System Questions 2 Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
The ECAM HYD page display shows that:
A
The ENG 2 FIRE pb has been pressed.
2
Q
In the Yellow system, hydraulic fluid is currently prevented from flowing to the engine driven pump. Based on the ECAM, the Yellow hydraulic system is being pressurized via the ELEC Pump.
A
False
3
Q
The Green hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
A
The #1 engine-driven pump or the PTU.
4
Q
The Yellow hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
A
The #2 engine-driven pump, the PTU, an electric pump or a hand pump.
5
Q
The Blue hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
A
An electric pump or a RAT-driven pump.
6
Q
When there is a hydraulic system non-normal, the ______will also alert the pilots.
A
E/WD
7
Q
When the PTU is operating:
A
Pressure transfers between the Green and Yellow systems.
8
Q
Once deployed, how can the RAT be stowed?
A
Only on the ground by maintenance personnel.
9
Q
What cockpit lighting is available in EMERG ELEC CONFIG?
A
Dome light over the FO’s seat CA instrument flood lights
10
Q
What does the highlighted switch control?
A
Dome lights above the Captain’’s and FO’s seats.
11
Q
Where are the EXT LT switches located?
A
Overhead panel
12
Q
The airspeed limitation for the retractable landing lights is 290kts.
A
False
13
Q
With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if AC BUS 1 is unpowered?
A
Overhead emergency lights
14
Q
With AC BUS 1 unpowered, what is the normal source of power for the Emergency lights?
A
DC ESS SHED BUS
15
Q
With DC ESS SHED BUS shed, all three sets of emergency lights are powered by self-contained battery packs.
A
True
16
Q
In this EXT LT configuration, the Strobe lights are:
A
OFF
17
Q
5b. In this EXT LT configuration, the Strobe lights are:
A
AUTO
18
Q
The smaller light on the nose landing gear is the:
A
Taxi Light
19
Q
The larger light on the nose landing gear is the:
A
Takeoff light
20
Q
When the NOSE light switch is placed in the Taxi position:
A
Only the smaller taxi light illuminates
21
Q
When the NOSE light switch is in the T.O. position:
A
Both lights on the nose gear are illuminated
22
Q
The nose gear lights remain on when the nose gear retracts.
A
False
23
Q
What are the arrows pointing toward on the nose gear?
A
Runway turnoff lights
24
Q
With the Strobe lights in AUTO:
A
Strobe lights only operate when the aircraft is in flight
25
The smaller light on the nose landing gear is the:
Taxi Light
26
The larger light on the nose landing gear is the:
Takeoff light
27
When is the GND symbol displayed on the SD ECAM BLEED Page?
Whenever the aircraft is on the ground
28
The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) command the engine bleed valves to close whenever:
One or more bleed leaks are detected.
Excessive pressure or temperature is detected.
Reverse airflow is detected.
29
Engine and APU bleed air are the only air sources for the pneumatic system.
False
30
Which pb would you press to manually close this valve?
ENG 1 BLEED pb
31
The pneumatic system is displayed on which SD ECAM page?
BLEED
32
When engines are running, their bleed sources have priority over the APU bleed source and the APU bleed valve automatically closes.
False
33
With the X BLEED knob in the AUTO position, the crossbleed valve opens and closes in response to the:
APU bleed valve
34
While in AUTO, the crossbleed valve will also automatically close in response to a bleed leak.
True
35
Above what altitude must the APU bleed valve be closed?
20,000ft
36
The APU bleed valve is spring-loaded to the closed position in the absence of air flow.
True
37
With this GPWS panel configured as shown, which statement below is true?
All five of the GPWS basic mode warnings are inhibited.
38
Select the correct alerting priority order.
1. Stall warnings,
2. Windshear warnings,
3. GPWS warnings,
4. TCAS warnings.
39
You must make sure the loudspeakers are turned up loud enough so that you can hear the aural GPWS warnings.
False
40
If the TERR ON ND pb is selected to OFF:
Terrain alerting will still be available for predictive warning of High Terrain ahead of the aircraft.
41
As the aircraft approaches within 750ft of the selected FCU altitude with the A/P off:
The aural alert sounds and the PFD`s altitude window pulses yellow.
42
Reactive windshear warnings function during takeoff and landings:
Below 1300ft AGL and at configuration Flaps 1 or greater.
43
The Terrain Clearance Floor is:
Not predictive. The aircraft must actually penetrate the TCF to trigger a warning.
44
Pressing the T.O. Config. key on the ECAM control panel:
Simulates the application of Takeoff Thrust.
45
Which item causes a takeoff configuration warning when the thrust levers are placed to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground but does not cause a warning when the T.O. CONFIG key is pressed after engine start?
Parking brake set to ON.
46
The T.O. CONFIG warning system is activated automatically when you bring the thrust levers to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground.
True
47
To use the PA handset to make a PA announcement:
You press the PTT switch on the handset and hold while talking.
48
Which radio is normally dedicated to ACARS communications?
VHF 3 is dedicated to ACARS but can be used for voice communications if needed.
49
VHF 3 can also be used as an additional radio for voice communications if necessary.
True
50
The transfer key is used to transfer the frequency displayed in the STBY window to the ACTIVE frequency window.
True
51
For HF radios, the HF radio antenna must be tuned by pressing a PTT selector. A tone is briefly heard, confirming the antenna tuning.
True
52
The CVR operates automatically:
For the first 5 minutes after AC power is applied to the aircraft.
When the first engine is started.
Anytime the aircraft is airborne
53
Which transmission key alerting light does NOT extinguish automatically after a short period of time if the RESET pb is not used?
CALL
54
The ACP is the:
Audio Control Panel
55
The Radio Management Panels, RMPs, are used:
Exclusively to tune frequencies for various radios, including navaids if necessary
56
The RMP is the:
Radio Management Panel
57
The selection of a transmission key does not select that communications device for reception.
True
58
The SEL light illuminates on both RMPs when:
RMP is selected to a non-dedicated radio
59
An amber CALL light flashing on VHF means:
A SELCAL from a ground radio station has been received.
60
Which of the following does NOT have a fire extinguishing system installed?
Avionics compartment
61
Which statement is true regarding cargo compartment fire extinguishing, except the A321H?
There is only one halon fire bottle. It can be discharged into either compartment, but not both.
62
Which statement accurately describes each engine’s dedicated fire detection system?
The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops detect a heat rise.
The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops fail with a few seconds of each other.
The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if one fire detection loop detects a heat rise and the other is determined to be faulted.
63
Which indications appear in the flight deck after an APU fire has been extinguished on the ground?
The APU FIRE pushbutton light is not illuminated, while the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated .
64
All of these areas on the A319 have fire detection. Which of these has fire detection but no fire protection?
Avionics bay
65
What section of the engine does not have Fire Detection Loops?
Exhaust
66
The APU automatically shuts down and discharges a fire bottle when a fire is detected on the ground.
True
67
If Avionics Smoke is detected, what system page comes up automatically on the lower ECAM?
ELEC
68
Cargo compartment smoke detection is provided by:
Particulate sensing smoke detectors, located in both cargo compartments.
69
Why does the Smoke Light continue to illuminate after the Cargo Agent has been discharged?
Particulates are still present and have not settled.
70
The lavatory smoke detection system:
Provides indications in both the flight deck and cabin that smoke has been detected in a lavatory, with the specific lavatory identified in the cabin.
71
The DISCH amber light on the ENG 1 Fire panel indicates:
The halon bottle is discharged.
72
When icing conditions exist, when should engine anti-ice be selected on?
During all ground and flight operations.
73
The Airfoil anti-ice system provides protection for the following?
The three outboard slats
74
Under what ECAM page would you get information about the anti-ice system?
BLEED
75
Which statement is correct regarding rain repellent?
It can be used in moderate to heavy rain conditions.
76
When will the window and the probe heat come on with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in the AUTO position?
After the first engine is started
77
Probe heat can be activated prior to engine start by:
Pressing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton.
78
If an APU Fire is detected on the ground:
The APU automatically shuts down and the halon extinguisher is automatically discharged.
79
The APU may be started and operated in flight. Which of the following is also true?
The APU may be operated up to the maximum certified pressure altitude of 39,000 feet.
80
You have just selected the APU MASTER SW pb to ON. You now select the APU START pb to ON. Which statement is correct?
The ECB will not engage the electric starter until the power-up self test is completed satisfactorily and the air intake flap is fully open.
81
How do you start the APU?
Press the APU MASTER SW pushbutton, followed 5 seconds later, by the APU START pushbutton.
82
Normally, how do you shut down the APU?
Press the APU MASTER SW pushbutton only.
83
The APU generator has the same power output as an engine generator.
True
84
Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from:
The left fuel feed line, through the engine 1 feed line.
85
Automatic control of the avionics ventilation system is provided by:
A single Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).
86
You can monitor the operation of the avionics ventilation system inlet and extract valves:
On the CAB PRESS page.
87
To cool avionics ventilation air, the skin heat exchanger:
Uses the temperature of the exterior of the aircraft’s fuselage in certain modes of operation.
88
The open configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
Uses outside air to ventilate the avionics equipment.
89
Status of the Avionics Ventilation System may be monitored on the:
CAB PRESS page.
90
The fwd cargo compartment on some aircraft:
Is heated and ventilated.
91
Heating, if installed, for the fwd cargo compartment:
Is provided by a trim air system.
Is controlled automatically by a cargo heat controller.
Can be adjusted from the flight deck.
92
In the open configuration, the skin heat exchanger isolation valve is ____ and the heat exchanger is ____
Closed / bypassed.
93
If the AEVC senses smoke in the avionics compartment, an Avionics Smoke Caution is generated and after placing the Blower pb and Extract pb to override, the following is accomplished:
The blower fan stops.
The inlet valve remains closed, or closes if open.
The air conditioning inlet valve opens.
94
Unlike the normal operating configurations, the Avionics Smoke Configuration doesn't occur automatically, and the crew must manually set the Avionics Smoke Configuration by:
Using the Blower pb and Extract pb.
95
In the event of a forward cargo compartment overheat condition, or if the Hot Air pb is selected to OFF, the Trim Air Valve closes and airflow to the forward cargo compartment is shut off.
True
96
The closed configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
Is used on the ground during cold ambient conditions.
Is used during flight.
Utilizes the skin heat exchanger.
97
Once engine bleed air is available to the packs, if pack flow selector is selected to Low, what percentage of normal flow is provided?
80%
98
HI flow rates are automatically commanded regardless of Pack Flow selector position when:
D. Both A and B
A. Operating on a single pack
B. The APU is the sole source of bleed air
