Systemic Health/Disease Flashcards
(148 cards)
1
Q
What is scabies?
A
A skin condition caused by parasitic mites that burrow under the skin and cause itching, rashes, and blisters.
Scabies is spread via close contact with infected people or infected linens or towels.
2
Q
How is scabies typically treated?
A
Via the application of prescribed topical cream or lotion or via oral medication.
Although scabies will self-resolve, immediate treatment is recommended to minimize spreading.
3
Q
What symptom do patients with scabies commonly report worsening at night?
A
Itching.
This symptom is a significant indicator of the mite infestation
*caused by Sarcoptes scabiei
4
Q
What is molluscum contagiosum?
A
A cutaneous viral infection that results in small red or skin-colored bumps.
The condition can self-resolve if left untreated.
5
Q
How can molluscum contagiosum be treated?
A
Lesions can be removed, or a topical ointment can be prescribed to decrease healing time.
*pox virus spread via direct contact in children and STD in adults
* can be removed via excision, cryotherapy, or laser treatment
*self- resolving
*reoccurrence is rare after complete resolution
6
Q
What type of infection is impetigo?
A
Bacterial in nature, caused by staphylococcus.
Impetigo results in cutaneous blisters of various sizes.
7
Q
Where are lesions from impetigo frequently located?
A
On the arms, legs, and face.
8
Q
What is tinea commonly known as?
A
Ringworm.
9
Q
What type of infection is tinea?
A
A fungal infection of the skin.
10
Q
Describe the appearance of lesions associated with tinea.
A
Circular with clear centers.
11
Q
What are the characteristic features of neurofibromatosis type I?
A
Iris Lisch nodules, patchy hyperpigmentation of the skin (cafe au-lait spots), small bump-like tumors under the skin (neurofibromas)
Neurofibromatosis type I is also known as Von Recklinghausen disease.
12
Q
What causes neurofibromatosis type I?
A
Mutations in neurofibromin
Neurofibromin is a protein that regulates cell growth.
13
Q
Which systems can be variably involved in neurofibromatosis type I?
A
Brain, bones, adrenal glands, vasculature
NF-1 can also cause disturbances in puberty and growth.
14
Q
How does neurofibromatosis type II differ from type I?
A
NF-2 presents with neurofibromas but not cafe au-lait spots or Lisch nodules
The main manifestation of NF-2 is the development of tumors in the brain.
15
Q
What is the main manifestation of neurofibromatosis type II?
A
Development of non-malignant tumors of the brain in the area of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve)
This can lead to visual symptoms related to posterior subcapsular cataracts.
16
Q
True or False: Cafe au-lait spots are associated with neurofibromatosis type II.
A
False
Cafe au-lait spots are characteristic of neurofibromatosis type I.
17
Q
Fill in the blank: The appearance of _______ is generally not associated with neurofibromatosis type II.
A
cafe au-lait spots
18
Q
What visual symptoms can occur in neurofibromatosis type II?
A
Development of posterior subcapsular cataracts
These cataracts can affect vision.
19
Q
What are the main roles of blood?
A
Transporting nutrients, carrying waste products, maintaining homeostasis, serving as a conduit for phagocytes
20
Q
What percentage of body weight does blood typically comprise?
A
6-8%
21
Q
How much blood does the average adult have?
A
Roughly 4-5 liters
22
Q
What is the composition of blood?
A
Plasma and cellular portion
23
Q
What percentage of blood volume does plasma make up?
A
50-60%
24
Q
What is the primary component of plasma?
A
Water
25
What percentage of plasma volume is water?
Roughly 91%
26
What are the key proteins found in plasma?
Albumin, globulins, high density lipoproteins, low density lipoproteins, fibrinogen
27
What roles do proteins in plasma perform?
Lipid transport, blood clotting, host defense
28
What other components are dissolved in plasma?
Gases, ions, hormones, sugars, vitamins, amino acids, lipids
29
What percentage of plasma volume is made up of other dissolved components?
Typically 1%
30
What is the cellular component of blood composed of?
White blood cells, platelets, red blood cells
31
What is the role of white blood cells?
Host defense
32
What is the largest constituent of the cellular portion of blood?
Red blood cells
33
What is the primary function of red blood cells?
Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
34
What is the second largest constituent of the cellular portion of blood?
Platelets
35
What is the paramount role of platelets?
Clotting
36
What governs blood type?
Genetics
## Footnote
Blood type is determined by surface proteins on red blood cells.
37
What are the three variants of surface markers that result in blood types?
A, B, and O
## Footnote
These markers lead to four possible blood types.
38
What is the characteristic of Type A blood?
Possess A markers, no antibodies against A markers, antibodies against B markers
## Footnote
Individuals with type A blood can receive type A and type O blood.
39
What blood types can individuals with Type A blood receive?
Type A and Type O
## Footnote
Type O red blood cells do not display any markers.
40
What is the characteristic of Type B blood?
Possess B markers, antibodies against A markers
## Footnote
Individuals with type B blood can receive type B and type O blood.
41
What blood types can individuals with Type B blood receive?
Type B and Type O
## Footnote
Individuals with type B blood cannot receive type A blood.
42
What is the characteristic of Type AB blood?
Possess A and B markers, no antibodies against A or B markers
## Footnote
Considered the universal recipient.
43
What blood types can individuals with Type AB blood receive?
Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O
## Footnote
They will not produce an immune reaction to any type of blood.
44
What is the characteristic of Type O blood?
No A or B markers, antibodies against both A and B markers
## Footnote
Considered the universal donor.
45
What blood type is considered the universal donor?
Type O
## Footnote
Individuals with type O blood can only receive type O blood.
46
What can occur if incompatible blood types are mixed?
Agglutination
## Footnote
Agglutination can lead to blockage of blood vessels causing tissue damage and/or death.
47
True or False: Type AB blood has antibodies against A and B markers.
False
## Footnote
Individuals with type AB blood do not produce antibodies against A or B markers.
48
Where else are A, B, and O markers found besides red blood cells?
Saliva and semen
## Footnote
These markers can also be present in other bodily fluids.
49
What is the Rhesus (Rh) factor?
A marker that may be present on the surface of red blood cells
50
What does it mean if a person is Rh-?
They do not possess Rh markers on their red blood cells
51
Why is the Rh factor important in pregnancy?
An Rh- pregnant woman may develop antibodies against an Rh+ fetus
52
What occurs when an Rh- pregnant woman has an Rh+ fetus?
She will develop antibodies only after the blood types mix
53
What can cause the mixing of blood types between an Rh- mother and an Rh+ fetus?
Mixing can occur across the placenta or during delivery
54
What happens if an Rh- woman becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ fetus?
Maternal antibodies enter the fetus's bloodstream, causing lysis of blood cells
55
What are the potential consequences of Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?
It can lead to the loss of the fetus
56
How can Rh incompatibility be treated?
By injecting the mother with Rhogam (anti-Rh gamma globulin)
57
What is the role of Rhogam in pregnancy?
It inactivates Rh+ antibodies to prevent fetal complications
58
A positive result in which 3 lab tests would help confirm Reiter’s syndrome?
+ CRP
+ ESR
+ HLA- B27
* Reiter’s syndrome = reactive arthritis due to an infectious process
59
P wave on EKG
Atrial depolarization (contraction of the atria)
* first wave, lasts for 80ms
60
QRS complex on EKG
from depolarization of the left and right ventricles
*displays larger amplitude than P wave because ventricles contain more muscles thus creating more powerful contraction
61
T wave on EKG
Results from recovery of the ventricles
62
What are patients with bronchitis commonly referred to as?
Blue bloaters
63
What are patients with emphysema commonly called?
Pink puffers
64
How does body mass typically differ between patients with bronchitis and emphysema?
Increased in bronchitis, decreased in emphysema
65
What is the predominant symptom in bronchitis?
Coughing
66
How does coughing present in emphysema compared to bronchitis?
Intermittently in emphysema, predominant in bronchitis
67
What is the sputum production like in bronchitis versus emphysema?
Large quantity in bronchitis, rare in emphysema
68
What is the predominant symptom in emphysema?
Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
69
When do patients with bronchitis usually experience dyspnea?
Primarily during exercise
70
How do respiratory infections compare between bronchitis and emphysema?
More frequent in bronchitis
71
What is the correct order in which inhaled air reaches the lungs?
Nasal cavity
Pharynx (throat)
Larynx (voice box)
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs
72
What hormone is secreted by the heart and helps to regulate blood pressure?
Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
* secreted by atria in response to increased fluid volume that is signaled by atrial stretch
*ANH causes kidney to excrete greater quantities of sodium
* also results in vasodilation of blood vessels, leading to decrease in blood pressure
73
Calcitonin is released by what gland?
Thyroid gland
* this hormone inhibits osteoclast activity in bones and absorption of calcium by the intestines, leading to diminished blood calcium levels
74
Melatonin is released by what gland?
Pineal gland
* in response to diminished light levels and causes the hypothalamus to ready the body for sleep
75
What hormone is released by the kidneys and stimulates the production of RBC by bone marrow?
Erythropoietin
76
Cushing disease is an excess of?
Cortisone
77
Exophthalmos is most often associated with what systemic condition?
Graves’ disease —> hyperthyroidism
* inflammatory cells proliferate in back of eye, filling orbit and forcing globe forward
* can also infiltrate EOMs causing muscle thickening and redirection of movement leading to diplopia
78
What is Hodgkin’s disease?
Type of Lymphoma
* 40% of lymphomas
*Reed-Sternberg cells (“owl eyes” nucleus
*commonly presents with enlarged lymph nodes, fever, night sweats and itching
Good prognosis if diagnosed early
79
What is Osteogenesis Imperfecta (Ol)?
A congenital, autosomal dominant condition characterized by brittle bones.
80
What causes Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
The production of abnormal type I collagen.
81
How many subtypes of Osteogenesis Imperfecta are there?
Four subtypes, each with different severities and prognoses.
82
What are common symptoms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Multiple bone fractures, potential hearing loss at an early age, and a blue hue to the sclera.
83
Does a cure exist for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
No, a cure does not exist.
84
What types of drugs have shown promising results in treating Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Bisphosphonates and calcium supplements.
85
What are recommended therapies for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Caution with high-impact activities and exercises to build strong muscles and bones.
86
What surgical interventions may be necessary for Osteogenesis Imperfecta patients?
Leg bones may need to be reinforced with metal rods or braces.
87
True or False: Patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta are at higher risk for retinal detachment.
True.
88
What complications may Osteogenesis Imperfecta patients face due to poor scleral rigidity?
Subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages.
89
Fill in the blank: Osteogenesis Imperfecta is characterized by _______.
[brittle bones]
90
A blood pressure cuff too small relative to patient’s upper arm will cause blood pressure to be falsely _____
Elevated
* opposite is true, cuff too big will cause falsely low blood pressure reading
91
What is the HbA1c level that indicates a diagnosis of diabetes?
6.5% or greater
## Footnote
The HbA1c test reflects average blood glucose levels over a 3-month period.
92
What does the HbA1c test measure?
Average blood glucose levels over a 3-month period
## Footnote
This test does not show daily fluctuations and does not require fasting.
93
What is the fasting plasma glucose level that indicates diabetes?
126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or greater
## Footnote
Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 hours.
94
Why is fasting plasma glucose (FPG) commonly used for diagnosing diabetes?
Convenient and cost-effective
## Footnote
FPG has been the most commonly used test for diagnosing diabetes.
95
What is the threshold for a 2-hour plasma glucose level during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to diagnose diabetes?
200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or greater
## Footnote
This test measures blood glucose after fasting for at least 8 hours and then drinking a glucose solution.
96
What occurs during a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)?
A person fasts for at least 8 hours then drinks a liquid containing 75 grams of glucose
## Footnote
The blood glucose level is tested 2 hours after ingestion.
97
What random plasma glucose level indicates diabetes in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia?
200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L)
## Footnote
This can be observed during a hyperglycemic crisis.
98
What should be done if there is no unequivocal hyperglycemia in a diabetes test result?
The result should be confirmed by repeat testing
## Footnote
This is to ensure accurate diagnosis.
99
A deficiency in which vitamin results in rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults?
Vitamin D
100
UV light converts Vitamin D to its active form, allowing greater absorption of?
Calcium
101
Dietary forms of vitamin D (name at least 3)
Butter
Eggs
Margarine
Fish liver oil
Fortified milk and juice
102
Progressive narrowing of arterial lumen
Atherosclerosis
103
Arteriosclerosis
104
Aerobic gram positive bacilli characteristics (3)
1) Rod shaped (bacilli)
2) Grow in presence of oxygen (or tolerate it, aerobic)
3) Thick cell wall
Examples: bacillus, clostridium, corynebacterium, listeria, Erysipelothrix, Gardnerella
105
Which organism is least likely to cause food poisoning?
Klebsiella
## Footnote
Klebsiella is primarily associated with pneumonia and has a high mortality rate in immunocompromised individuals.
106
What type of bacterium is Klebsiella?
Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium
107
What are the common symptoms of food poisoning?
* Nausea
* Vomiting
* Diarrhea
## Footnote
These symptoms help eliminate bacteria and contaminated food from the system.
108
What is the mortality rate associated with Klebsiella infections?
About 50%
109
True or False: Salmonella is a common cause of food poisoning.
True
110
Which microorganisms are mentioned as common culprits of food poisoning?
* Salmonella
* Campylobacter
* Shigella
111
Fill in the blank: The most common symptoms of food poisoning are _______.
[nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea]
112
What is a potential cause of non-responsive iritis in patients, particularly the elderly?
Intraocular tumor, leukemia, metastatic cancer, or non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
## Footnote
Further evaluation is warranted if conventional treatment for iritis is ineffective.
113
What are common symptoms reported by patients with iritis?
Photophobia, excessive lacrimation, pain, diminished visual acuity
## Footnote
Iritis is also known as anterior uveitis.
114
What causes iritis?
Inflammation of the iris or both the iris and the anterior portion of the ciliary body (iridocyclitis)
## Footnote
This inflammation can stem from various underlying conditions.
115
What are clinical signs of iritis?
Keratic precipitates, cells and flare, sluggish and slightly constricted pupils, irregular pupil margins, iris nodules
## Footnote
These signs vary depending on the etiology of the iritis.
116
What is the significance of posterior synechiae in iritis?
It may form during an acute episode of anterior uveitis or chronic uveitis
## Footnote
Irregular pupil margins can indicate their presence.
117
What is a key treatment for iritis?
Cycloplegic agent
## Footnote
This helps prevent synechiae formation and aids in pain management.
118
How does a cycloplegic agent help in managing iritis?
Controls pupil size and avoids unnecessary movement of the iris muscles
## Footnote
Movement can be painful due to inflammation.
119
What type of protection is helpful for patients with photophobia due to iritis?
UV protection (tinted lenses)
## Footnote
This management strategy helps alleviate light sensitivity.
120
What is the role of topical steroids in treating iritis?
Reduces inflammatory response
## Footnote
They must be tapered slowly to avoid rebound inflammation.
121
What conditions can lead to the development of iritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis, Behcet's syndrome, tuberculosis
## Footnote
These cases can typically be managed with traditional methods.
122
True or False: The number of cells in the anterior chamber should exceed those in the vitreous cavity in cases of iritis.
True
## Footnote
This is an important diagnostic criterion.
123
What is accommodation in the context of vision?
The process by which the lens becomes more spherically shaped to increase its dioptric power.
124
Which nervous system is responsible for innervating accommodation?
The parasympathetic system.
125
What happens to the ciliary muscles during accommodation?
They contract, decreasing the tension on the zonules.
126
What is the effect of decreased tension on the zonules?
The lens becomes more spherically shaped.
127
What does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body for?
Fight-or-flight response.
128
What is the primary role of the parasympathetic system?
To manage basic housekeeping tasks when the body is at rest.
129
What does the somatic division of the peripheral nervous system manage?
Motor function and conveys information to and from skeletal muscles, tendons, and skin.
130
How does the somatic division interact with the autonomic system?
It works closely with the autonomic system to relay signals to visceral organs.
131
What is the role of the lymphatic system?
It plays a large role in the immune system.
132
Fill in the blank: The contraction of the ciliary muscles during accommodation increases the _______ in the vitreous.
mass
133
True or False: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and digestion.
False
134
Fill in the blank: The _______ system is generally in charge of basic housekeeping tasks.
parasympathetic
135
What ocular diseases can lead to decreased corneal sensation?
Herpes simplex, keratoconus, diabetes, corneal dystrophies
## Footnote
These diseases can variably affect corneal sensitivity.
136
What is the term for decreased corneal sensitivity?
Hypoesthesia
## Footnote
Hypoesthesia can occur due to various ocular diseases and surgical procedures.
137
What surgical procedures are commonly associated with corneal desensitization?
Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK), laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis (LASIK)
## Footnote
These procedures involve disruption of corneal nerves.
138
How long may it take for corneal innervation and sensitization to recover after surgical injury?
3-12 months or longer
## Footnote
Recovery time can vary depending on the individual and the extent of nerve damage.
139
At what rate does nerve regeneration typically occur?
Approximately 1mm per month
## Footnote
This rate can influence recovery of corneal sensitivity post-surgery.
140
What is hyperalgesia?
An increase in sensitivity to pain
## Footnote
Hyperalgesia can occur in various medical conditions.
141
What is hypoxia?
A condition where a region is deprived of an adequate supply of oxygen
## Footnote
Hypoxia can affect tissue function and viability.
142
What is hypercapnia?
A condition of abnormally high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
## Footnote
Hypercapnia can have significant physiological effects.
143
What is one mechanism of action for drugs used to treat hypertension?
Antagonism of beta receptors, causing decreased heart rate and relaxation of vascular tone
## Footnote
Beta blockers decrease blood pressure by blocking catecholamines, leading to reduced cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
144
What effect do beta blockers have on renin release from the kidneys?
They cause a marked reduction in renin release
## Footnote
This reduction helps lower blood pressure by decreasing circulating angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
145
What is the role of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in blood pressure regulation?
ACE converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
## Footnote
Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure, so ACE inhibitors are used to lower it.
146
True or False: Beta blockers increase cardiac output and total peripheral resistance.
False
## Footnote
Beta blockers decrease both cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
147
Fill in the blank: Drugs that inhibit ACE help to lower blood pressure by preventing the conversion of angiotensin I into _______.
angiotensin II
## Footnote
Angiotensin II is a key player in vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation.
148
TORCH (vertical transmission conditions)
T: toxoplasmosis
O: other (HIV, varicella,syphilis, mumps and parvovirus)
R: Rubella
C: cytomegalovirus
H: Herpes Simplex
*pass the TORCH!*
