsulation allows for encryption, flexibility, and resiliency, while also enabling covert channels, filter bypass, and overstepping network segmentation boundaries. Throughput is the capability of moving data across or through a network; this is not an implication of multilayer protocols. Hash integrity checking is a common benefit of multilayer protocols because most layers include a hash function in their header or footer. Logical addressing is a benefit of multilayer protocols; this avoids the restriction of using only physical addressing.
A new VoIP system is being deployed at a government contractor organization. They require high availability of five nines of uptime for the voice communication system. They are also concerned about introducing new vulnerabilities into their existing data network structure. The IT infrastructure is based on fiber optics and supports over 1 Gbps to each device; the network often reaches near full saturation on a regular basis. What option will provide the best outcome of performance, availability, and security for the VoIP service?
A. Create a new VLAN on the existing IT network for the VoIP service.
B. Replace the current switches with routers and increase the interface speed to 1,000 Mbps.
C. Implement a new, separate network for the VoIP system.
D. Deploy flood guard protections on the IT network.
C. In this scenario, the only viable option to provide performance, availability, and security for the VoIP service is to implement a new, separate network for the VoIP system that is independent of the existing data network. The current data network is already at capacity, so creating a new VLAN will not provide sufficient insurance that the VoIP service will be highly available. Replacing switches with routers is usually not a valid strategy for increasing network capacity, and 1,000 Mbps is the same as 1 Gbps. Flood guards are useful against DoS and some transmission errors (such as Ethernet floods or broadcast storms), but they do not add more capacity to a network or provide reliable uptime for a VoIP service.
Microsegmentation is dividing up an internal network in numerous subzones, potentially as small as a single device, such as a high-value server or even a client or endpoint device. Which of the following is true in regard to microsegmentation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It is the assignment of the cores of a CPU to perform different tasks.
B. It can be implemented using ISFWs.
C. Transactions between zones are filtered.
D. It supports edge and fog computing management.
E. It can be implemented with virtual systems and virtual networks.
B, C, E. Microsegmentation can be implemented using internal segmentation firewalls (ISFWs), transactions between zones are filtered, and it can be implemented with virtual systems and virtual networks. Affinity or preference is the assignment of the cores of a CPU to perform different tasks. Microsegmentation is not related to edge and fog computing management.
A new startup company is designing a sensor that needs to connect wirelessly to a PC or IoT hub in order to transmit its gathered data to a local application or cloud service for data analysis. The company wants to ensure that all transferred data from the device cannot be disclosed to unauthorized entities. The device is also intended to be located within 1 meter of the PC or IoT hub it communicates with. Which of the following concepts is the best choice for this device?
A. Zigbee
B. Bluetooth
C. FCoE
D. 5G
A. The device in this scenario would benefit from the use of Zigbee. Zigbee is an IoT equipment communications concept that is based on Bluetooth. Zigbee has low power consumption and a low throughput rate, and it requires close proximity of devices. Zigbee communications are encrypted using a 128-bit symmetric algorithm. Bluetooth is not a good option since it is usually plaintext. Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) might be a viable option if custom encryption was added. Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is not a wireless technology or an IoT technology—it is a high-speed fiber optic–based storage technology. 5G is the latest mobile service technology that is available for use on mobile phones, tablets, and other equipment. Though many IoT devices may support and use 5G, it is mostly used to provide direct access to the internet rather than as a link to a local short-distance device, such as a PC or IoT hub.
James has been hired to be a traveling repair technician. He will be visiting customers all over the country in order to provide support services. He has been issued a portable workstation with 4G and 5G data service. What are some concerns when using this capability? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Rogue towers
C. Data speed limitations
D. Reliability of establishing a connection
E. Compatibility with cloud services
F. Unable to perform duplex communications
A, B, D. Cellular services, such as 4G and 5G, raise numerous security and operational concerns. Although cellular service is encrypted from device to tower, there is a risk of being fooled by a false or rogue tower. A rogue tower could offer only plaintext connections, but even if it supported encrypted transactions, the encryption only applies to the radio transmissions between the device and the tower. Once the communication is on the tower, it will be decrypted, allowing for eavesdropping and content manipulation. Even without a rogue tower, eavesdropping can occur across the cellular carrier’s interior network as well as across the internet, unless a VPN link is established between the remote mobile device and the network of the organization James works for. Being able to establish a connection can be unreliable depending on exactly where James’s travel takes him. 3G, 4G, and 5G coverage is not 100 percent available everywhere. 5G coverage is the most limited since it is the latest technology and still not universally deployed, and each 5G tower covers less area than a 4G tower. If James is able to establish a connection, 4G and 5G speeds should be sufficient for most remote technician activities, since 4G supports 100 Mbps for mobile devices and 5G supports up to 10 Gbps. If connectivity is established, there should be no issues with cloud interaction or duplex conversations.
A new startup company needs to optimize delivery of high-definition media content to its customers. They are planning the deployment of resource service hosts in numerous data centers across the world in order to provide low latency, high performance, and high availability of the hosted content. What technology is likely being implemented?
A. VPN
B. CDN
C. SDN
D. CCMP
B. A content distribution network (CDN), or content delivery network, is a collection of resource service hosts deployed in numerous data centers across the world in order to provide low latency, high performance, and high availability of the hosted content. VPNs are used to transport communications over an intermediary medium through the means of encapsulation (i.e., tunneling), authentication, and encryption. Software-defined networking (SDN) aims at separating the infrastructure layer from the control layer on networking hardware in order to reduce management complexity. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) (Counter-Mode/CBC-MAC Protocol) is the combination of two block cipher modes to enable streaming by a block algorithm.
Which of the following is a true statement about ARP poisoning or MAC spoofing?
A. MAC spoofing is used to overload the memory of a switch.
B. ARP poisoning is used to falsify the physical address of a system to impersonate that of another authorized device.
C. MAC spoofing relies on ICMP communications to traverse routers.
D. ARP poisoning can use unsolicited or gratuitous replies.
D. The true statement is: ARP poisoning can use unsolicited or gratuitous replies—specifically, ARP replies for which the local device did not transmit an ARP broadcast request. Many systems accept all ARP replies regardless of who requested them. The other statements are false. The correct versions of those statements would be: (A) MAC flooding is used to overload the memory of a switch, specifically the CAM table stored in switch memory when bogus information will cause the switch to function only in flooding mode. (B) MAC spoofing is used to falsify the physical address of a system to impersonate that of another authorized device. ARP poisoning associates an IP address with the wrong MAC address. (C) MAC spoofing relies on plaintext Ethernet headers to initially gather valid MAC addresses of legitimate network devices. ICMP crosses routers because it is carried as the payload of an IP packet.
An organization stores group project data files on a central SAN. Many projects have numerous files in common but are organized into separate project containers. A member of the incident response team is attempting to recover files from the SAN after a malware infection. However, many files are unable to be recovered. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Using Fibre Channel
B. Performing real-time backups
C. Using file encryption
D. Deduplication
D. The most likely cause of the inability to recover files from the SAN in this scenario is deduplication. Deduplication replaces multiple copies of a file with a pointer to one copy. If the one remaining file is damaged, then all of the linked copies are damaged or inaccessible as well. File encryption could be an issue, but the scenario mentions that groups of people work on projects and typically file encryption is employed by individuals, not by groups. Whole-drive encryption would be more appropriate for group-accessed files as well as for a SAN in general. This issue is not related to what SAN technology is used, such as Fibre Channel. This problem might be solvable by restoring files from a backup, whether real-time or not, but the loss of files is not caused by performing backups.
Jim was tricked into clicking on a malicious link contained in a spam email message. This caused malware to be installed on his system. The malware initiated a MAC flooding attack. Soon, Jim’s system and everyone else’s in the same local network began to receive all transmissions from all other members of the network as well as communications from other parts of the next-to-local members. The malware took advantage of what condition in the network?
A. Social engineering
B. Network segmentation
C. ARP queries
D. Weak switch configuration
D. In this scenario, the malware is performing a MAC flooding attack, which causes the switch to get stuck in flooding mode. This has taken advantage of the condition that the switch had weak configuration settings. The switch should have MAC limiting enabled in order to prevent MAC flooding attacks from being successful. Although Jim was initially fooled by a social engineering email, the question asked about the malware’s activity. A MAC flooding attack is limited by network segmentation to the local switch, but the malware took advantage of weak or poor configuration on the switch and was still successful. MAC flooding is blocked by routers from crossing between switched network segments. The malware did not use ARP queries in its attack. ARP queries can be abused in an ARP poisoning attack, but that was not described in this scenario.
A ______________ is an intelligent hub because it knows the hardware addresses of the systems connected on each outbound port. Instead of repeating traffic on every outbound port, it repeats traffic only out of the port on which the destination is known to exist.
A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Bridge
D. Router
B. A switch is an intelligent hub. It is considered to be intelligent because it knows the addresses of the systems connected on each outbound port. Repeaters are used to strengthen the communication signal over a cable segment as well as connect network segments that use the same protocol. A bridge is used to connect two networks together—even networks of different topologies, cabling types, and speeds—in order to connect network segments that use the same protocol. Routers are used to control traffic flow on networks and are often used to connect similar networks and control traffic flow between the two. Routers manage traffic based on logical IP addressing.
What type of security zone can be positioned so that it operates as a buffer between the secured private network and the internet and can host publicly accessible services?
A. Honeypot
B. Screened subnet
C. Extranet
D. Intranet
B. A screened subnet is a type of security zone that can be positioned so that it operates as a buffer network between the secured private network and the internet and can host publicly accessible services. A honeypot is a false network used to trap intruders; it isn’t used to host public services. An extranet is for limited outside partner access, not public. An intranet is the private secured network.
An organization wants to use a wireless network internally, but they do not want any possibility of external access or detection. What security tool should be used?
A. Air gap
B. Faraday cage
C. Biometric authentication
D. Screen filters
B. A Faraday cage is an enclosure that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic fields or signals. Faraday cage containers, computer cases, rack-mount systems, rooms, or even building materials are used to create a blockage against the transmission of data, information, metadata, or other emanations from computers and other electronics. Devices inside a Faraday cage can use EM fields for communications, such as wireless or Bluetooth, but devices outside of the cage will not be able to eavesdrop on the signals of the systems within the cage. Air gaps do not contain or restrict wireless communications—in fact, for an air gap to be effective, wireless cannot even be available. Biometric authentication has nothing to do with controlling radio signals. Screen filters reduce shoulder surfing but do not address radio signals.
Neo is the security manager for the southern division of the company. He thinks that deploying a NAC will assist in improving network security. However, he needs to convince the CISO of this at a presentation next week. Which of the following are goals of NAC that Neo should highlight? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Reduce social engineering threats
B. Detect rogue devices
C. Map internal private addresses to external public addresses
D. Distribute IP address configurations
E. Reduce zero-day attacks
F. Confirm compliance with updates and security settings
B, E, F. Network access control (NAC) involves controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policy. The goals of NAC are to detect/block rogue devices, prevent or reduce zero-day attacks, confirm compliance with updates and security settings, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control. NAC does not address social engineering, mapping IP addresses, or distributing IP addresses—those are handled by training, NAT, and DHCP, respectively.
The CISO wants to improve the organization’s ability to manage and prevent malware infections. Some of her goals are to (1) detect, record, evaluate, and respond to suspicious activities and events, which may be caused by problematic software or by valid and invalid users, (2) collect event information and report it to a central ML analysis engine, and (3) detect abuses that are potentially more advanced than what can be detected by traditional antivirus or HIDSs. The solution needs to be able to reduce response and remediation time, reduce false positives, and manage multiple threats simultaneously. What solution is the CISO wanting to implement?
A. EDR
B. NGFW
C. WAF
D. XSRF
A. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a security mechanism that is an evolution of traditional antimalware products. EDR seeks to detect, record, evaluate, and respond to suspicious activities and events, which may be caused by problematic software or by valid and invalid users. It is a natural extension of continuous monitoring, focusing on both the endpoint device itself and network communications reaching the local interface. Some EDR solutions employ an on-device analysis engine whereas others report events back to a central analysis server or to a cloud solution. The goal of EDR is to detect abuses that are potentially more advanced than what can be detected by traditional antivirus or HIDSs, while optimizing the response time of incident response, discarding false positives, implementing blocking for advanced threats, and protecting against multiple threats occurring simultaneously and via various threat vectors. A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a unified threat management (UTM) device that is based on a traditional firewall with numerous other integrated network and security services and is thus not the security solution needed in this scenario. A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and is not the security solution needed in this scenario. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack against web-based services, not a malware defense.
A(n) _________________ firewall is able to make access control decisions based on the content of communications as well as the parameters of the associated protocol and software.
A. Application-level
B. Stateful inspection
C. Circuit-level
D. Static packet filtering
A. An application-level firewall is able to make access control decisions based on the content of communications as well as the parameters of the associated protocol and software. Stateful inspection firewalls make access control decisions based on the content and context of communications, but are not typically limited to a single application-layer protocol. Circuit-level firewalls are able to make permit and deny decisions in regard to circuit establishment either based on simple rules for IP and port, using captive portals, requiring port authentication via 802.1X, or more complex elements such as context- or attribute-based access control. Static packet-filtering firewalls filter traffic by examining data from a message header. Usually, the rules are concerned with source and destination IP address (layer 3) and port numbers (layer 4).
Which of the following is true regarding appliance firewalls? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They are able to log traffic information.
B. They are able to block new phishing scams.
C. They are able to issue alarms based on suspected attacks.
D. They are unable to prevent internal attacks.
A, C, D. Most appliance (i.e., hardware) firewalls offer extensive logging, auditing, and monitoring capabilities as well as alarms/alerts and even basic IDS functions. It is also true that firewalls are unable to prevent internal attacks that do not cross the firewall. Firewalls are unable to block new phishing scams. Firewalls could block a phishing scam’s URL if it was already on a block list, but a new scam likely uses a new URL that is not yet known to be malicious.
Among the many aspects of a security solution, the most important is whether it addresses a specific need (i.e., a threat) for your assets. But there are many other aspects of security you should consider as well. A significant benefit of a security control is when it goes unnoticed by users. What is this called?
A. Invisibility
B. Transparency
C. Diversion
D. Hiding in plain sight
B. When transparency is a characteristic of a service, security control, or access mechanism, it is unseen by users. Invisibility is not the proper term for a security control that goes unnoticed by valid users. Invisibility is sometimes used to describe a feature of a rootkit, which attempts to hide itself and other files or processes. Diversion is a feature of a honeypot but not of a typical security control. Hiding in plain sight is not a security concept; it is a mistake on the part of the observer not to notice something that they should notice. This is not the same concept as camouflage, which is when an object or subject attempts to blend into the surroundings.
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is one of the three authentication options provided by Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). EAP allows customized authentication security solutions. Which of the following are examples of actual EAP methods? (Choose all that apply.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-VPN
C. PEAP
D. EAP-SIM
E. EAP-FAST
F. EAP-MBL
G. EAP-MD5
H. VEAP
I. EAP-POTP
J. EAP-TLS
K. EAP-TTLS
A, C, D, E, G, I, J, K. More than 40 EAP methods have been defined, including LEAP, PEAP, EAP-SIM, EAP-FAST, EAP-MD5, EAP-POTP, EAP-TLS, and EAP-TTLS. The other options are not valid EAP methods.
In addition to maintaining an updated system and controlling physical access, which of the following is the most effective countermeasure against PBX fraud and abuse?
A. Encrypting communications
B. Changing default passwords
C. Using transmission logs
D. Taping and archiving all conversations
B. Changing default passwords on PBX systems provides the most effective increase in security. PBX systems typically do not support encryption, although some VoIP PBX systems may support encryption in specific conditions. PBX transmission logs may provide a record of fraud and abuse, but they are not a preventive measure to stop it from happening. Taping and archiving all conversations is also a detective measure rather than a preventive one against fraud and abuse.
A phreaker has been apprehended who had been exploiting the technology deployed in your office building. Several handcrafted tools and electronics were taken in as evidence that the phreaker had in their possession when they were arrested. What was this adversary likely focusing on with their attempts to compromise the organization?
A. Accounting
B. NAT
C. PBX
D. Wi-Fi
C. Malicious attackers known as phreakers abuse phone systems in much the same way that attackers abuse computer networks. In this scenario, they were most likely focused on the PBX. Private branch exchange (PBX) is a telephone switching or exchange system deployed in private organizations in order to enable multistation use of a small number of external PSTN lines. Phreakers generally do not focus on accounting (that would be an invoice scam), NAT (that would be a network intrusion attack), or Wi-Fi (another type of network intrusion attack).
Multimedia collaboration is the use of various multimedia-supporting communication solutions to enhance distance collaboration (people working on a project together remotely). Often, collaboration allows workers to work simultaneously as well as across different time frames. Which of the following are important security mechanisms to impose on multimedia collaboration tools? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Encryption of communications
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Customization of avatars and filters
D. Logging of events and activities
A, B, D. It is important to verify that multimedia collaboration connections are encrypted, that robust multifactor authentication is in use, and that tracking and logging of events and activities is available for the hosting organization to review. Customization of avatars and filters is not a security concern.
Michael is configuring a new web server to offer instruction manuals and specification sheets to customers. The web server has been positioned in the screened subnet and assigned an IP address of 172.31.201.17, and the public side of the company’s split-DNS has associated the documents.myexamplecompany.com domain name with the assigned IP. After verifying that the website is accessible from his management station (which accesses the screened subnet via a jumpbox) as well as from several worker desktop systems, he declares the project completed and heads home. A few hours later, Michael thinks of a few additional modifications to perform to improve site navigation. However, when he attempts to connect to the new website using the FQDN, he receives a connection error stating that the site cannot be reached. What is the reason for this issue?
A. The jumpbox was not rebooted.
B. Split-DNS does not support internet domain name resolution.
C. The browser is not compatible with the site’s coding.
D. A private IP address from RFC 1918 is assigned to the web server.
D. The issue in this scenario is that a private IP address from RFC 1918 is assigned to the web server. RFC 1918 addresses are not internet routable or accessible because they are reserved for private or internal use only. So, even with the domain name linked to the address, any attempt to access it from an internet location will fail. Local access via jumpbox or LAN system likely uses an address in the same private IP address range and has no issues locally. The issue of the scenario (i.e., being unable to access a website using its FQDN) could be resolved by either using a public IP address or implementing static NAT on the screened subnet’s boundary firewall. The jumpbox would not prevent access to the website regardless of whether it was rebooted, in active use, or turned off. That would only affect Michael’s use of it from his desktop workstation. Split-DNS does support internet-based domain name resolution; it separates internal-only domain information from external domain information. A web browser should be compatible with the coding of most websites. Since there was no mention of custom coding and the site was intended for public use, it is probably using standard web technologies. Also, since Michael’s workstation and several worker desktops could access the website, the problem is probably not related to the browser.
Mark is configuring the remote access server to receive inbound connections from remote workers. He is following a configuration checklist to ensure that the telecommuting links are compliant with company security policy. What authentication protocol offers no encryption or protection for logon credentials?
A. PAP
B. CHAP
C. EAP
D. RADIUS
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) is a standardized authentication protocol for PPP. PAP transmits usernames and passwords in the clear. It offers no form of encryption. It provides a means to transport the logon credentials from the client to the authentication server. CHAP protects the password by never sending it across the network; it is used in computing a response along with a random challenge number issued by the server. EAP offers some means of authentication that protects and/or encrypts credentials, but not all of the options do. RADIUS supports a range of options to protect and encrypt logon credentials.
Some standalone automated data-gathering tools use search engines in their operation. They are able to accomplish this by automatically interacting with the human-interface web portal interface. What enables this capability?
A. Remote control
B. Virtual desktops
C. Remote node operation
D. Screen scraping
D. Screen scraping is a technology that allows an automated tool to interact with a human interface. Remote-control remote access grants a remote user the ability to fully control another system that is physically distant from them. Virtual desktops are a form of screen scraping in which the screen on the target machine is scraped and shown to the remote operator, but this is not related to automated tool interaction of human interfaces. Remote node operation is just another name for when a remote client establishes a direct connection to a LAN, such as with wireless, VPN, or dial-up connectivity.
While evaluating network traffic, you discover several addresses that you are not familiar with. Several of the addresses are in the range of addresses assigned to internal network segments. Which of the following IP addresses are private IPv4 addresses as defined by RFC 1918? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 10.0.0.18
B. 169.254.1:.119
C. 172.31.8.204
D. 192.168.6.43
A, C, D. The addresses in RFC 1918 are 10.0.0.0–10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255. Therefore, 10.0.0.18, 172.31.8.204, and 192.168.6.43 are private IPv4 addresses. The 169.254.x.x subnet is in the APIPA range, which is not part of RFC 1918.
The CISO has requested a report on the potential communication partners throughout the company. There is a plan to implement VPNs between all network segments in order to improve security against eavesdropping and data manipulation. Which of the following cannot be linked over a VPN?
A. Two distant internet-connected LANs
B. Two systems on the same LAN
C. A system connected to the internet and a LAN connected to the internet
D. Two systems without an intermediary network connection
D. An intermediary network connection is required for a VPN link to be established. A VPN can be established between devices over the internet, between devices over a LAN, or between a system on the internet and a LAN.
What networking device can be used to create digital virtual network segments that can be altered as needed by adjusting the settings internal to the device?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Proxy
D. Firewall
B. A switch is a networking device that can be used to create digital virtual network segments (i.e., VLANs) that can be altered as needed by adjusting the settings internal to the device. A router connects disparate networks (i.e., subnets) rather than creating network segments. Subnets are created by IP address and subnet mask assignment. Proxy and firewall devices do not create digital virtual network segments, but they may be positioned between network segments to control and manage traffic.
The CISO is concerned that the use of subnets as the only form of network segments is limiting growth and flexibility of the network. They are considering the implementation of switches to support VLANs but aren’t sure VLANs are the best option. Which of the following is not a benefit of VLANs?
A. Traffic isolation
B. Data/traffic encryption
C. Traffic management
D. Reduced vulnerability to sniffers
B. VLANs do not impose encryption on data or traffic. Encrypted traffic can occur within a VLAN, but encryption is not imposed by the VLAN. VLANs do provide traffic isolation, traffic management and control, and a reduced vulnerability to sniffers.
The CISO has tasked you to design and implement an IT port security strategy. While researching the options, you realize there are several potential concepts that are labeled as port security. You prepare a report to present options to the CISO. Which of the following are port security concepts you should include on this report? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Shipping container storage
B. NAC
C. Transport layer
D. RJ-45 jacks
B, C, D. Port security can refer to several concepts, including network access control (NAC), Transport layer ports, and RJ-45 jack ports. NAC requires authentication before devices can communicate on the network. Transport-layer port security involves using firewalls to grant or deny communications to TCP and UDP ports. RJ-45 jacks should be managed so that unused ports are disabled and that when a cable is disconnected, the port is disabled. This approach prevents the connection of unauthorized devices. Shipping container storage relates to shipping ports, which is a type of port that is not specifically related to IT or typically managed by a CISO.
______________ is the oversight and management of the efficiency and performance of network communications. Items to measure include throughput rate, bit rate, packet loss, latency, jitter, transmission delay, and availability.
A. VPN
B. QoS
C. SDN
D. Sniffing
B. Quality of service (QoS) is the oversight and management of the efficiency and performance of network communications. Items to measure include throughput rate, bit rate, packet loss, latency, jitter, transmission delay, and availability. A virtual private network (VPN) is a communication channel between two entities across an intermediary untrusted network. Software-defined networking (SDN) aims at separating the infrastructure layer from the control layer on networking hardware in order to reduce management complexity. Sniffing captures network packers for analysis. QoS uses sniffing, but sniffing itself is not QoS.
You are configuring a VPN to provide secure communications between systems. You want to minimize the information left in plaintext by the encryption mechanism of the chosen solution. Which IPsec mode provides for encryption of complete packets, including header information?
A. Transport
B. Encapsulating Security Payload
C. Authentication Header
D. Tunnel
D. When IPsec is used in tunnel mode, entire packets, rather than just the payload, are encrypted. Transport mode only encrypts the original payload, not the original header. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is the encrypter of IPsec, not the mode of VPN connection. Authentication Header (AH) is the primary authentication mechanism of IPsec.
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a standard of IP security extensions used as an add-on for IPv4 and integrated into IPv6. What IPsec component provides assurances of message integrity and nonrepudiation?
A. Authentication Header
B. Encapsulating Security Payload
C. IP Payload Compression protocol
D. Internet Key Exchange
A. Authentication Header (AH) provides assurances of message integrity and nonrepudiation. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provides confidentiality and integrity of payload contents. ESP also provides encryption, offers limited authentication, and prevents replay attacks. IP Payload Compression (IPComp) is a compression tool used by IPsec to compress data prior to ESP encrypting it in order to attempt to keep up with wire speed transmission. Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is the mechanism of IPsec that manages cryptography keys and is composed of three elements: OAKLEY, SKEME, and ISAKMP.
When you’re designing a security system for internet-delivered email, which of the following is least important?
A. Nonrepudiation
B. Data remanent destruction
C. Message integrity
D. Access restriction
B. Data remanent destruction is a security concern related to storage technologies more so than an email solution. Essential email concepts, which local systems can enforce and protect, include nonrepudiation, message integrity, and access restrictions.
You have been tasked with crafting the organization’s email retention policy. Which of the following is typically not an element that must be discussed with end users in regard to email retention policies?
A. Privacy
B. Auditor review
C. Length of retainer
D. Backup method
D. The backup method is not an important factor to discuss with end users regarding email retention. The details of an email retention policy may need to be shared with affected subjects, which may include privacy implications, how long the messages are maintained (i.e., length of retainer), and for what purposes the messages can be used (such as auditing or violation investigations).
Modern networks are built on multilayer protocols, such as TCP/IP. This provides for flexibility and resiliency in complex network structures. All of the following are implications of multilayer protocols except which one?
A. VLAN hopping
B. Multiple encapsulation
C. Filter evasion using tunneling
D. Static IP addressing
D. Static IP addressing is not an implication of multilayer protocols; it is a feature of the IP protocol when an address is defined on the local system rather than being dynamically assigned by DHCP. Multilayer protocols include the risk of VLAN hopping, multiple encapsulation, and filter evasion using tunneling.
Which of the following is a type of connection that can be described as a logical circuit that always exists and is waiting for the customer to send data?
A. SDN
B. PVC
C. VPN
D. SVC
B. A permanent virtual circuit (PVC) can be described as a logical circuit that always exists and is waiting for the customer to send data. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a unique approach to network operation, design, and management. SDN aims at separating the infrastructure layer (hardware and hardware-based settings) from the control layer (network services of data transmission management). A virtual private network (VPN) is a communication channel between two entities across an intermediary untrusted network. A switched virtual circuit (SVC) has to be created each time it is needed using the best paths currently available before it can be used and then disassembled after the transmission is complete.
