Systems Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the maximum gross weight of the UH-60M?
A
22,000 pounds
2
Q
Aluminum paneling is used for added E3 protection. Where aluminum paneling couldn’t be used, _______________ was used?
A
Aluminum mesh
3
Q
What is the minimum crew for the UH-60M aircraft?
A
Two: Pilot and Copilot
4
Q
Which flight control computer is located in the nose compartment?
A
2 FCC
5
Q
How much ground clearance does the landing and searchlights have when extended?
A
Less than one foot
6
Q
The wide chord blade has what type of spar?
A
Graphite Epoxy
7
Q
If flights of over _____ hours are made, engine oil level must be at the full line of sight glass before flight.
A
6 hours
8
Q
The landing gear is designed to absorb a landing rate of up to _____ feet per second?
A
39 fps
9
Q
The _____ provides pneumatic power for main engine start, cabin heating and electrical power for ground operations and in-flight emergency electrical power.
A
APU
10
Q
The main transmission has a built in ____ forward tilt.
A
3 degree
11
Q
The cargo hook is used to carry external loads up to ______ lbs.
A
9,000
12
Q
Accumulator pressure gage should read _____ psi before APU starting.
A
2800
13
Q
What changes the direction, transmits torque, and reduces shaft speed from the main gear box to the tail rotor gear box?
A
The intermediate gear box
14
Q
The tail wheel swivels _____ degrees on a yoke assembly when unlocked.
A
360 degrees
15
Q
The bottom trailing edge of the tail pylon has an aerodynamically shaped fairing, with a ____ degree of camber to decrease the amount of tail rotor pitch/anti-torque required in forward flight.
A
7 degrees
16
Q
The helicopter has a variable angle of incidence stabilator to enhance __________ qualities.
A
Handling
17
Q
Where is the #1 flight control computer located?
A
Aft avionics compartment
18
Q
Why should you not store any items below the pilot seats?
A
Any obstruction will increase the probability and severity of injury.
19
Q
What is the purpose of the Reversionary Switch Panel?
A
Provides a means of manually selecting alternate data sources for the pilot and copilot MFDs.
20
Q
What is the purpose of the I-Event switch?
A
To capture intermittent events such as noise and vibrations.
21
Q
Where is the stabilator indicator located?
A
Upper left corner of the PFD.
22
Q
The radio control panel on the lower console is connected to which radio?
A
AN/ARC-231-3
23
Q
How can the tail wheel be locked in the trail position?
A
The tail wheel can be locked in the trail position by pressing the tail wheel LOCK/UNLK switch to indicate LOCK.
24
Q
What are the three positions of the Backup Hydraulic Pump switch?
A
ON, OFF, AUTO
25
What are the 4 positions on an ENG POWER COND LEVER (PCL) called?
OFF-IDLE-FLY-LOCKOUT
26
How is cockpit ventilation controlled?
Ventilation is controlled through a switch on the upper console marked VENT BLOWER.
27
How many fire extinguisher emergency off handles are there in the cockpit?
Three total - two engine fire extinguisher T-handles on the engine control quadrant and one APU T-handle on the APU control panel.
28
The ICS system consists of how many panels located throughout the cabin?
Five
29
How is a radio’s audio disabled?
Pull up on the associated radio’s volume control knob.
30
What does the ICS consist of?
The ICS is a centralized system consisting of one Interface Control Unit (ICU); five ICS control panels, and cyclic and collective switches.
31
The CVR is used primarily for what?
Accident investigation
32
The acoustic beacon will emanate a signal for how long?
30 days
33
What controls the START/STOP function of the CVR/FDR?
DCUs
34
What kind of protection is offered to the pilot and copilot against small arms fire?
A back, side, and bottom ballistic protection.
35
VLEAs may be manually adjusted for occupants ranging from _____ to _____.
The VLEAs may be manually adjusted for occupants ranging in weight from 130 to 250 pounds optimizing the occupants protection.
36
Red bands showing on the VLEA housing indicates what?
The seat has stroked.
37
What directions can the Martin Baker Seat be adjusted to face?
These seats can be adjusted to face left, right, forward, or aft.
38
What is the purpose of the inertia reels on the seat back and bottom?
It gives the wearer freedom to move about his station.
39
How many passengers will the UH-60M normally carry in a “seats in” configuration, not including crew members?
Eleven
40
What are the two types of restraints offered to the passengers in a UH-60M?
Belt and shoulder harness
41
What kind of protection is offered to the pilot and copilot against small arms fire?
Armor plating resistant up to 7.62mm
42
Equipment stowage compartment maximum capacity is ________
125 pounds each side
43
Which FCC deals with Trim?
FCC #2
44
If you lose an attitude indicator, what has failed?
EGI
45
What does the Flight/Mission Display System (F/MDS) consist of?
MFDs, Reversionary Switch Panels, and MFSCs.
46
The outboard, No. 1 and No. 4 MFDs default to the _____ upon power up. The inboard No. 2 and No. 3 MFDs default to the _____ display.
PFD / EICAS
47
The pilot and copilot Reversionary Switch Panels allow the pilots to do what?
Select an Alternate Data Source
48
What do the MFSCs provide?
They provide control of the MFD cursor, cursor activation, menu navigation and selection.
49
Selection of the MFD display and various submodes are accomplished using each MFDs ___________________.
24 bezel keys - 6 keys per side.
50
The PFD __________ annunciations are displayed as a yellow parameter label with a double-headed yellow arrow above.
Miscompare
51
Where is the Stabilator Position Indicator located?
The upper left corner of the PFD
52
The Stabilator Position indicator will be displayed in what colors for which modes of operation?
White for the Auto Mode and Limited Auto Mode; Yellow for the Manual Mode
53
An input failure of the airspeed data will result in what being displayed?
A red IAS fail flag
54
The pitch and roll attitude inputs to the PFD are provided by what?
The EGIs
55
When does the standard deviation scale on the ADI change to an expanded scale?
When a localizer (ILS) frequency is tuned
56
Where is the altimeter correction setting displayed?
Just below the altimeter
57
The FD reference on the Vertical Speed Indicator is displayed as __________?
A magenta circle
58
The Radar Altimeter Lo and High bug settings can be reset to their default settings of _____ and _____ with the REF ADJ knob.
50 ft and 200 ft
59
A failure of an EGI would result in what two major items being removed from the Primary Flight Display?
The ADI and HSI
60
What does a yellow readout with an R represent in the wind speed and direction field?
Remembered winds
61
The course pointer can be adjusted by the OBS knob for all navigation sources except?
FMS
62
The Co-pilot has ILS as his NAV source and the Pilot has FMS as his. The #2 FMS fails and the Pilot selects the FMS Reversionary switch. How would the Pilot’s nav data display annunciation appear?
FMS1
63
What additional items can be displayed on the ARC submode that is not displayed on the FULL submode?
The Distance Rings, Stormscope, Flightplan, and Hover point.
64
How are Strikes and Cells displayed when the Stormscope is enabled?
Strikes are displayed as an X, Cells displayed as a +.
65
What does the Velocity Vector and Acceleration cue represent?
Velocity vector represents the direction and velocity the aircraft is currently moving. The Acceleration cue represents the directional acceleration.
66
The PFD wind symbology is white when the current wind information is displayed but will be yellow whenever the winds are in _______________________.
A remembered mode
67
When the Power Pod TGT is in the 2.5 minute range, it is displayed as a __________________________________.
Yellow box with two yellow balls on top
68
On the PFD display, a black on red annunciation indicates the ______ to the MFD for that parameter has failed or is not being __________.
Input / received
69
The vertical Deviation (GS) pointer when displayed is a _________.
Diamond
70
The barometric correction readout is displayed below the altimeter and is displayed in ____________.
Inches of Hg
71
The Vne indication will extend in a counterclockwise (decreasing airspeed) direction along the scale to show a reduced Vne IAS value when the __________ is in the __________.
Stabilator / manual mode
72
The ND FULL display is oriented _____________?
Heading up
73
The ND PLAN mode is oriented __________?
True north up
74
On the Nav Display page, map annunciations are displayed where?
Bottom center
75
EICAS display information consists of three groups / data, which are ___________________________________________________.
Engine/rotor/transmission data, fuel data, and caution/advisory data.
76
What does a large red X represent when displayed on the EICAS display?
An engine out caution
77
Within each of the EICAS windows, cautions and advisories are displayed in chronological order, with the most recently activated displayed at the _____ of the window.
Top
78
A miscompare of EICAS data will be displayed how?
Inverse video label (NG in a yellow box with black letters)
79
What are the first five lines of data on the FMS display called?
Header
80
The pilot’s FMS header defaults to what on power up?
NAV
81
How many waypoints may be put into a flight plan?
99
82
How many “store points” may be captured “on the fly?”
24
83
A box around a parameter on any given screen indicates what?
That the parameter may be edited
84
What determines which FMS becomes the Bus Controller (BC)?
The first panel to complete its PBIT
85
What determines which FMS becomes the Bus Controller (BC)?
The first panel to complete its PBIT
86
“IG2” indicates which navigation solution?
Blended solution from the #2 EGI
87
What does the “STS” annunciation display at the top of the FMS mean?
A change in status has occurred
88
What are the two RNP modes available to the crew on the Flight Plan Management page?
Civil (CIV) and Tactical (TAC)
89
How are the flight plan procedures accessed? (Ie SID, STAR, and IAP?)
On the FMS, select FPN - PROCS
90
What options are available when Nearest Waypoints is selected from the FPN page?
USER WPTS, AIRPORTS, NAVAIDS, INTERSECTIONS
91
______ allows the crew to view waypoint/airport information and available procedures, but the crew cannot select, load, or activate approaches from this screen
INFO
92
An FMS alert ______________ is displayed when the aircraft exceeds the containment limit
CONTAINMNT EXCD (yellow box black letters)
93
The _____________ PERFORMANCE function will ONLY be used to reference PERFORMANCE values after verifying the correct configuration of the aircraft.
Calculator
94
The flight crew __________ manually verify information presented by aircraft systems, (ETA, req fuel, req GS, Duration Range, and Bingo) during flight operations.
SHALL
95
How can you quickly “capture” a Target Store point?
Press the FIX fixed function key twice
96
Which page allows the pilot to change the com data/frequency assigned to a specific preset?
DAT (mission data page)
97
If the Bus Controller (BC) FMS fails, the FMS switch on the ________ should be set to make the operational FMS the new BC.
ECP
98
CAUTION: Should circuit breakers be pulled or reset in flight?
No
99
What does the TAC MAP display provide?
Tactical situational awareness information
100
Selecting ______ from the menu accesses the symbol, graphic, or waypoint data as appropriate, for the hooked item.
Data
101
The map annunciation block displays what two types of annunciations?
Caution and/or advisory
102
What are the 3 push buttons located on the multi function slew controller (MFSC)?
Select (index finger), Menu (middle finger), and Mode (ring finger)
103
Which functions does the Collective Slew Controller (CSC) have?
Slew and Select Function
104
__________ is provided in the symbol and waypoint edit menus when an item is ________ and more than one item is within .5 inches of another symbol.
NEXT / hooked
105
The active Cursor can be switched between onside MFDs by means of the ________ ________ icon.
Screen jump
106
HAT uses which altitude?
AGL - EAATS iPad says “AGL or barometric altitude”
107
The MFD provides control of the ASE threat shading on all tactical map underlays when ______ is turned on.
TIV
108
What are the two types of frame files?
Data frames (i.e. approach plates) and Captured frames (screensaves)
109
How do you access the data frame sub-menu?
Selection of FRAME from the map mode menu will access the data frame sub-menu
110
The default free cursor is displayed on the TAC Map as _____________________.
A white crosshair
111
Pressing the Multi-Function Slew Controller __________ button while the cursor is in the Free Cursor Mode will cause an edit menu to appear.
Select
112
The cursor box displays the geo-referenced coordinates of the cursor position and will be displayed in either _______________ units.
Lat/Long or MGRS
113
When the Free cursor is adjacent to a bezel key, it changes from white to ______. Pressing the MFSC select switch is interpreted as a press of the bezel key which the cursor is adjacent to.
Cyan.
114
__________ toggles the map orientation through heading-up (HDG), North up (North), and Track-up (TRK). Heading-up is the default mode?
Orient
115
You can select ADD or INSERT on the __________ edit menu.
Waypoint
116
While the FMS is configured for Lat/long the range ring distance readouts will be displayed in __________________.
Nautical miles
117
Range rings are only displayed while the map is in __________ mode.
Dynamic
118
The panning function is only available in the ________ mode.
Static
119
The cautions/advisories in the CAS box on the TAC page appear in what order?
Chronological
120
Steering cue commands for display on the MFDs are provided by?
The FCCs
121
What are the five components of the Flight Director?
An independent Flight Control Computer (FCC), A Flight Director/Display Control Panel (FD/DCP), Two MFD’s, Go ARND switches and Remote Standby switches, and sensors.
122
The FD processes signals from navigation and flight instrument sets to produce steering commands that are performed through which axes?
Through the pitch, roll, or collective axis.
123
What are the three HVR moves?
HVR DECL, HVR VHLD, & HVR POSN.
124
What are the five Roll NAV sources?
FMS, VOR, TCN, LOC, & BC.
125
Once the GO ARND parameters of a wings level climb at 750 FPM and 70 KIAS has been achieved, what happens?
GO ARND disengages then, VS hold and IAS hold engage
126
To engage the aircraft level attitude recovery mode when in an unusual attitude, the aircraft must be above ______ knots.
60 kts
127
ALTP captures approximately _____ feet prior to the selected reference when ARM.
300 feet
128
When engaging the flight director using the Trim Beeper below 60 kts, what two modes will capture on the FD/DCP?
Hover Mode and RALT
