Systems Oral Flashcards
(310 cards)
1
Q
What components power the DC electrical system
A
2 NiCad batteries (24VDC, 27 AH)
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) 28VDC, 300 A
DC GPU Receptacle
2
Q
How does the IDG maintain a stable power supply?
A
A constant speed drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the Accessory Gear Box
3
Q
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
A
High Oil Temperature
Low Oil Pressure
4
Q
What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units?
A
Converts 115VAC to 28VDC
5
Q
Can the APU replace a failed IDG?
A
Yes, up to 33,000’
6
Q
How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide electricity?
A
GPU Button Displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the electrical synoptic page.
Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC power source is not available.
7
Q
GPU plugged in and outside GPU panel displays IN USE means:
A
Ground service bus is in use
Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use.
8
Q
GPU in use and APU started. Next pilot action:
A
Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection
9
Q
Batteries charge source
A
Any AC Power Source
10
Q
Aircraft Batteries endurance (without charging)
A
10 Minutes
11
Q
Purpose of the DC GPU receptacle
A
APU start when batteries
12
Q
Minimum Battery Temp for APU Start
A
-20 C
13
Q
Minimum battery voltage to close battery bus-ties
A
18 Volts
14
Q
During APU Start, Battery usage
A
BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for monitoring
BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus (including DC Fuel Pump)
15
Q
What is the purpose of the Inverter?
A
Converts 28 VDC from batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available
16
Q
AC STANDBY BUS powers:
A
Engine exciters 1A and 2A
17
Q
When will the RAT deploy?
A
Automatically if AC BUSSES are not powered
18
Q
How long after deployment before RAT provides power?
A
8 Seconds
19
Q
What prevents total power failure during RAT deployment?
A
Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS
20
Q
RAT provides power to:
A
ESS BUSSES
21
Q
Minimum RAT airspeed
A
130 KIAS. Below that speed results in load shedding
22
Q
What manages the electrical system?
A
4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC) provides power distribution and protection.
2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA) distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic
23
Q
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote CB’s?
A
ICC - No, can only be reset my maintenance
SPDA - Yes, via the MCDU
24
Q
Electrical System Fault Logic
A
- Onside (Dedicated IDG)
- Inside (APU)
- Outside (GPU)
- Cross Side (Opposite IDG)
25
Aircraft Dimensions
Height 32' 3"
Length 103' 11'
Wingspan 98' 2"
26
Turn Radius
53' 8" Wheels
| 54' 4" Tail Clearance
27
Flight Deck Emergency Equipment
```
PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlight (1)
Life Vests (3)
02 Masks (3)
Crash Axe
Escape Ropes (2)
```
28
Cabin Emergency Equipment
```
PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguishers (3)
Water Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlights (2)
Megaphone (1)
Live Vests (2)
MRTs (2)
Portable O2 Bottles (2)
First Aid Kits (2)
Grab & Go Kit (1)
EEMK (1)
AED (1)
```
29
ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist Required Pubs
```
Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
2 Checklists
TOLD Cards
```
30
How to power on cockpit dome light on an unpowered airplane
Flight Attendant Panel "COURTESY LIGHTS" switch to AUTO
31
What charges the emergency lights
4 Emergency Light Power Units (ELPU) charged off the DC BUS 1
32
Emergency Lights duration
10 Minutes
33
When will the Emergency Lights illuminate?
Emergency Lights switch in AUTO, and DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off
34
Where can you check the potable water quantity and waste service tank systems?
Aft Flight Attendant panel
35
What does a fault light mean on the aft flight attendant's panel?
A fault in the forward or aft drain valve
| Water level indication is not available
36
Where is door information presented?
MFD "Status" page
37
What happens when EMER on the audio panel is selected?
A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates
| 3 hi-lo chimes sound in cabin
38
When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed?
When the main cabin or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft
39
How to tell if escape slides are armed
Armed - Red "ARMED" appears above the respective door handle
| Disarmed - Green "DISARMED" appears above the respective door handle
40
Reinforced Cockpit Door "INHIBIT" button causes
automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds (8 minutes)
41
How is the DVDR activated?
Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running
42
How many DVDRs are installed?
2
43
How long will the DVDR record?
2 hours of voice and radio communications
| 25 hours of flight data in GMT
44
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?
DU 2 & 3
IESS & Clock
MCDU 2
CCD 1
45
What is the purpose of the collector box?
Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
| Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
46
What is the surge/vent tank?
Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level.
Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
47
Can fuel be transferred or dumped overboard?
No
48
What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
Crossfeed valve is opened
| ACMP 2 pump turned on, provides fuel to both engines from right tank
49
What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle
50
When will the FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?
660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank
51
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
Engines
APU
Cargo Compartments
Lavatories
52
Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?
Cockpit has one Halon fire extinguisher
| Cabin has 4 Halon fire extinguishers
53
How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
Engines - 2 Halon fire bottles
| APU - 1 Halon fire bottle
54
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
55
What are the Engine and APU fire detection/protection power sources?
Engine Detection - DC ESS
Engine Protection - HOT BATT
APU Detection - DC ESS
APU Protection - DC ESS
56
Describe the engine and APU fire detection system
Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine
| APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)
57
Explain the 6-2-7 Rule (Fire Detection System Test)
6 Visual Warning Indicators on Overhead Panel
2 Visual Warning Indicators on Glareshield
5 EICAS messages/2 Engine fire warnings
(2 Aural Indicators, Fire Bell and Triple Chime)
58
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
Closes respective engine fuel SOV
Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV
Closes respective engine bleed SOV
(closes fuel transfer valve)
59
What is the indication of an APU fire?
Fire Bell
Red stripe on the EMER STOP button
APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
(triple chime Master Warning aural)
60
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
Only on the ground
61
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
APU shuts off immediately (no cool down period)
APU fuel SOV closes
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
62
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is NOT pushed after a fire has been detected?
After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
63
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
No
64
How many smoke detectors are installed the cargo compartments?
3 detectors in the forward compartment
| 2 detectors in the aft compartment
65
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculation fan shuts off
| Ventilation outflow valve closes
66
Why are the recirculation fans shut down when cargo compartment fire is detected?
Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment
| Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircraft's cabin
67
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment?
2 Bottles used for both compartments
| 1 High Rate bottle and 1 Low Rate bottle
68
Difference between the high rate bottle and the low rate bottle?
High rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately
| Low rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time (60 Minutes)
69
How long will the low rate bottle remain active the compartment?
60 Minutes
70
Can one bottle be used for one cargo compartment and the other bottle used for the other cargo compartment?
No, only one compartment can be selected
71
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?
High Rate bottle discharges immediately
Low Rate bottle discharges after 1 minute (if airborne)
If WOW then low rate does not automatically discharge
72
During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?
Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again
73
How is the low rate bottle discharged if the airplane is on the ground?
The extinguishing button must be pushed again (2 pushes total)
74
Can the cargo compartment extinguisher be used if no smoke is detected?
Yes, the high rate bottle extinguisher button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle.
The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.
75
How are the lavs protected from fire?
Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.
76
What kind of APU is the aircraft?
Sundstrand APS 2300
77
Describe the APU
Constant speed
Single stage impeller with a 2 stage axial flow turbine
Independent oil system
78
What controls the APU?
A dedicated FADEC
79
What battery is used for the APU start?
BATT 1 powers FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
| BATT 2 powers the starter (and APU Starting Bus)
80
What is the fuel source for the APU?
Right Fuel Tank
| Left Fuel Tank through the crossfeed valve
81
What fuel pump is used for APU start?
Batteries "ON" only: DC fuel pump in right tank.
AC powered airplane: ACMP2.
Right Engine running: Ejector fuel pump.
82
Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn't reached in starting cycle time?
Yes
83
What does moving the APU start switch to "OFF" do?
```
Initiates normal APU shut down
1 Minute cool down
No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
```
84
Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?
Yes, by moving the START switch back to "ON" before the 1 minute cool down is over
85
How is the APU shutdown immediately?
APU Emergency stop button
| No 1 minute cool down period
86
What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the 1 minute APU cool down period?
APU will shut down immediately
87
What will cause an APU automatic shutdown
```
Overspeed (Airborne and WOW)
Underspeed (Airborne and WOW)
FADEC critical fault (Airborne and WOW)
Fire (WOW)
Overheat (WOW)
Low Oil Pressure (WOW)
```
88
Can the APU be started after a critical fault?
No
89
How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft?
3 independent systems (HYD 1, HYD 2, HYD 3)
90
What systems use hydraulic power?
```
Flight Controls
Spoilers
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Wheel brakes
Thrust reversers
```
91
With one system low, can hydraulic fluid be transferred from one system to another?
No
92
How many hydraulic pumps are one the aircraft?
```
6 total:
2 EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps)
4 ACMPs (AC Motor Pumps)
```
93
What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems?
Reservoir
Pumps
Accumulator
94
What is the purpose of the accumulator
Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands.
Helps to avoid pump cavitation.
95
When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate?
Ground: Flaps > 0 and TL set to T/O, or Groundspeed > 50 kts.
Flight: Engine failure or EDP failure, Flaps > 0
96
What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?
```
Landing Gear
Nose Wheel Steering
Inboard brakes
L & R Inboard Ailerons
R & L Inboard Elevators
Engine 2 Thrust Reverser
Multi-function Spoilers (L & R Panels 5)
Ground Spoilers (L & R Panels 1)
```
97
What is the PTU?
Power Transfer Unit, mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure.
98
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
To allow landing gear retraction in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure
99
When will the PTU automatically activate?
During takeoff or landing with flaps > 0, if Engine 2 or EDP 2 fails
100
How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2?
Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2
101
What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?
Back-up for the Flight Controls (it's the "save your butt" system)
102
Why are HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch positions ON & AUTO respectively?
HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation.
| HYD ACMP 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails.
103
What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?
HYD ACMP 3A only (through the ESS AC BUS)
104
In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?
HYD 3 Accumulator. After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A
105
In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?
No. A flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall
106
How many fuel tanks does the airplane have?
2 Integral tanks
107
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
Left Tank
108
What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?
Primary ejector pump
ACMP
DCMP (Right Wing Only)
3 scavenge ejector pumps
109
What is the Primary ejector pump?
Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine, powered by motive flow.
110
What is the purpose of the ACMP?
Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump failure.
Engine Start.
Crossfeed operations.
111
What is the purpose of the DCMP?
Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the ACMP is not available.
112
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintains fuel level in the collector box
113
What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?
Associated primary ejector pump
114
Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?
No
115
What does the AMS use bleed air for?
```
ECS (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Pressurization
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressure
Hot air leak detection
```
116
How many AMS controllers are installed?
One controller with 2 channels which control the respectivew onside system
117
What happens if a (AMS) channel fails?
The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS
118
What provides air for the AMS?
Engine bleeds
APU bleed
External Pneumatic Source
119
What is bleed air used for?
ESC (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressurization
120
What is external pneumatic air used for?
ECS on the ground
| Engine start on the ground
121
Where is the external ground source panel located?
Lower fairing between the wings
122
What is the primary use for APU bleed air?
```
ECS on the ground
Engine starting on the ground
Electrical source (FL330)
Assist with engine start (FL210)
Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (,15,000' MSL)
```
123
Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?
No, a check valve prevents flow-back
124
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
| System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure.
125
What is the normal pressure for any engine operation?
45 psi
126
What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
127
What cools the pre-cooler?
Ground N1 Fan
| Flight N1 Fan or ram air
128
What does the overheat detection system (ODS) observe?
Engine bleeds and packs
APU bleed
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-ice system
129
What components power the AC electrical system
```
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU Receptacle
```
130
Do both ODS loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition?
Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat
131
How many ESC packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?
2 independent packs (left and right).
| Each engine provides bleed air to it's respective pack
132
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
133
Can a single bleed source power both packs?
Yes, through the crossbleed valve
134
What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?
52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air
135
When are the recirculation fans commanded off?
Cockpit switch.
Smoke detected in the recirc bay.
DUMP button is pressed.
Respective pack is commanded off.
136
What keeps the 3 avionic E-Bays cool?
RWD & CTR E-Bay have 3 fans each pull air from the cabin to bay.
Aft E-Bay has natural air-flow from cabin to bay.
137
When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?
Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000'.
| Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure
138
How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?
2 channels, one active and one in standby
139
Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)?
FMS or can be manually selected
140
What happens when the dump button is pressed?
Commands both ECS packs OFF
| Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft at a rate of 2000 fpm
141
Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400' (with the pressurization dump button pressed in).
Yes, by using manual mode.
| Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leaks.
142
In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing?
No
143
What is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside Engine
Opposite Engine
APU (If Available)
144
If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority?
APU has priority IF: Aircraft is on the ground, wheel speed
145
When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?
Only one side bleed source is available
Engine 2 start in the air
Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available
146
What are some things that will close the ECS packs?
1. Any engine start if APU is the bleed source
2. Engine start on the ground
3. Respective bleed system duct leak
4. Bleed air source not available for the pack
5. TL set to MAX on takeoff
6. REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff
7. REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
147
Whe are ECS packs recovered?
TL not at MAX, and:
1. Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
2. Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating
148
What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?
1. Both recirc fans deactivate
2. Cargo recirc fan deactivates
3. Cargo outflow valve closes
149
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from?
FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure
| LFE may be manually inputted
150
What color is the LFE on the EICAS?
Green FMS input
| Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)
151
What is the ABORT mode?
Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if:
Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
Airplane has not climbed >5000 AFE or > 10,000 MSL
152
What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing?
Bleed air heat, Electric heat
153
What uses bleed air for ice protection?
Engine lips, 3 outboard slats
154
What uses electric heat for ice protection?
Pitot-static system
Windshields
Water Lines
Pressurization Static Port
155
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection?
Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip
156
How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?
One. There are two for redundancy
157
How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
5 Minutes
158
If "ICING" on the MCDU is set to 'OFF' and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
Not until 1700 ft or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
159
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing?
No
160
What is protected from ice & rain?
```
Engine inlets
Wing leading edge
Smart probes
Windshields
Water & Waste drain systems
```
161
Is the ice protection system automatic?
Yes, under normal conditions
162
Can the pilot override the automatic system?
Yes
163
How is ice detected in flight?
2 Ice detectors
Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes.
164
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
10th High Stage Valve (HSV)
165
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?
Engines - Independent
| Wings - Onside bleed
166
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?
The crossbleed automatically opens
167
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?
ALL
168
What does selecting 'ALL' on the MCDU provide?
Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running
| Wing anti-ice ON at 40 kts wheel speed
169
If 'ALL' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
1700' AGL or 5 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
170
If 'OFF' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
1700' or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
171
How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating system?
On ground inhibited
| In Flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)
172
What does the 'TIMER' selection on the windshield wiper switch do?
Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals
173
What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?
The wiper will stop
| To reset wiper move switch to 'OFF'
174
When do the smart probes heat?
When an engine is running
175
Is there a test for the anti-ice system?
Yes, but maintenance performs this test
176
How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing?
Bleeds - OFF
Stab Trim - Full nose down
Flaps - UP
Engines and APU - ON or OFF
177
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
Two General Electric CF-34-8E5
| Hi-bypass 2 spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan
178
How much thrust do the engines produce?
13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)
179
Describe N1 Spool
Single stage fan, 4 stage LP turbine
180
Describe the N2 Spool
10 stage compressor, 2 stage HP turbine
181
How many igniters per engine?
2 per engine
182
How many igniters activate for engine starts?
Ground - 1 igniter (Switch in AUTO)
| Flight - 2 igniters (Switch in AUTO)
183
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
184
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command. The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only.
185
What controls the engine?
A two channel FADEC
| One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.
186
Is only one FADEC channel used every flight?
No, they automatically alternate with each engine start
187
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?
The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions.
| Configured for landing
188
What sources are available for engine starting?
1. APU
2. Ground source (huffer cart or air bottle)
3. Opposite engine
4. Windmill start
189
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light off
190
What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a Hot start?
FADEC will not allow FF if ITT >120 C.
| FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT
191
Describe the engine start sequence
```
START switch momentarily to START
7% N2 Ignition
20% N2 Fuel Flow
20% + 5 sec Light Off
50% N2 Ignition Off
```
192
Stabilized Engine readings after start
```
N1 27%
ITT 460C
N2 62%
FF 550 lbs/hr
Oil Pressure > 25 psi
```
193
What does WML mean on the engine indications?
Windmilling engine
The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
An assisted start has been commanded
194
What provides underspeed and overspeed protection?
The FADEC via the FMU
| Approximately 52% N2 and 102% respectively
195
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?
FADEC will not re-light the engine
196
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
197
What is ATTCS? What controls it?
Automatic Take-off Thrust Control System
Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU.
FADEC controlled.
198
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during TOGA
Windshear detected
199
When is thrust reverse available?
Weight on wheels (ground use only)
200
What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE
201
What engine thrust rating(s) may only be used for 5 minutes?
TO-1
TO-RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two engine go-around
GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear)
202
What is FLEX?
Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that is is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
203
Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust?
No
204
What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly By Wire)?
Ailerons
205
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?
There are no higher level functions available in direct mode
206
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?
Gain on airspeed
Elevator Thrust Compensation
AOA limiting
207
What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?
Yaw damp
Turn Coordination
Thrust Asymmetry
Gain on airspeed - as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases
208
What is the priority for the trim system?
Backup
Captain
First Officer
Autopilot
209
How is roll controlled?
Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)
210
How many multi-fuction spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions?
5 per wing
3 outboard spoilers are used to assist in roll control and for ground spoilers.
2 inboard spoilers are only used for ground spoilers.
211
When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lover shows deployed?
Flaps > 2
| Airspeed 70
212
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?
Slats extend first, flaps retract first
213
Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into 'DIRECT" mode?
Yes
214
Can a FCM override pilot input?
No, the pilot always has supreme control
215
What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?
Artificial feel is felt at 1/2 the normal load.
216
How are the flight controls trimmed?
Roll & Yaw Ailerons and Rudder surface repositioned to a new 'neutral position', Pitch Horizontal Stabilizer
217
Will the mulit-function spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
Yes, for roll only and at a default fixed gain.
218
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
No
219
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?
Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap system operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap position is limited to '3' to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
220
How is the landing gear extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
221
When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?
IF the gear is not donw and locked, and 700' RA and low TLA, or ANY altitude with flaps set > 5
222
Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushing the 'LG WRN INHIB' button?
Only if both radio altimeters have failed.
223
What are three landing gear extension modes?
Normal - LG lever DOWN
Electric Override - Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve
Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens free-fall sequencing valve
224
That is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock. Lock protects against inadvertent landing gear retraction when weight-on-wheels
225
What keeps the gear locked in position?
Extended Downlock springs
| Retracted Uplock hooks
226
Describe the landing gear indications?
Green - Down & Locked
White Up & Locked
Amber - In Transit
Red - gear position and lever disagreement (20 Sec grace)
227
How do the landing gear doors actuate?
Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction
228
How are the brakes commanded?
Brake by Wire, Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module).
229
What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
HYD 1 Outboard brakes
HYD 2 Inboard brakes
HYD 1 & HYD 2 Parking/Emergency brakes
230
What protections are provided for braking?
Touchdown - no braking until 3 seconds or > 50 kts wheel speed
Anti-skid - Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (inop
231
How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?
6 applications
232
What stops the wheels from spinning during retractions
Main gear - BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels
| Nose gear - Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
233
Which hydraulic system controls the nosewheel steering
HYD 2
234
What are the limits for the nosewheel steering?
Angle varies with ground speed.
Up to 40 Kts +76
41 to 100 Kts - Decreases linearly from 76 degrees to 7 degrees
235
Where can O2 pressure be read?
MFD 'STATUS' page (corrected for temperature)
| At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)
236
Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators.
237
Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off?
No
238
What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew?
2 crew - "Blue for Two" - 842 psi
| 3 crew - "Green for Three" - 1150 psi
239
What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
Flow of O2
Mask microphone
Flight deck speaker
240
What happens if the TEST//RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
Flow of O2
Deactivates mask microphone
Deactivates flight deck speakers
241
What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide?
Emergency - Pure oxygen with positive pressure
100% - Pure oxygen at all altitudes
Normal - Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
242
During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?
The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.
243
What is the O2 duration for the Passengers, Flight Attendants, and PBE?
Passengers - 12 minutes
Flight Attendant cylinder - 30 minutes
PBE - 15 minutes
244
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude of 14000 MSL
245
Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
Yes, via a Manual Release Tool located at each FA station
246
What does the PBE provide?
Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes. Blue indication: Good. Pink indication: Bad. Vacuum loss : Bad, even with blue indication.
247
How many portable O2 cyclinders are installed in the cabin?
2, one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section, 2 masks per cylinder.
248
What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck?
```
PBE
Halon fire extinguisher
Flashlight
Life Vests
O2 Masks
Crash axe
Escape Ropes
```
249
What emergency equipment is located in the cabin?
```
PBE
Halon fire extinguishers
Water fire extinguisher
Flashlights
Megaphone
Life vests
MRT
Portable O2 bottles
First Aid Kits
Grab & Go kit
EEMK
AED
```
250
Checklist requires "Logbook, Forms & Manuals to be checked. What are you looking for?
```
Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
Two checklists
TOLD cards
```
251
Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane?
Only if the flight attendant panel 'COURTESY LIGHTS' switch is in 'AUTO'
252
How are the emergency lights charged?
4 ELPUs (Emergency Light Power Units) charged off the DC BUS 1
253
How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated?
10 Minutes
254
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?
Provided the switch is in 'AUTO', if the DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate
255
Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste service tank system?
Aft flight attendant panel
256
What does a Wast Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full light?
Tank is 75% full
| Tank is Full
257
What does a 'fault' light mean on the aft flight attendant panel?
A fault in the forward or aft drain valve.
| Water level indication is not available.
258
What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors.
To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.
259
What happens if a pilot selects 'EMER' on the audio panel?
A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates.
| 3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.
260
When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open?
30 seconds after the flight attendant 'EMER CALL' button has been pushed if the 'INHIBIT' button has not been pushed by the flight crew.
261
What happens if the flight crew pushes the 'INHIBIT' button?
The automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds (8 minutes)
262
How is the DVDR activated?
Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running.
263
Which dispalys can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted?
MFDs can be reverted to either EICAS or PDF.
| PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted.
264
Explain the 'AUTO' functions of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels
EICAS - failure Each MFD displays EICAS
PFD - failure Respective MFD displays associated side PFD
MFD - failure No auto reversion
265
Explain the 'PFD', 'MFD', EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel
PFD - Respective PFD will display on associated MFD
MFD - MFD cannot be reverted
EICAS - EICAS displays on the associated MFD
266
How many ADSs (Air Data Systems) are installed and how are they assigned?
```
ADS 1 - Captain
ADS 2 - First Officer
ADS 3 - Standby
ADS 4 - IESS
ADS 5 - Flight Controls
```
267
What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?
ADS 3 Automatically becomes the source
| If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used
268
What happens if the ADS button is pushed?
The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3.
The respective onside ADS reverts to the x-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time.
The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.
269
Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?
No, it must be manually reverted.
270
What happens if the IRS button is pushed?
The respective IRS to the x-side IRS source
271
How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?
An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD
272
What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS's fail?
IESS
273
What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?
LOC BC
274
When will the EICAS de-clutter?
30 seconds after gear and flaps are up and all system parameters are normal.
275
What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?
Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS
276
When will the EICAS display all of its information?
When the gear is down, flaps are extended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions. APU running.
277
What color is the course needle (CDI) when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?
FMS - Magenta
VOR/LOC - Green
X-side - Yellow
278
What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?
Runways > 3500ft with a published approach
279
How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?
RED - 30 seconds
| AMBER - 60 seconds
280
When should the 'GND PROX TERR INHIB' button be pushed?
To cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database
281
What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?
Caution - Increasing headwind and/or updrafts
| Warning - Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and/or downdrafts
282
What is our policy for windshear encounters?
Caution - Captain/crew discretion
| Warning - Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration until warning ceases
283
How is the pilot alerted during a windshear?
Caution - Amber windshear flag on PFD/aural "CAUTION WINDSHEAR"
Warning - Red windshear flag on PFD/aural "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR"
284
Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?
Yes
285
How long will the windshear alerting last?
until 1,500 ft RA
286
Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and or EGPWS are inop?
No
287
What is checked when the 'TO CONFIG' button is pushed?
Parking brake - OFF
Spoilers - Stowed (not deployed)
Flaps - Set for Takeoff (agreement with FMS)
Pitch Trim - Set for Takeoff (Green Range)
288
What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate?
Attitude or Heading reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS
289
What does a red 'X' on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate?
Airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed cannot be determined by the ADS.
290
What is the function of the 'GND PROX GS INHIB' button?
To cancel unwanted glideslope alerts below 2000 ft.
291
When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?
FL250, 17 degrees bank angle
292
What is FPA?
Flight Path Angle is a pilot-selectable pitch attitude (in degrees) of climb or descent. FGCS adjusts thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airspeed.
293
What does the TOGA button do?
Ground - Activates takeoff guidance crossbars
| In Flight - Activates Go-Around guidance
294
What do the takeoff guidance crossbars do?
Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.
295
Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.
Another vertical mode is selected
Autopilot is activated
TCS button is pressed
296
When will the FD automatically display?
TOGA button is pressed
Autopilot is activated
Windshear detection
297
What is the function of the TCS button?
Allows manual override of the autopilot.
When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)
298
What will disengage the autopilot?
```
AP button on GP is pushed
Any manual pitch trim is activated
Either AP/Trim DISC button is pushed
Stick shaker activated
Flight controls in DIRECT mode
Aileron or elevator controls disconnected
Overpowering the yoke
Internal system failures
```
299
Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on?
Yes, it is independent of the autopilot
300
When will the auto-throttles engage on the ground? In flight?
On Ground - AT TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50%
| In Flight - AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400' AGL
301
Will the auto-throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?
Yes, up to 5 kts
302
What will disengage the auto-throttles?
AT (TL or GP) is pushed
TLA difference > 8 degrees
TL at idle with weight-on-wheels or wheels spinning
Internal system failures
303
What is SPDe? What mode uses SPDe?
Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes).
FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents.
304
What is SPDt? What modes use SPDt?
Speed on Thrust, thrust id adjusted to maintain selected airpspeed.
FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
305
What are the AT modes?
SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, HOLD, RETARD (@ 30' RA)
306
What does LIM & OVRD mean on the FMA?
LIM - The selected vertical mode requires more or less engine thrust than is available.
OVRD - The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)
307
When is CRZ automatically selected?
When +100' of selected altitude for 90 seconds.
| Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will remain in CLB mode.
308
What does the SRC button do?
Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the AFCS
309
What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?
Disconnects the autopilot
| Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held
310
What does the PREV button do?
Allows the capture of the ILS/BC course while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE fuction is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS.
