Systemic problems / Child Safeguarding / Healthy Child Programme / Childhood immunisations Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the main types of child maltreatment

A

Physical abuse
Sexual abuse
Emotional abuse
Neglect
Bullying / cyberbullying
Fabricated and induced illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identify risk factors for child maltreatment / non-accidental injury

A
  • Parental use of drugs and alcohol
  • Domestic violence/abuse in the household
  • Poor parental mental health
  • Child disability or additional needs
  • Excessive crying in a baby
  • Carer with learning disability
  • Single parent (lacks potential for parental intervention)
  • Unwanted pregnancy

Additional sources of stress:
- Homelessness / poor housing
- Racism
- Unemployment / high crime rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List some red flags from a history of a child’s injury, with regards to alerting for abuse

A
  • Lack of explanation for injuries / condition or an inconsistent explanation
  • Injuries not fitting with developmental age of child
  • Delay in seeking help (with no appropriate explanation)
  • Inappropriate carer/child response or odd relationship
  • Previous history of unusual injury
  • Already known to social services
  • Repeated incidence of was not brought to appointments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the procedures for raising concerns about child maltreatment

A

If you are concerned that a child/young person is at risk, you must:
- Inform an appropriate agency, such as your local authority children’s services, the NSPCC or the police
- You do not need to be certain that the child or young person is at risk of significant harm to take this step

When informing an agency, you should include information on:
- Child’s identity and parents/other members
- Reasons for your concern, including information on their health and relevant information regarding parents/carers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outline the duty of care for health professionals to report concerns regarding child maltreatment

A
  • Good medical practice places a duty on all doctors to protect and promote the health and well-being of children and young people
  • All doctors must act on any concerns they have about the safety or welfare of a child or young person
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

State some signs/symptoms of child maltreatment on examination

A
  • Bruises not suggestive of accidental bruising (e.g. bigger, soft tissue areas)
  • Bite marks
  • Subconjunctival haemorrhage
  • Chronic damage to lips (punching mouth)
  • Torn frenulum in mouth
  • Unusual skeletal fractures e.g. femur fracture in babies nappy age
  • Bruises in an immobile child
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

State some types of physical abuse

A
  • Bruising
  • Lacerations
  • Head injury
  • Fractures
  • Burns
  • Bites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

State some features of abusive bruises

A
  • Bruises on head (most common)
  • Seen in soft tissue areas (not bony prominences)
  • Can show imprints of implement
  • Often larger than accidental bruises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If there has been a suspected skeletal injury in a child under 2, suggest some investigations that should be considered

A
  • Skeletal surger
  • CT head scan
  • Ophthalmology assessment
  • Blood tests for clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Briefly outline the Healthy Child Programme, who is responsible for visits and when should they occur

A

The programme is designed to offer every family support in making healthy choices, it includes:
- immunisations
- health information
- developmental reviews
- access to a range of community services and resources

Pregnancy - 5 years old = Health Visiting team
- Antenatal visit at 28 weeks
- New baby and mental health review at 2 weeks
- 1 year health review
- 2 year health review
Once at school = Nursing team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

State some causes of inadequate nutritional intake

A
  • Neglect
  • Poor availability of food (poverty)
  • Family/parental problems
  • Feeding issues e.g. cleft lip/palate
  • Malabsorption conditions e.g. coeliac, cystic fibrosis, IBD
  • Inborn errors of metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

State a management plan for a malnourished child

A
  • Consider safeguarding referral
  • Involve dietician
  • Medically optimise any underlying conditions e.g. IBD control
  • Consider financial support for high-nutrition food
  • Monitor weight gain and developments regularly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State some signs and symptoms of dehydration in babies

A
  • Sunken fontanelle
  • Sunken eyes
  • Poor tears when crying
  • Limited wet nappies
  • Drowsy / irritable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

State some signs and symptoms of dehydration in babies

A
  • Dry mucosal membranes
  • Sunken eyes
  • Dark, strong-smelling wee
  • Reduced urinary frequency
  • Dizziness
  • Tiredness
  • Thirst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

State some potential causes of paediatric hyperthermia

A
  • Environmental conditions e.g. left in a hot car
  • Infection e.g. brain abscess, encephalitis, meningitis
  • Status Epilepticus
  • Damaged hypothalamus
  • Medications / illicit drugs e.g. Aspirin, stimulant drugs, serotonin drugs, anticholinergic, antipsychotics
  • Thyroid storm
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Malignant hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Outline how hyperthermia can be managed in paediatrics

A
  • Remove from warm environment and remove layers
  • Encourage fluid intake or IV fluids
  • Evaporative cooling e.g. spray cold water while fanning
  • Treat any seizures with Lorazepam
17
Q

State some factors as to why neonates/young children are more at risk of hypothermia

A
  • Large surface area to body mass ratio
  • Poorly developed metabolic mechanism
  • Reduced subcutaneous fat
  • Altered skin blood flow
  • High body water content
18
Q

State some rewarming techniques that can be used in older children with hypothermia

A
  • Care for in a warm environment / remove any wet clothes
  • Dry the skin
  • Warmed IV infusions
  • Forced warm air
  • Fluid filled garments
  • Warm water immersion
  • Peritoneal dialysis
  • Radiant rewarming
19
Q

State the immunisations which are due at 2 months old (8 weeks)

A

6-in-1
Rotavirus
Meningitis B

20
Q

State the immunisations which are due at 3 months old (12 weeks)

A

6-in-1 (2nd dose)
Rotavirus (2nd dose)
Pneumococcal

21
Q

State the immunisations which are due at 4 months old (16 weeks)

A

6-in-1 (3rd dose)
Meningitis B (2nd dose)

22
Q

State the immunisations which are due at 12 months old

A

MMR
Meningitis B (3rd dose)
Pneumococcal (2nd dose)
+ Hib/Meningitis C booster

23
Q

At what ages should a child have the flu vaccinations

A

Annual flu vaccination between 2-10 years

24
Q

State the immunisations which are due at 3 years and 4 months old (pre-school)

A

DTaP/ IPV (4-in-1 pre-school booster)
MMR (2nd dose)

25
Q

State what vaccination 12-13 years olds should have

A

HPV vaccine (human papillomavirus)
2 jabs given at 6-24 months apart

26
Q

State what vaccination 14 years olds should have

A

3-in-1 teenage booster
Meningitis ACWY vaccine

27
Q

State what vaccinations are in the 6 in 1 booster and at what ages these vaccinations are given

A
  • Diphtheria
  • Tetanus
  • Polio
  • Whooping cough (Pertussis)
  • Haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Hepatitis B

Given:
1st dose - 2 months
2nd dose - 3 months
3rd dose - 4 months

28
Q

State what vaccinations are in the 4 in 1 booster (preschool booster) and at what ages these vaccinations are given

A

DTaP/ IPV (4-in-1 pre-school booster):
- Diphtheria
- Tetanus
- Polio
- Whooping cough (Pertussis)

Given: 3 years and 4 months

29
Q

State what vaccinations are in the 3 in 1 booster (teenager booster) and at what ages these vaccinations are given

A

3-in-1 teenage booster:
- Tetanus
- Diphtheria
- Polio

Given: 14 years

30
Q

State what is involved in the newborn screening (as outlined in the NHS Healthy Child Programme)

A
  • Immediate physical external inspection of the newborn after birth
  • Newborn blood spot
  • Newborn hearing screening test
  • Physical examination of the newborn (ideally within 72 hours) checking: general examination, eyes, cardiac, hips, testses
31
Q

State when puberty is considered precocious and some conditions to consider as causes and how it can be managed

A

Girls - puberty occurs < 8 years old
Boys - puberty occurs < 9 years old

Central:
- Constitutional / familial / idiopathic
- Intracranial tumour

Peripheral:
- Endocrine disorder
- Adrenal tumours

Management:
- GnRH analogues (reduce gonadotropic hormone production)

32
Q

State when puberty is considered delayed and some conditions to consider as causes

A

Girls - puberty not yet occured > 13 years old
Boys - puberty not yet occured > 14 years old

Functional hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
- Chronic disease e.g. cystic fibrosis, diabetes or kidney disease
- Malnutrition e.g. eating disorder, coeliac disease

Hormonal:
- Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism = malfunctioning HPA axis e.g. trauma, tumours
- Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism = malfunctioning sex organs (ovaries / testicles) e.g. from radiotherapy, cryptorchidism
- Hypothyroidism

Genetic:
- Congenital androgen insensitivity syndrome
- Genetic conditions e.g. Klinefelter syndrome, Kallmann syndrome

33
Q

Why should babies under 3 not be given Cow’s milk

A

Can cause iron deficiency anaemia

34
Q

List some conditions which may lead to infant feeding problems
- Structural
- Neurodevelopmental

A

Structural:
- Cleft lip or palete
- Macroglossia (Down’s)
- Pierre Robin sequence
- Laryngotracheomalacia
- Pyloric stenosis
- Tracheoesophageal fistula
- Oesophageal atresia / stenosis

Neurodevelopmental:
- Cerebral palsy
- Muscular dystrophy
- Myasthenia gravis