Systems Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

In TCAS AUTO mode, what’s the above/below scanning range level or in climb/descent?

A
  • +/-300fpm = +/-2700’
    * >+300fpm climb = +9900’ up/-2700’
    * >-300fpm descent = -9900’/+2700’
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2
Q

How many of the following? GNSS, IRS, TCAS, Transponder

A

2, 3, 1, 2

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3
Q

How to see NAV data on CTP?

A

Select STBY NAV in menu

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4
Q

TA Only below what altitude?

A

1100

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5
Q

TAWS shows terrain in Amber and Red at what elevation relative to aircraft?

A

Amber -500/+2000
Red >2000

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6
Q

Which terrain inhibit switches are available?

A

INHIBIT ALL
GEAR
FLAP
GS
TERRAIN

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7
Q

When do you get “GEAR” aural alert where the gear is not down, and which one can be silenced. This is different from “too low gear”.

A

RA <1000 in flap landing config
OR
<15000ft, flaps in landing config, RA inop (can be silenced)

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8
Q

When does the ALTN GEAR DN advisory come on?

A

Every 550 hours during gear extension, until gear retracted

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9
Q

How does ALTN gear switch work?

A

Electrically removed unlocks, and releases hydraulic pressure to lower gear by gravity

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10
Q

What does a blank or “III”white indication mean on status page for brakes?

A

III means that there are fewer than 100 cycles remaining before brakes need replacing. Less than 5% brake life.

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11
Q

HLEIF?

A

High load event indication function

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12
Q

When does CVR and FDR come on and off?

A

CVR: Beacon on to 10 min after beacon off
FDR: Bescon on to off

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13
Q

Rudder pedal and NWS steering angles?

A

Rudder pedals: 8 to 4 degrees at 100 KIAS

NWS: 80 to 4 degrees at 100KIAS

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14
Q

Dome and entrance lights will come off after how many min, if aircraft unpowered?

A

20 min

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15
Q

Where are the strobe lights located?

A

Wingtips and tailcone

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16
Q

What do the PFCCs take input from?

A

IRS, ADS, surface position, envelope, and structural limit data

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17
Q

What are the names of the ejector pumps for center-main, main to collector, and collector to engine?

A

Transfer, scavenge, main

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18
Q

How many IIMs, PFCCs, and REUs?

A

3, 3, and 10

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

How long does probe heat come when when switch pressed, on ground?

A

2 min

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21
Q

What pressure is the hydraulic system, incl RAT?

A

3000, 3350 max
2850 RAT

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22
Q

What are the temp control knob settings?
Zone duct settings?

A

18,24,30
5,65 for the 18 and 30 settings

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23
Q

FWD cargo temp settings

A

LO 15-20
HI 20-25

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24
Q

EMERG DEPRESS button results in what cabin rate of descent in manual or AUTO?

A

3500, 2500 to 15K or aircraft altitude

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25
What RNP for continental, oceanic, terminal?
2,4,1
26
What is TSE?
PDE + FTE + EPU
27
How many FD, AP, AT
2,3,2
28
Can EDM button be manually selected below 25K?
No
29
What is the rated power of the electrical systems?
115VAC 28VDC Batteries 24VDC 42Ah 75kVA VFGs incl APU VFG
30
AC systems?
VFGs External RAT
31
DC systems?
3 TRUs 2 NiCad batteries 2 PMAGs
32
Wx Radar range, and turbulence detection
320NM, 40NM
33
Range of TCAS
40NM
34
Describe the 3 important features available in auto wx radar
GCS, Overflight protection (15NM, above 22K), PAC (80NM, PAC rings)
35
What can change weather radar returns, and what does the wx radar compensate for?
Temp, ocean/continent/time of day, and altitude
36
Wx radar Turbulence detection is good for how many miles and for how long before it goes to Wx/TURB mode?
40NM and 30 sec
37
What is MAP mode used for on weather radar?
Disables GCS for ground mapping
38
How does wx radar work for TO in AUTO?
4-7 degree up, 50NM range
39
How does wx radar work for climb and descent in auto?
One beam level, one beam points down or up
40
What is the range of PWS?
TO: below 80 KIAS, and above 50’ to 2400’ LDG: below 2300’ to 50’ No new alerts above 1200
41
42
What are the requirements for waste and water to work?
Service panel closed AC power available Tank not full/water in tank
43
How is fuel fed to APU?
Main ejector L AC boost pumps Suction feed
44
APU can be started by?
AC power from TRU 3 Both batteries
45
When will EICAS show APU on?
At 70% N1. Electrical and bleed air not available til 95%
46
What are 3 interesting features of the FDRAS?
Decompression panel that opens the door when >0.8psi diff Deadbolt backup Hinges can be removed from inside FD in emergency
47
After how many seconds will the FD door unlock after emergency access code is entered, and no response from FD is given?
30 seconds
48
How many stages in the engine?
3 LPC 3 LPT 8HPC 2 HPT
49
How much of the air goes to compressor vs fan?
20/80
50
How much of the thrust is generated by the fan?
80%
51
How long for IRS to align?
Depends on latitude 5-17 min regular 15-25 min for AIM
52
Order for fuel to engine (FIFFI)
Tank IFPC Fuel oil exchanger Filter IFPC
53
Which stages are bleed air taken from
4 and 8
54
What are the different types of ADS-C contracts, and how many can you have?
Periodic (304 sec) Demand Event 4 at a time
55
What are the different idles?
Ground idle Flight idle Approach idle (higher for GA)
56
How do you cancel CPDLC emergency?
Select emergency mode off, and contact ATC by voice. For PAN PAN, contact them by voice.
57
Which CPDLC actions are prohibited?
ALTITUDE on “when can we” DIVERT TO on emergency WX DEV TO POS FANS clearance within 5 NM
58
Where can you inhibit aural and visual alerts from SMS ie runway disagree or not a runway
AVIO tab
59
What is runway disagree vs not a runway
Runway disagree means that it’s not the runway entered into FMS
60
How long does WAI stay on for in AUTO?
5 min
61
What type of engines do we have?
PW1500G
62
What’s the purpose of TLLS?
To 80KIAS, makes sure nose wheel stays on the ground
63
What % of max are derates?
10 TO1 20 TO2 30% TO3
64
What % lower than CLB is CLB 1 and CLB 2
5 and 10%
65
When does the ATS icon come on in flight?
Below Idle thrust
66
When does windmill icon come on in flight?
above 250 KIAS below 270, below idle thrust
67
When does relight icon come on in flight
During relight sequence
68
What’s the emergency equipment in FD?
CLEEFFFS
69
What are ABCD K fires?
Ash Boom Charge Dent Kooking
70
How many oxygen masks in each lavatory, and what is the oxygen type?
2 masks Oxygen bottle
71
If someone complains of unpleasant smell in cabin when masks are down, what is it?
Oxygen generators
72
How much oxygen provided in back for pax in min?
13
73
For smoke, what can be used when oxygen can’t be used?
Damp cloths
74
How many O2 masks in each ODU?
4
75
When pilot masks are set to 100%, when do you actually get 100%?
350 and above cabin altitude
76
What are the 3 OEBs?
AP engagement on TO roll AT anomalies with radar altimeter. Disengage and reengage with RA operative again CC1 and 2: use max reverse and low auto brake. Consider runway with CC3
77
If CTP fails, where can you setup LVTO?
Only on the other CTP
78
How are negative and positive pitch lines depicted on HUD?
Dashed and solid
79
When does PTM disappear?
200’ on To
80
What is the inclinometer when OEI called?
Beta index