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Systems 4 Flashcards

(91 cards)

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1
Q

At what temperature will the brakes become damaged?

A

8.1 million lbs

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2
Q

What happens at 8.1 million pounds of brake temperature?

A

Fuse plug deflates tire

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3
Q

At what temperature are the brakes destroyed?

A

14.8 million lbs

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4
Q

Time limit for temperature build up in the wheels?

A

15 minutes

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5
Q

Don’t approach wheels that are hot for how long?

A

30 minutes

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6
Q

What are the transducers for?

A

Measuring Wheel speed for anti-skid

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7
Q

What modes is the anti-skid system functional in? -Manual -Parking -Powered -Emergency

A

Power brakes

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8
Q

Most efficient use of the emergency brake system? -Rapidly pump it -Add foot pressure -Push down as hard as possible -Single smooth steady application

A

Single smooth steady application

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9
Q

Who controls the brakes if both pilot and co-pilot are pressing?

A

Whoever is pressing harder

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10
Q

What determines who is actually applying brake pressure?

A

Mixing valves

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11
Q

Anti-skid is available in Brake system manual mode (emergency brakes)? (T/F)

A

False

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12
Q

If the brakes are hot, do you set the parking brake?

A

No

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13
Q

If you don’t have anti-skid how do you apply the brakes?

A

Apply the brakes gradually, increasing force slowly to avoid skidding the wheels

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14
Q

You can land with brake force applied?

A

No don’t do that, could blow tire

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15
Q

Altitude range for a controllability check?

A

8,000 to 20,000 feet

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16
Q

What controls aircraft pitch and how is it controlled?

A

Elevator, mechanically controlled

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17
Q

What controls aircraft Roll and how is it controlled?

A

Spoilers, mechanically controlled

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18
Q

What controls aircraft Yaw and how is it controlled?

A

Rudder, mechanically controlled

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19
Q

Which secondary flight controls are hydraulically operated? -Speed brake -Flaps -Trim

A

Flaps and speed brake

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20
Q

How is emergency (Secondary) pitch trim controlled (hydraulic or electric)?

A

Electrically with a switch on the pedestal

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21
Q

Jammed primary flight control (elevator, rudder, spoilers) is indicated how?

A

Can’t move that primary control

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22
Q

Max airspeed for speed brake is?

A

There isn’t one, no speed limit

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23
Q

During normal 2 engine ops you get a rudder boost fail annunciator, rudder forces will be….

A

The same, only in single engine ops

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24
Q

How long does it take for the trim warning horn to sound?

A

5 seconds

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25
Which systems have trim warning horn?
Pitch and roll
26
If you try to trim and you don't get results....?
Pitch trim is not working
27
Where is the normal and secondary pitch trim?
Normal: On yoke Secondary: On pedestal Both electric
28
If you put flaps down and get a rolling motion with no annunciator....?
Aft flap asymmetry, main asym would give an annunciator
29
What causes speed brakes to retract automatically?
On ground, 88% N1 In air, Advancing throttle to/past normal takeoff position
30
When does the rudder boost help?
Asymmetric thrust conditions (single engine)
31
If you can't retract the speed brake you have (more/less drag) which requires (more/less) thrust and requires (more/less) roll forces?
More drag, more thrust, more roll force
32
Stabilizers not responding to normal emergency pitch trim inputs and the A/P is not working indicates...?
Jammed stabilizer
33
Usual cause for binding flight controls?
Autopilot servo mounts
34
If you have a jammed spoiler, how do you counter rolling tendency?
Roll trim
35
How do you stop runaway rudder (or any) trim?
Trim interrupt
36
Flap position transmitters send signal for asym flaps if the difference is greater than ___ degrees?
7
37
If an aft flap asymmetry occurs: -Flap asym annunciator illuminates -No annunciator illumination -Aft flap annunciator illuminates
No annunciator indication
38
Speed of emergency pitch trim?
36894
39
Primary roll control?
Spoilers
40
What happens if speed brakes fail to retract after pushing switch?
Speed brake light stays illuminated
41
When can you have the yaw damper on?
Anytime except takeoff and landing
42
Max 30 flap extension speed?
165
43
When can you extend flaps 30?
170
44
Flap asymmetry annunciator lights for which flap system (main/aft)?
Main
45
What do you do if rudder boost fails?
Expect higher rudder pedal forces to occur during single engine operations. Not the answer that talks about circuit breakers
46
Which trim system does the disconnect/interrupt not affect?
Emergency pitch trim
47
Would you move the CoG forward to assist in holding the nosewheel off the runway with a jammed rudder?
No, bring it aft to hold the nose up as long as possible
48
Speed brakes are _______ controlled and _______ operated
Electrically, Hydraulically
49
Secondary flight controls are (3):
-flaps -speed brakes -trim (pitch, roll, yaw)
50
How can you tell if a hydraulic pump fails?
HYDR PUMP PRESS LO (less than 750 psi)
51
How do you tell if you have high hydraulic pressure?
Looking at the gauge. There is no warning annunciator
52
At what pressure does hydraulic pressure stabilize? -1300 psi -1500 psi -1650 psi -1850 psi
1,500 psi
53
How many pumps provide hydraulic pressure?
2
54
Which hydraulic sub-system does not receive power through the valve package?
Wheel Brakes
55
Which system is not powered by the hydraulic system? -spoilers -flaps -speed brake -landing gear
Spoilers
56
Pressurizing the reservoir with engine bleed air does what two things?
Prevents foaming and provides constant supply of fluids
57
What is the maximum hydraulic pressure (red line)?
1,850 psi
58
Hydraulic level low annunciator comes on at what quantity?
0.6 gal
59
Hydraulic pressure of ______ psi or higher requires pilot intervention? (Bypass valve)
1,850 psi
60
The ______ should relieve pressure automatically at ______ psi before the Bypass valve needs to be used.
Pressure relief valve, 1,650 psi
61
What uses hydraulic pressure to operate normally (4)?
Flaps Speed brake Wheel brakes Landing gear
62
Which is true regarding hydraulic filters? -The pilot activates a bypass if the system becomes clogged -Hydraulic bypass annunciator illuminates if the filter clogs -The filters remove contaminants that could damage moving parts -Each hydraulic component contains a self-cleaning filter
The filters remove contaminants that could damage moving parts
63
What happens when you put the hydraulic filter bypass switch to the release position? -Spoiler and rudder won't function properly -Vents hydraulic fluid -Turns off hydraulic pumps -The bypass valve opens allowing hydraulic fluid to flow back to the reservoir
The bypass valve opens allowing hydraulic fluid to flow back to the reservoir
64
When does the hydraulic system start operating?
Automatically at engine start
65
How do you stop the flow of hydraulic fluid from the reservoir to the pumps?
H/V Shutoff valves
66
After prolonged flight in cold temps followed by rapid descent (especially when lowering gear) what might happen?
1 or both pump pressure low annunciators may light up. (Most hydraulic demand)
67
What is the most probable cause when the hydraulic gauge is normal but you have a LH Pump Press Lo annunciator?
Left hydraulic pump has malfunctioned
68
What provides means of bypassing the main gear handle ground safety switch in the event of a malfunction?
Downlock release
69
When turning the aircraft on the ground you can go ________ degrees with only the rudder pedals and with brakes, you can turn up to ________ degrees.
25; 45
70
Which of the following is true of the landing gear handle? -It mechanically unlocks the gear doors -It Directs nitrogen pressure to the downside of the main gear actuator -It Mechanically moves the hydraulic valve to the down position -It sends an electric signal to the hydraulic valve package to start the gear ext/ret sequence
It sends an electric signal to the hydraulic valve package to start the gear ext/ret sequence
71
What holds the inboard main gear fuselage doors locked up?
Mechanical
72
Conditions for aural tone in the landing gear are: (1 on ground; 2 in air)
Ground: Pitch trim not in Takeoff and throttles above normal Takeoff range Air: Gear not down, flaps at 0 or 10, 70% N2 or less or Flaps greater than 10
73
Max airspeed at altitude for normal gear extension:
200 KIAS and 20,000 Feet MSL
74
During normal gear extension, when does the landing gear extend referencing the main inboard doors?
When the inboard doors are fully open
75
Nitrogen storage provides storage for how many emergency brake application?
7-10 , 7-9 with landing gear door retraction
76
Nitrogen bottle pressure is used to _______ during emergency gear extension sequence.
Close the main landing gear fuselage doors
77
When does NWS engage with the rudder pedals?
As the nose gear extends
78
If performing the emergency extension checklist, after achieving safe gear indication what do you do with the gear?
Nothing, do not touch it
79
When nose gear extension is complete where are the nose gear doors?
Forward nose door closes, aft nose door stays open
80
During gear extension sequence when does the main landing gear lower?
After inboard doors are fully open
81
The T1 landing gear is ______ controlled and ______ operated
Electrically; hydraulically
82
When the nose gear is fully retracted how is it locked in the up positions?
Mechanically
83
If the left main landing gear fails to extend properly, which lights should be illuminated?
Right and nose green plus red unlocked
84
Normal strut extension for nose gear is?
3.5 inches
85
The minimum strut extension for the main landing gear is
1.1 inches
86
When the main gear are fully extended, a(n) ________ locks them down?
Over centered condition
87
Max airspeed for emergency gear extension is?
150 KIAS
88
What is the pressure source for emergency landing gear door close?
Nitrogen bottle
89
During landing gear retraction what is normal sequence of the indicators?
Unlocked light illuminates Downlock lights extinguishes Unlock light extinguishes
90
What does pulling the emergency gear handle do?
Mechanically releasing the uplocks for the gear doors, gravity pulls the gear down
91
What on the nose landing gear is designed to dampen rapid movement?
Shimmy damper

XPW Systems (6 decks)

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