{ "@context": "https://schema.org", "@type": "Organization", "name": "Brainscape", "url": "https://www.brainscape.com/", "logo": "https://www.brainscape.com/pks/images/cms/public-views/shared/Brainscape-logo-c4e172b280b4616f7fda.svg", "sameAs": [ "https://www.facebook.com/Brainscape", "https://x.com/brainscape", "https://www.linkedin.com/company/brainscape", "https://www.instagram.com/brainscape/", "https://www.tiktok.com/@brainscapeu", "https://www.pinterest.com/brainscape/", "https://www.youtube.com/@BrainscapeNY" ], "contactPoint": { "@type": "ContactPoint", "telephone": "(929) 334-4005", "contactType": "customer service", "availableLanguage": ["English"] }, "founder": { "@type": "Person", "name": "Andrew Cohen" }, "description": "Brainscape’s spaced repetition system is proven to DOUBLE learning results! Find, make, and study flashcards online or in our mobile app. Serious learners only.", "address": { "@type": "PostalAddress", "streetAddress": "159 W 25th St, Ste 517", "addressLocality": "New York", "addressRegion": "NY", "postalCode": "10001", "addressCountry": "USA" } }

Systems limitations Flashcards

(142 cards)

1
Q

Cracked windshield -
Limitations

A

INNER ply cracks = Prohibited

Flight only permitted with OUTER ply cracks, with the following restrictions :
- Max 25hr flight time
- Vision not impaired
- Use of wipers is not impaired
- Windshield anti-ice must be operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Severe Icing -
(4x) Recommandations

A
  • Exit the severe icing ASAP
  • Disengage AP / Do NOT engage autopilot
  • Do NOT extend (or) retract flaps
  • Avoid abrupt manoeuvres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Min Bat (V) for GPU plug-in

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Min Bat (V) for BAT Start

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Min GPU (V) for GPU start

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Battery
Type & Amps

A

Lead Acid
42 amp/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Battery
Time avail. on 50 amps

A

30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GPU
Required rated voltage & amps

A

Amps :
1000 for start & 300 continuous

Voltage :
28.0 - 28.4 VDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Generators
Rated VDC & Amps

A

Amps :
300 am/hr

Voltage :
28 VDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Generators
Max % Load - Ground

A

N1 62-70% = Gen load 75%
N1 70-100% = Gen load 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Generators
Max % Load - Flight

A

SL-FL340 = 100%
FL340-350 = 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Certified occupancy (pax)

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Oil
Tot. qty & max. LOW on dipstick

A

Tot = 14 qts
Refill = 4 qts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Engine
Model & SHP rating

A

PT6A-60A
1050 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Feathered

A

79.3°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Reverse

A

-14°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Ground LOW Pitch

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Flight LOW Pitch

A

12°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Propeller blade angle -
Ground fine

Zero Thrust

A

-3°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ground Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM range & Blade Angle

A

1700 - 1050
1050 = 2°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Flight Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM

A

1450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Load factor (g)
Flaps UP (+/-)

A

+3.1
- 1.24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Load factor (g)
Flaps DOWN (+/-)

A

+2.0
- 0.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Boots
min temp

A

-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Prop deice ammeter green range
26-32 amps
26
Landing gear Cycle limit
1 cycle per 5 min, up to 6 cycles. Then, 15 min cool down
27
Autopilot AIL hard floor
Never engage below 400'
28
Starter Limit ON & Sequence
ON = 30 sec Sequence = (S) 5min (S) 5 min (S) 30 min * Note = After a dry motoring run, only 1 (S) left
29
Pressurization Max. diff
6.6 psi
30
Pneumatic pressure green range
12-20 PSI
31
Gyro suction - Green range
4.3 - 5.9 ''Hg < 15,000' 2.8 - 4.9 ''Hg above
32
AC Dimensions - Height
14' 4''
33
AC Dimensions Width (wing span)
57' 11''
34
AC Dimensions Length (nose to tail)
46' 8''
35
Wing dihedral angle
36
AC Category
Commuter
37
AC Dimensions Prop ground clearance
11.5''
38
AC Dimensions - Turn radius
41' 7''
39
Engine Compressor stages (4)
(3) Axial flow (1) Centrifugal glow
40
Autopilot Enroute limit
1000' AGL
41
YD/AP - Limit if inop
Flight limited to 5,000' (as per Cargo Pod supp.)
42
Yaw Damper - Requirement to use
Must be ON anytime > 5,000'
43
Rudder boost System activation min & max torque differential
Activates = 30% Torque differential Max effective = 80% torque differential
44
TAS When to amend?
TAS +/- 5% 5% = TAS / 10 / 2
45
Flaps APP & DOWN - How many degrees?
App = 14° Down = 35°
46
AIL RCAM Max contaminant depth
0.5''
47
Nose gear travel - wt. pedals only - TOTAL (et. turning moment)
12° wt. pedals only 48° total
48
Brake deice - Timer duration | wt. Gear Up
10 min
49
Wing light Time limit on ground
6 sec
50
Boots Manual inflation time limit
7-10 sec
51
Oxygen system - Nominal pressure & Normal range
Nominal = 1800 psi @ 15°C Normal range = 1000-1500 psi
52
Oxygen system - Capacity
77 cubic feet
53
Airframe - OAT limit
SL-FL250 = ISA + 37°C >FL250-FL350 = ISA + 31°C
54
Condition levers - Minimal N1% : - LOW idle - HIGH idle
LOW idle = 62% N1 HIGH idle = 70% N1
55
Anti-ice When should it be ON (ground & filght)
GROUND = Anytime FLIGHT = In visible moisture when the OAT is 5° and below
56
Anti-ice When should it be OFF (ground)
Takeoff above 10°
57
AIL Min Oil temp before unfeathering
58
Max altitude for takeoff & landing
14,000'
59
Oxygen system Passengers mask auto-deployment altitude
12,500'
60
Cabin depressurisation = - Max cab. alt. that should be reached - What system will prevent it, and how
13,500' cab alt Altitude limit controller (integrated into the plumbing system of the Outflow & Safety valves).
61
AIL - Min Oil temp for takeoff & why
55° Oil to fuel heat exchanger
62
Autofeather - When is it required?
- Must be operative for all flights - Must be ARMED for take-off/ approach / landing
63
On shutdown, wait until ____ before feathering props
500 RPM
64
Cracked cabin window - Limitations
Flight is prohibited
65
On HOT or HUNG start, wait until ____ before releasing starter cranking
400° ITT
66
Autofeather - ARMING requirements (2)
BOTH ENGINES = 1) Power level position advanced to equivalent of N1 > 88% 2) TRQ > 17%
67
Autofeather - ACTIVATION sequence (2)
1) When failed engine TRQ < 17% = Auto-feather disables on operating engine 2) When failed engine TRQ < 10%, = Auto-feather feathers prop on failed side
68
TEMP COMP must be applied to FRA when…
OAT <= -15
69
As per AIL, A/P must be disconnected by _____ on an approach
100’ above minima
70
How to help attain prop RPM > 1050 (3x)
- PWR levers = GROUND FINE - Cond levers = HIGH IDLE - PWR levers = Increase
71
Altitude limit (ceiling) with Gear (or) Flaps
20,000’ Supp. AC registered in Canada
72
On shutdown, wait until ____ before GENs & BATT to OFF. WHY?
N1<15% Confirms starter relay is not engaged
73
Min N1 required for A/C
62%
74
Tire pressure = nose/main
Nose = 60 psi Main = 95 psi
75
Anti-ice OFF = resultant TRQ increase
6-8%
76
Normal electrical system voltage
28.25 +/- .25 VDC
77
What supplies VDC and VAC to the aicraft electrical system
VDC = 1x Battery 2x Generators VAC = 2x Inverters
78
Battery power is located to which buses?
- Battery bus - Center bus - Triple fed bus
79
What protects the (5) electrical buses?
- All individually protected by current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays & - Load shedding isolates a faulty bus from those still functionnal
80
If the Battery is switched ON, which (2x) relay close?
Battery relay & Batt Bus Tie relay
81
What is automatic load-shedding?
Genretors buses get automatically shed (isolated from the circuit) as necessary to reduce excessive loads
82
What is on the Dual Fed bus?
(L & R) Fire extinguishers & Cabin entry lights CB, incld. : - Emergency instrument indirect lights - Entry lights - Door observation lights - Aft baggage lights
83
What is the main important system on the Center bus?
- Landing gear motor Others good to know : - No. 1 inverter - Electric heat - Manual Prop Deice
84
What is on the Battery bus?
- Avionics - Ground Comm - Dual fed bus - Battery switch relay
85
What are the (6) functions of the GCU?
1) Voltage regulation 2) Overvoltage or overexcitation protection 3) Paralleling (load sharing) within 10% 4) Reverse current protection 5) Current limiting during a cross-gen start 6) Isolation of failed / off Gen from its Bus
86
AC Voltage & Hertz
115 VAC & 26 VAC 400 Hz
87
(2) Functions of the inverters?
1) Convert VDC to VAC 2) Regulation of AC Voltage & Frequency
88
How are the starter-gens cooled on the ground?
By an internal shaft driven fan drawing outside air
89
What happens when you RESET a generator?
It excites the generator's field Increase starter-gen output Bring GEN back on line
90
What is reverse current ?
If a generator field becomes underexcited, it would draw currect from the center bus
91
What is the starter-gen overvoltage limit
32.5 VDC
92
What happens when the GEN switch is switched to NORM
The bus tie PCD analyzes bus voltages and automatically close the genereator bus-tie relays when no fault exist
93
What is the BUS SENSE switch function?
Controls the over-current sensing function of the Bus-Tie system.
94
How is the battery cooled
Air cooled
95
What happens when the BAT BUS is switched to EMER OFF
The battery bus is disconnected from the battery
96
On which Bus is the Flap Motor ?
LEFT Gen
97
What bus is powered by external power?
Center bus
98
When will GPU voltage power be locked OUT ?
If voltage exceeds 31 VDC
99
What happens when the Avionics Switch is ON?
Voltage is REMOVED from each coil, then the contacts CLOSE to supply power to the avionics CB
100
What happens if the Avionics Switch is failed in the OFF position? How to get around it?
Current is provided to the coil, therefore the contacts are OPEN and no power is supplied to the Avionics CB. By PULLING the Avionics CB, the avionics master swtich will be bypassed and the avionics powered.
101
Which lights are installed on the wingtips?
- Nav - Recog - Strobe
102
What powers the emergency exit lights?
Self-illuminating phosphor coated tube
103
Pnematics systems (10x)
1) Hydraulic Fill Can precharge 2) Boots inflation 3) Brake Deice 4) EVA tubing [BLEED FAIL] 5) Window Defog (cockpit sides) 6) Cabin window defrost 7) Door seal 8) Vacuum source 9) Fuel Manifold purge can 10) Cabin environmental
104
Igniters - How many of them? - How many required to start?
2 per engine 1 required to start
105
When does the P2.5 valve fully closes?
90% N1 (then only P3 air is used)
106
What happens during acceleration if the compression bleed air valve sticks .... - OPEN ? - CLOSED ?
OPEN = High ITT & Low TRQ CLOSED = Compressor stalls
107
When is the best time to check oil level?
HOT < 10 min COLD > 30 min
108
What is the function of the Propeller Ground Solenoid? How does it activates / deactivates?
Ensures automatic transition between the Flight Low Pitch Stop (12°) to the Ground Low Pitch Stop (2°) upon touchdown, by repositionning the beta valve to allow more oil pressure into the dome, hence decreasing the blade angle. * Deactivation of the Ground Low Pitch Stop (on takeoff) = Electrical power is removed from the solenoid by a microswitch on its respective power lever as it advance through 68-70%N1 (also resulting in its respective [L/R PROP PITCH] annunc. to extinguish] * Activation of the Ground Low Pitch Stop (on landing) = Solenoid is powered when a switch in the (R) Main Landing Gear is activated by WOW
109
What is the Prop Sync max authority?
20 RPM
110
At which temperature is the bleed air cooled?
70°F = 21°C
111
How is vaccum air obtained?
From the bleed-air going throug an ejector - Vaccum created from the air being accelerated
112
Propeller deice cycle - AUTO mode ## Footnote Timing
A timer runs a 90 sec phase cycles The 1st. 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the RH prop. The 2nd 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the LH prop.
113
Bleed air - Where does it enters the cabin? - What does it serve for?
Outlets in the LOWER cabin sidewalls Pressurization & Heating
114
What is used to heat the cabin on the ground?
Bleed air supplemented by the Electric Heat elements
115
How does the Air Conditionning works?
Condensing coil & blower assembly in the nose. Driven by the RH engine. Recirculates cabin air. Condensor removes excess heat from the high-pressure & high-temperature air. Freon refrigerant
116
Air Conditionning - Temp limit
Do NOT operate A/C when the ambient temp is below 10 C
117
How can outside ambient air be distributed to the cabin?
Selecting the Cabin Press switch to DUMP allows the evaporator door to open and allow outside ambient air to the mixing plenum
118
Can Electric Heat function in flight & on the ground?
Only on the ground
119
Can the Air Conditionning work in flight & on the ground?
Yes, in flight & on the ground
120
What (3x) PRESSU systems are on the WOW switches
1) Preset solenoid * Outflow valve closes 2) Dump solenoid * Safety valve opens, and depressurize the aircraft 3) Door seal solenoid * Seal deflates
121
What (1x) DEICE system is on the WOW switches
1) Stall Warning Heat control * Flow is limited to a lower voltage to prevent overheating (28 to 14 VDC)
122
What (2x) ENVIRO systems are on the WOW switches
1) Electric Heat control * In flight = Power is removed from the circuit, making it unusable 2) Ambient Air modulating valves * In flight = Ram air door closes
123
What (1x) PROP system is on the WOW switches
1) Ground Low Pitch Stop system * On ground = Propeller Solenoid is energized, hence the Low Pitch Stop is automatically reset from the Flight stop (12°) to the Ground stop (2°)
124
Auto-IGNITION When does it activate?
When TRQ < 17%
125
Rudder Boost - When is it required?
Operative & ON for all flights
126
Which systems will remain functionnal in case of a DUAL GEN failure (without manually closing the MAN TIES)? WHY?
Switches & Toggles with a white circle These systems are on the CTR (or) TPL Fed Buses, therefore powered by the battery * Note : In order to reduce electrical demand on the battery, unecessary systems with a white circle should be switched off
127
Flight Idle - Prop RPM range & blade angles
1700 - 1450 RPM (1450 RPM = 12°)
128
Ground Idle - Prop RPM range & blade angle
1700 - 1050 RPM (1050 = 2°)
129
Ground Fine (Beta) - Blade angles
2° to -3°
130
Reverse - Prop RPM range & blade angles
1050-1650 RPM -3° to -14°
131
Which (4x) systems require Vacuum?
1) Deice Boots deflation 2) Air-Driven gyros 3) Pressurixation controller 4) Outflow & Safety valve modulation
132
Which systems require AC? (3x)
- FDR (Flight Data Recorder) - AP/YD (Autopilot & YawDamper) - FD (Flight Director)
133
Which buses power each inverter?
* Inverter #1 = Center Bus * Inverter #2 = (R) Generator Bus
134
Take Off - When to set the ENVIR switch to LOW?
Above 10°
135
Brake Deice - Max. OAT
15°
136
GPU - Must apply BATTERY power BEFORE connecting EXTERNAL power, because.... (x2) | (2x)
1) VOLTAGE is required to energize the avionics power master relay to REMOVE power from the AVIONICS equipment 2) Battery regulates the GPU voltage flowing in the circuit
137
BAT BUS - EMER OFF | Function
Isolates the battery from the BAT & DUAL FED buses
138
Airstair - Locking mechanism (2x) - Locking confirmation (3x)
Mechanism - (4) Bayonet pins - (2) Hooks Locking confirmation - (4) Pins Markers aligned - (1) Push Button popped-out - (1) Plunger Arm window
139
When does it work? - Safety Valve (3x) - Outflow Valve (2x)
Safety * DUMP switch * WOW relief * Negative pressure relief (1st to open) Outflow * Normal regulation in flight * Negative pressure relief (2nd to open)
140
What (3x) WOW functions prevents the gear from going UP on the ground?
1) Hydraulic Gear Lockout Switch * Prevents power from reaching landing gear motor power relay 2) Hydraulic Gear Selector Valve UP Solenoid * Power is removed from the retract control valve, preventing accidental retraction on the ground 3) Handle Lock Solenoid * Power is removed from the handle J-Hook circuit, having it in locked position which prevents handle retraction
141
GEAR - Uplock/Downlock Mechanism (5x)
1) Hydraulic Motor Power * Power is removed from the respective hydraulic pump motor control circuit, preventing extensive pump motor activity * Power is removed from the respective hydraulic pump motor control circuit. The pressure switch will close periodically, when pressure drops due to normal system leak-down, and reenergize the pump to restore sufficient uplock pressure. 2) Gear Handle In-Transit (red light) * Opens the in-transit light circuity, extinguishing the gear handle red lights 3) Gear Down-Position (green lights) * Illuminates the respective gear down green indicator light 4) Gear Horn * Disables the gear warning horn system 5) [LDG/TAXI LIGHT] Annunciator * Illuminates the annunciator if either of the landing light or taxi light switch is ON.
142
BK DEICE - Uplock Mechanism (1x)
Sends power to brake deice control module, which enables the 10min timer delay for brake deice operation with gear UP