Systems Flashcards
(147 cards)
0
Q
What is primary source of power for CRJ?
A
AC electric power from 2 integrated drive generators (IDG)
1
Q
What is the ADG and what does it power?
A
Air driven generator powers essential buss, hyd pump 3B, slats/flaps, and stab trim CH2
2
Q
What is alternate power for CRJ? Emergency?
A
APU gen 40 KVA 115V 400Hz
ADG (air driven gen) 15KVA 115V 400Hz
3
Q
What are DC power sources?
A
2 batteries: main 24V 17Amp/hr
APU 24V 43Amp/hr
4
Q
Which battery is used to start?
A
APU battery
5
Q
What does main battery power?
A
ECU
6
Q
How is main battery charged?
A
Power from AC buss 1
7
Q
How is APU battery charged?
A
From AC service buss
8
Q
Where is main battery located?
A
Nose compartment
9
Q
Where is APU battery located?
A
Aft service bay
10
Q
What is max altitude for APU generator use?
A
FL 410
11
Q
What are the AC buses?
A
Bus 1, 2, essential bus & service bus
12
Q
In what order does AC bus 1 search for power?
A
Generator 1-APU gen-Gen 2-external power
13
Q
How many DC buses are there and what are they?
A
9 total: Bus 1,2,service, utility,essential,battery,APU battery direct, main battery direct, & emergency bus
14
Q
How many TRUs are there and what do they do?
A
4 total: convert 115V AC to 28V DC
15
Q
What are TRUs rated?
A
120 amps each
16
Q
What does the ADG power in emergency?
A
AC essential bus which also powers essential TRU 1 by doing so TRU powers essential DC bus and batt bus.
17
Q
Are there any DC tie connectors that we can control?
A
Yes the service bus connector
18
Q
When would you see the DC emergency bus on display?
A
Only when 1 or more routes to the bus are not powered or bus fault
19
Q
How is the DC emergency bus powered?
A
APU battery direct bus
20
Q
What is powered off the DC emergency bus?
A
Hyd, fuel, and bleed air SOV, squib bottles, refuel/de fuel panel and valves
21
Q
What is max time for ground ops with batt power only? Why?
A
5 mins because ED1&2 need AC powered cooling fans
22
Q
What buses are powered by batt master switch?
A
Main batt direct, APU batt direct & DC batt bus
23
Q
When and how will ADG deploy?
A
Automatically with complete loss of AC power
24
How are TRUs cooled?
Individual fans
25
How are TRUs turned on?
Automatic when AC buses are powered
26
What controls the DC tie contactors?
DC power center (DCPC)
27
How many fuel tanks are there?
3, left right & center
28
How many NACA vents are there?
2: 1 on bottom of each wing
29
How many engine driven fuel pumps are there?
2
30
What happens if we lose an engine driven fuel pump?
Engine failure
31
Where does APU get fuel?
Left fuel tank collector bay
32
How many ejector pumps in fuel system and what are they?
8: 2 transfer ejectors, 4 scavenger ejectors, and 2 main ejectors all motive flow
33
How many electric fuel pumps are there? How are they powered? What do they do?
2: DC powered, move fuel from collector tanks to engines for start & back up when low pressure detected
34
When will fuel system automatically transfer fuel?
200lb imbalance
35
What is max fuel imbalance for take off? In flight?
300lb t/o. 800lb flight
36
What is min temp of fuel for take off?
-30°C
37
What is min fuel temp in flight?
Above -40°C
38
How is engine fuel heated?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
39
What is min engine fuel temp for take off?
5°C
40
Is there a take off limitation if center tank has >500lb of fuel?
Each main must have >4400lb
41
Which bus powers the refuel/de fuel panel & SOV?
APU batt direct bus
42
How many probes detect fuel quantity? Where are they?
17 total: 6 in each main, 3 in center, 1 in each collector
43
How many MLIs (magnetic level indicators)are there?
5: 2 in each main and 1 in center
44
What is max load on APU?
40 KVA
45
What is max alt for starting APU?
FL370
46
What is max alt for APU operation?
FL410
47
What is max alt for APU bleed air extraction?
FL250
48
What is max speed with APU door open?
220 KIAS unless APU is operating, then no limit
49
What is min battery voltage for starting APU?
22V
50
What does the main battery power during APU start?
APU EPU
51
What does APU battery power during APU start?
Cranking of 28V DC start motor
52
When withe AVAIL switchlight of APU illuminate?
99% RPM +2 seconds
53
What is CRJ 900 engine model #? 700?
GE CF34-8C5. 700 could be -8C1, or -8C5B1
54
What is thrust rating with/without APR?
14,750/13,560lb
55
What is max/min ambient temp for take off & landing?
ISA+35°/-40°C
56
What is max alt for windmill start of engine?
FL210
57
What is max engine N2 split at ground idle?
2%
58
How much thrust is produced by bypass air, core air?
80%, and 20%
59
How many stages of compression in engine?
10 stage axial flow compressor
60
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?
Engine driven fuel pump, IDG, air turbine starter, engine driven hyd pump, oil pump, FADEC alternator
61
What is the engine bleed air used for?
Engine start, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & cowl ice
62
What stages of bleed air are used?
Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when demand exceeds 6th
63
What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?
Air conditioning system controller (ACSC) automatically opens the HPV (high pressure valve)
64
How many igniters on each engine?
2, IGN-A & IGN-B
65
What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground start?
20% or greater N2, ITT<120°C
66
What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a xbleed start?
42PSI to a max of 80% N2
67
When will APR arm on take off?
Engine speed within 8% of scheduled take off power
68
When will APR system activate?
Thrust levers in TOGA, N1s differ by 15% or more, or when thrust levers are in max power
69
What happens when APR system activates?
FADEC commands N1 speed increase
70
What indication will there be of APR activation?
Green APR icon on operable N1 gauge
71
Will APR activate if engine fails during go around?
Yes
72
What is used to deploy & stow the thrust reversers?
Hydraulics L uses hyd #1, R uses hyd #2
73
What speeds do thrust reversers need to be stowed or idle?
900-60KIAS, 700-75KIAS
74
What happens when a thrust reverser accidentally deploys?
FADEC commands reverser to close and idle on engine
75
What is normal air source for engine starts?
APU or cross bleed if doing taxi
76
What is min oil temp for start?
-40°C
77
What is max continuous oil temp?
155°C
78
What is max permissible oil temp?
163°C 15min tops
79
What is max oil consumption?
.05 gal/hr
80
Where is oil quantity displayed?
EICAS menu page
81
When is oil capacity checked?
3min to 2hr after shutdown
82
When should engine oil be replenished?
15min to 2hr after shutdown
83
What is total quantity of engine oil tanks?
7.2 qt
84
What does hyd system #1 power?
```
Rudder & elevator
L aileron
Outboard multifunction spoiler panels
L thrust reverser
Outboard ground spoilers
```
85
What does hyd system #2 power?
```
Rudder & elevators
R aileron
Inboard multifunction spoiler panel
Landing gear alternate extension
Outboard brakes
R thrust reverser
```
86
How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there and when do they operate?
1 on each engine and anytime engine is running
87
How many electric hydraulic pumps are there?
2 AC motor pumps controlled by switches on hyd panel
88
When do backup AC pumps turn on?
With switch in auto position pumps will activate anytime flaps are selected out of 0°
89
How many pumps are used for hyd system #3?
Two, both are AC powered
90
When is hyd system #3 back up pump automatically powered?
If in auto mode, any time flaps selected out of 0° and whenever ADG is operating
91
What does hyd system #3 power?
```
Rudder & elevator
Ailerons
Inboard ground spoilers
Inboard brakes
Nose steering
Landing gear
```
92
How much pressure is in each hyd system?
3000psi
93
What is max hyd pressure?
3200psi
94
When do we get low hyd pressure caution?
1800 psi
95
What is normal hyd system reservoir level?
45-85% but could be dispatched with less
96
What high temp causes caution message for hyd system?
96°C
97
How many hyd system accumulators are there?
5: 1 for each system & 1 for each brake system
98
How many PCUs control elevator?
3 PCUs per side
99
What is the RTL?
Rudder travel limiter that prevents over stress of verticle stab
100
How does RTL adjust?
Controlled by SSCU by inputs from slat/flap handle, airspeed, WOW, and engine
101
How many PCUs control rudder?
3
102
What is normal pressure differential?
8.5PSID
103
What is max relief pressure differential?
8.7 PSID
104
What is max negative pressure differential?
-0.5PSID
105
What is max differential during taxi, take off, and landing?
0.1 PSID
106
How long does pressurization system retain origin airport altitude?
10 minutes
107
What is rate of climb for pressurization system? Descent?
300-500fpm/300fpm
108
What does the Cabin pressure control panel do? (CPCP)
Controls auto drop of passenger O2 masks @ 14,000', limits cabin alt to 14,500', and controls opening & closing speed of ground valve
109
When is a cabin alt caution message received?
8,500'. Changes to warning at 10,000'
110
How many safety valves in pressurization system?
Two: one for over pressure and one for negative pressure
111
If pressurization is in manual mode, where is it displayed?
EICAS primary page also ECS synoptic page
112
Which cargo bays are pressurized?
Forward and aft but only aft is ventilated for animal transport
113
What happens when EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed?
Manual DC motor drives outflow valve fully open, cabin alt is measured by sensor in control panel, failure of microprocessor will cause standby CPC to generate EICAS messages, control panel microprocessor restricts cabin alt to 14,500', and if below 14,500' then aircraft will depress.
114
How is all fire detection powered?
DC battery bus
115
How is all fire protection powered?
DC emergency bus which is always powered
116
What is the fire detection control unit?
FDCU is a computer that monitors the electrical resistance of the loops
117
Where is there a dual loop system?
Engine area, APU compartment, along fuselage & wing bleed air ducts
118
Where is a single loop detection?
MLG bay
119
What fire protection do the engines have?
Dual loop detection system, extinguishing capabilities in engine core, low pressure turbine has detection only, and two fires bottles
120
Where are firex bottles located and what are the composed of?
Aft equipment bay, charged wit halon, pressurized to 600PSI & contains two squibs
121
What will pushing the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight do?
Close fuel bleed and hyd SOV, arm each squib and shut down generator it will also cause the bottle armed switchlight to illuminate
122
What happens when the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed?
Closes fuel SOV, APU load control valve, shuts down APU, arms squib and shuts down generator
123
How many smoke detectors are in cargo bays?
3 in FWD and 2 in AFT
124
When will fire warning display in FWD cargo? AFT?
When smoke is detected by 2 in FWD or 1 in the AFT
125
What will happen when smoke is detected in cargo?
SMOKE FWD(AFT) CARGO warning, master warning lights and "smoke" aural warning
126
How many firex bottles are dedicated to cargo?
FWD and AFT share 2 bottles
127
What happens when firex bottle is discharged in cargo?
Small bottle depletes immediately & large bottle depletes over 60 min
128
What happens when fwd or aft CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight is pushed?
Selects bay where bottles discharge, arms the squibs, and if aft then shuts off heater and closes a/c SOV.
129
What happens when you run the MLG bay overheat test?
Triple chime, master warning lights, MLG BAY OVHT message and "gear bay overheat" aural message
130
What happens when you run the OVHT TEST WARN FAIL test?
Single chime, master caution lights, and MLG OVHT FAIL caution message
131
What happens when FIRE DETECTION FIREX MONITOR test is conducted?
FIRE SYS OK advisory message, all 3 fire switchlights illuminate and 3 bottle armed switchlights illuminate, fwd & aft cargo smoke switchlights illuminate, master warning lights, and cargo bottle armed switchlight.
132
How is an unsuccessful fire test recognized?
The absence of FIRE SYS OK advisory message
133
What two methods are used for anti-icing?
Hot air and electrical
134
What parts of aircraft use hot air anti-icing?
Wing leading edges and engine intake cowls
135
What uses electrical anti-icing methods?
Windshield, side windows, pitot static probes, alternate static ports, AOA sensors, TAT probe, ice detectors and T2 probe
136
How many ice detectors are there?
2 probes that vibrate at high frequency and deice for 5 sec during a 60sec period
137
When does cowl anti-ice need to be operating on ground? In flight?
OAT is 10°C or below & visible moisture is present and in air when in icing conditions or ice is detected
138
What is icing conditions in flight?
TAT at or below 10°C and visible moisture except when SAT is -40°C or below
139
When must wing anti-ice be selected on the ground? In flight?
On for take off when OAT is 5°C or below and visible moisture or contaminated runway. But if anti-icing fluids have been applied it must only be turned on just prior to thrust increase for take off. In flight it must be on when annunciate or in icing conditions with airspeed less than 230KIAS
140
How big and what is the pressure of the cockpit oxygen bottle?
50cubic feet charged at 1850PSI with a pressure relief disc that blows at 2800PSI (green disc on left front side aircraft)
141
What is minimum O2 bottle pressure for dispatch?
1180PSI or 1630PSI with jumpseater
142
How many PBEs exist on aircraft? Where are they?
4 with 15min of supply at 8000'. Flight deck, fwd entrance, coat closet and overhead bin row 21
143
How many fire extinguishers are on aircraft? Where are they?
4 halon: flight deck right, forward entrance, above crew wardrobe, and overhead bin row 21.
144
How many life vests and where are they?
5 vests: flight deck left right and Jumpseat, fwd & aft flight attendant station
145
What other emergency equipment is in aircraft?
2 portable O2 cylinders(Fwd entrance & aft bulkhead), 3 first aid kits one being enhanced(fwd entrance & enhanced in row 20 overhead bin), and crash axe in flight deck
146
How many battery packs power the emergency lights?
Five 6V packs supplying 10min, 4 packs on 700
