Systems Flashcards
1
Q
The maximum flap extension speed for the EMB-145 flaps 45° is;
A
145 kt.
2
Q
The CVG actuators are operated by;
A
Fuel pressure.
3
Q
What items are installed on the accessory gearbox?
A
FPMU. Alternator. Air turbine starter. Hydraulic pump. Oil pump. Generators (2).
4
Q
The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if;
A
The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.
The hydraulic pressure falls below 1600 psi.
5
Q
If the FADEC in control of the engine fails;
A
The other FADEC will immediately assume control.
6
Q
The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means;
A
The aircraft is above 135 kt with both hydraulic systems supplying the
7
Q
Hydraulic system 1 incorporates a priority valve to;
A
Ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure of the flight controls during electric … operation.
8
Q
To extend the speed brakes you must set the speed brake lever to open and;
A
Thrust setting low, flaps 0 or 9 degrees.
9
Q
What is the maximum altitude to start the APU?
A
30 000 ft.
FL300.
10
Q
The APU fuel shutoff valve automatically closes;
A
10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the extinguishing switch is pressed.
11
Q
The MAIN DOOR OPEN EICAS message warning is displayed;
A
When the aircraft is on the ground with engine 1 running and the main door is open or unlocked.
12
Q
The number 1 hydraulic accumulator supplies enough backup pressure to;
A
Open and close the nose gear doors 4 times.
13
Q
Choose the correct statement concerning the DAUs;
A
DAU #2 monitors the rear aircraft systems as well as the on side engine.
14
Q
If both PFDs display an amber SG2 symbol;
A
SGU is supplying the information for both PFDs.
15
Q
Choose the correct statement about EICAS take-off inhibition logic.
A
Begins at V1 minus 15 kt and ends at 400 ft (radar altimeter), CAS less than 60 kt or 1 minute.
16
Q
During normal flight operations the electrical system is;
A
Divided into two seperate networks, left and right.
17
Q
The 24 volt lead acid battery provides;
A
A source of power for the operation of the GCUs.
18
Q
The engine/APU fire detection system;
A
Automatically returns to normal mode when the fire or overheat condition has been removed.
19
Q
The engine fire bottles;
A
Are cross connected to enable the bottle to be discharged into either engine.
20
Q
The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher;
A
Will discharge automatically if the temperature in the waste bin exceeds a preset level.
21
Q
In the event of a complete loss of electric fuel pumps;
A
The engines can suction fuel feed.
22
Q
To determine the fuel quantity using the measuring sticks;
A
Enter the table in the OAM with the value read on the stick to obtain the fuel quantity in gallons.
23
Q
The normal way to shut down the APU is;
A
Press the stop button.
24
Q
If an APU caution message appears on the EICAS;
A
Do not try to restart the APU.
25
The 24 blade ducted fan is driven by;
The 3 stage low pressure turbine.
26
The 14th stage HP bleed air valve opens;
During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts and anti ice operation.
27
Operation of the landing gear is;
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
28
The nose gear doors are;
Hydraulically actuated.
29
To avoid retraction on the ground;
A machanical device locks the landing gear lever.
30
The nose wheel steering is enabled by;
The nose gear weight on wheel proximity switch.
31
The total nose wheel steering authority using both tiller and pedals is;
76°.
32
The steering can be manually disengaged by;
Either steering disengagement button on both control wheels.
33
A red BLD 1 or 2 OVTEMP warning message is displayed;
If bleed air temperature downstream of the pre-cooler is too high.
34
The low speed awareness airspeed tape indication has three colours;
White, yellow, red.
35
The minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch without an observer is;
1100 psi.
36
The PBEs provide oxygen for a minimum of;
15 minutes.
37
The purpose of the primary RSB is to;
Connect RMU 1 and 2 so they can cross-tune the radios.
38
The Tuning Backup Control Head (TBCH);
Can be used to tune COM 2 and NAV 2.
39
A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately;
12 minutes.
40
Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector;
To be set to align briefly between each flight.
41
The EGPWS will generate an aural TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP message;
30 seconds away from terrain conflict.
42
The nose gear landing light;
Requires the nose gear to be down and locked and the nose landing switch selected to illuminate.
43
Low bank mode is automatically selected;
When climbing above 25000 ft.
44
Choose the correct statement regarding the Flight Level Change Mode (FLC).
FLC will maintain a climb speed of Mach 0.56 above 17377 ft.
45
The red light on the emergency flashlights;
Is illuminated when the flashlight is charging.
46
The crew oxygen mask delivers oxygen under positive pressure;
By selecting the emergency setting on the mask.
47
When the passenger oxygen knob is set to AUTO the system is automatically deployed when;
The cabin altitude is above 14000 +/- 500 ft.
48
If the FPMU fails;
The engine will shut down.
49
If the CPL button is pressed with the autopilot engaged;
The autopilot will default to HDG and PITCH hold modes.
50
In the auto pressure controller, the take-off sequence lasts until;
The cabin altitude is equal to the theoretical altitude.
51
If an Air Data Computer fails;
A red X will appear on the airspeed and altitude display.
52
Why does the weather RADAR receives AHRS information?
For antenna stabilisation.
53
The maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation is;
170 kt.
54
Take-off configuration warning systems parameters include;
Flaps, spoilers, pitch trim and brakes.
55
An EICAS caution message AURAL WARN FAIL means;
Both AWU channels are inoperative.
56
The stick pusher;
Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.
57
The GPU AVAIL caption indicates;
Ground power can be selected by pressing the GPU button on the electrical panel.
58
During normal in flight operation;
One electric fuel pump is in operation and the other two are in automatic standby.
59
With only two generators available in flight, which bus bars will still be powered?
All except the Shed Buses will be powered.
60
To correct a fuel imbalance;
Turn the cross feed knob towards the low tank.
61
Hydraulic system 1 supplies the;
The rudder, the landing gear, and the outboard brakes.
62
The right #2 engine may be started with;
Bleed air from the APU with the cross bleed open.
63
Correct operation of the thermal anti-ice system can be confirmed by;
Open inscriptions in the anti-ice switches on the overhead panel.
64
The rear electronics compartment is cooled in flight by;
Opening of the pressurisation outflow valves which are situated in the compartment.
65
When holding in icing conditions;
You must be configured with flaps up, gear up and maintain 200 kt.
66
The forward electronics bay cooling system includes;
NACA air inlets with water separators, recirculating and exhaust fans.
Shut off valves and thermostats.
BOTH ARE CORRECT.
67
What is the maximum rear baggage compartment weight?
2646 lb.
68
The engine igniters are powered by;
The PMAs only.
69
The maximum operating altitude for the EMB-145 is;
37000 ft.
70
The aircraft flight number is entered into the DFDR through the;
Captain’s clock.
71
The ram air valves;
Open automatically when both packs are OFF.
72
Icing conditions exist when;
Visible moisture is present in any form and the outside air temperature is 10°C or less.
73
Proper operation of the pressurisation system requires the pilot to;
Enter the landing elevation.
74
To perform the ice detector test on the ground;
The engines must be supplying system bleed air.
75
The flight crew oxygen system;
Includes and external discharge indicator on the right forward fuselage.
76
How many igniter plugs are there in each engine?
2.
77
A red HDG FAIL annunciation on the PFT indicates;
A failure of the heading system.
78
On landing the weather RADAR;
Automatically goes into forced standby mode.
79
Blank display screens on MFD 1 and PFD 2 indicate;
DC bus 2 failure.
80
The emergency light batteries are charged;
By the essential bus.
81
High pressure engine bleed air is tapped from the compressor;
14th stage.
82
Ram air for the standby airspeed indicator is supplied by;
Pilot static tube 3.
83
The FADEC is powered by the PMA at;
50% N2.
84
The normal source of power for starting the APU is;
Battery #2.
85
The anti-skid system;
Can only relieve brake pressure.
86
The emergency/parking brake system is;
Mechanically commanded.
87
Which statement regarding the hydraulic ENG PUMP SHUTOFF valve is correct?
The valve shuts off supply to the engine driven pump only.
88
In the event of hydraulic system 2 failure, how many applications of the emergency brake does the accumulator provide?
6.
89
Turbulent air penetration speed above 10 000 ft is;
250 kt/0.63 Mach whichever is lower.
90
The bleed air pre-cooler functions to control;
Bleed air temperature.
91
The maximum airspeed for the extension of the landing gear is;
250 kt.
92
The maximum cabin differential over pressure is;
8.1 psid.
93
In icing conditions, the air conditioning logic closes which pack?
The left pack below 24600 ft.
94
If a fuel pump was to fail in flight how would the crew be alerted?
A cycling amber FUEL LO PRESSURE EICAS message would be presented.
95
The APU will automatically shutdown in flight;
Under speed, loss of speed data or ESU failure.
96
The loss of a generator is flight will result in the following automatic actions.
The three remaining generators will operate in parallel.
97
Manoeuvring speed VA is;
200 kt.
98
The engine accessory gearbox is driven by the;
High pressure spool.
99
The electric hydraulic pumps activated in the AUTO position if;
The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.
100
To extend the speed brakes you must set the speed brake lever to open and;
Thrust lever angle must be low, and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.
101
The ground spoilers are deployed when the aircraft is on the ground and;
Main landing it will speed is greater than 25 kt with a low TLA.
102
The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means;
The aircraft is above 135 kt with both hydraulic systems operating the rudder.
103
The left engine may be started with;
Bleed air from the right engine with the crossbleed open.
104
The maximum landing weight of the ERJ-145 LR is;
42 549 lb.
105
The crossbleed valve opens when the switch is in the auto position if;
Engine 2 is being started with the APU or a crossbleed engine start.
106
Hydraulic system 2 supplies the;
Emergency brakes, outboard spoilers and inboard brakes.
107
The landing gear warning message will be heard if;
The flaps are extended to 45 and the gear is not down and locked.
108
The emergency brakes;
Use system 2 hydraulic pressure and an accumulator.
109
The STEER INOP message on the EICAS means;
The nose wheel is in the free-castor mode and must be reset with the steering.
110
The normal cabin differential pressure is;
7.8 psid.
111
Pitch trim on the ERJ-145 is achieved by;
Electrically repositioning the horizontal stabiliser.
112
The flap velocity sensors;
Detect flap asymmetry.
113
A battery over temperature warning is activated if the battery temperature exceeds;
70°C.
114
The maximum fuel tank imbalance in the ERJ-145 is;
800 lb.
115
The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the auto position by;
System pressure less than 1600 psi.
116
If the EICAS displays PRESN AUTO FAIL caution message, you should;
Consult the QRH.
117
The total number of landing lights is;
3, one on each wing and one on the nose.
118
The red beacon light switch controls;
The red beacon lights and the flight data recorder.
119
When the courtesy light switch is in the auto position;
All courtesy and stair lights extinguish if the main door is closed.
120
The courtesy light switch can control the cockpit dome light provided;
The courtesy light switch is in the AUTO position and the A/C is de-energised.
121
No smoking/fasten seatbelt signs are automatically illuminated;
Whenever the oxygen dispensing units are open either automatically by the altimetric switch or manually from the cockpit control.
122
The emergency lights are charging when;
The emergency light switch is in ARM.
123
In the ARM position, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate;
For an electrical emergency, supplied by dedicated batteries.
124
The APU fuel shut off valve automatically closes;
10 seconds after and APU fire is detected on the ground or when the APU fire extinguishing switch is pressed.
125
The minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement after take-off is;
500 ft.
126
Choose the incorrect statement concerning the over wing emergency exits;
They can only be open from inside the aircraft.
127
In the event of an IC 600 1 failure;
PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS will display a red X.
128
If the air data computer fails;
A red X appears on the airspeed and altitude tapes, and a red VS is displayed on the vertical speed indicator.
129
An amber CAS MSG displayed on the EICAS means;
There is a discrepancy in the number of messages between IC 600 1 and 2.
130
The brake ON light indicates;
The parking brake is applied and there is hydraulic pressure in the parking lines.
131
The APU generator supplies 28 V DC and is rated at;
400 amps below 30 000 feet, 300 amps above 30 000 feet.
132
24 V, 44 amp/hour NiCad batteries can supply essential in-flight power for;
40 minutes.
133
Detection of a fire in the APU compartment;
Causes an automatic shutdown of the APU if the aircraft is on the ground.
134
Choose the correct statement concerning the APU fire extinguishing button.
When pressed, the extinguisher will discharge and the APU shut off valve will close.
135
Select the correct statement about the baggage compartment smoke detection system.
The BAGG SMOKE EICAS message disappears when smoke is no longer present.
136
The purpose of the baggage compartment meted discharge extinguisher;
To provide a constant flow of halon for 50 minutes.
137
Pulling the engine fire handle;
Closest the associated fuel, hydraulic, bleed and engine anti-ice shut off valves.
138
The maximum usable quantity for an EMB-145 LR in each tank is;
5717 lb.
139
If APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS;
Do not try to restart the APU.
140
The 14 stage compressor is connected to;
A two-stage high-pressure turbine.
141
The PMA can power the ignition system at speeds above;
10% N2.
142
The FADECs will command maximum reverse thrust only when;
Both main gear are on the ground and wheel speeds are above 25 kt or all wheels are on the ground.
143
Which is not an example of when the FADEC will select T/O 1 thrust?
Either go around button is pressed for 2 seconds or more.
144
The continuous thrust mode is available;
When the aircraft is 300 feet above take off altitude and the gear is not locked down.
145
Choose the correct statement concerning the weight on wheels proximity switches;
There are a total of 5, 2 on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.
146
Landing gear position is determined by;
2 proximity sensors on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.
147
Each landing gear is held in the up position by;
A mechanical up lock hook.
148
Pulling up the freefall extension lever;
Mechanically releases the uplock hooks.
149
The nose wheel steering is automatically disabled;
As soon as the aircraft is airborne.
150
Using the nose wheel steering handle allows;
71° of nose wheel displacement.
151
With 76° of nose wheel steering, the turning radius is;
69 ft 7 in.
152
The engine high stage valve automatically opens during;
Low engine thrust operations.
153
The engine bleed valves;
Can be closed using buttons on the overhead panel.
154
An amber ADC1 one or ADC2 is displayed in the upper left hand corner of the PFD when;
One ADC is providing data for both PFDs.
155
The low altitude raster band is displayed on the altitude tape when;
The aircraft is below 550 feet radio altitude.
156
The portable oxygen bottle pressures for dispatch are;
1600 psi for the short bottle and 1200 psi for the tall bottle.
157
In the event of a loss of either side of the secondary RSB;
You will still be able to tune the RMU normally on the lost side.
158
If you lose all three radio service buses (RSBs);
You will be able to tune COM 2 and NAV 2 through the TCBH.
159
A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately;
12 minutes.
160
Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector;
To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.
161
The heading hold mode;
Is the default mode with no other mode is selected.
Will be displayed on the PFD with an ROL label when selected.
Both 1 and 2 are correct.
162
The pitch attitude can be changed by the pitch control wheel provided;
The autopilot is engaged and the flight director is in PIT mode.
163
During a windshield warning;
The altitude pre-select mode is cancelled.
164
How many portable oxygen bottles are on board the aircraft?
Two, one located in the forward left cabin equipment storage unit and one located on the aft cabin bulkhead right side.
165
How many handheld halon fire extinguishers are on board the aircraft?
Three, one in the cockpit and two in the cabin.
166
Which is not a location are PBE is stored in?
The forward cabin bulkhead next to the flight attendant’s seat.
167
An aural cabin warning is generated when the cabin altitude exceeds;
10 000 ft.
168
What is the total number of static wicks on the aircraft?
22.
169
During an in-flight engine start;
The FADEC in control will command its ignition on and request the other FADEC to command its ignition on.
170
The maximum ramp wait for the ERJ-145 LR is;
48 722 lb.
171
The maximum speed for flaps 9, 22 and 45 are respectively;
250, 200 and 145 kt.
172
In the event of a battery over-temperature the correct memory action is;
Associated battery - OFF.
173
If a take-off is to be performed from a sea level airfield the pre-pressurisation sequence will cause the cabin altitude to descend towards an altitude equivalent of;
-300 ft.
174
If an AHRS fails;
A red ATT FAIL and HDG FAIL message will appear on the PFD.
175
If the airspeed comparison monitor detects a difference of more than 5 kt on the PFDs;
An amber IAS caption appears on both airspeed tapes.
176
How do you override the weather radar forced standby function?
Press the STAB button 4 times within 3 seconds.
177
The minimum turning radius when the steering angle is 76° is;
69 ft and 7 in.
178
What are the four modes of the FMS in descending order of accuracy?
GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, IRS (if installed).
179
How is the AWU status confirmed during power up?
And aural message AURAL UNIT OK is generated.
180
If ground power is selected while the engine driven generators are supplying the aircraft electrical system;
The generators will go off-line automatically leaving the GPU powering the aircraft.
181
Concerning the data acquisition units which of the following statements is incorrect?
Both DAUs supply information to both IC 600s.
182
If the flaps have not been selected to the take-off position;
The AWU will generate a TAKE-OFF FLAPS message.
183
The stick pusher;
Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.
184
If ground power is selected while the APU generator is supplying the aircraft electrical systems;
The ground power source will have priority over the APU.
185
In normal flight operations;
BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed.
186
During an electrical emergency the following are operational;
The standby flight instruments and the EICAS.
187
The EMB-145 fire protection system includes;
Two fire extinguishing bottles for the engine, two for the baggage compartment, one for the APU and one in the lavatory trash bin.
188
To transfer fuel from tank 1 to tank 2 you must;
Fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.
189
The ESU automatically shuts down the APU at;
108% RPM.
190
Pressing the fire detection test button will;
Illuminate the fire handles and the bag smoke light, present three red and two amber flashing EICAS messages and the operating warning bell.
191
During APU starting the APU bleed valve;
Must be closed to start.
192
If all the fuel booster pumps failed;
The FPMU will suction feed fuel from the fuel tank, the engine will keep running.
193
An amber SPOILER FAIL EICAS message indicates;
Any spoiler panel is open without being commanded.
194
The engine high stage valve opens;
During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts or anti-ice operations.
195
The ejector pump always requires at least one bleed supply;
To ensure correct operation of the outflow valves.
