Systems review

Question 1

What three characteristics make the fuel tank crash worthy?

Answer 1

Self-sealing breakaway valves, rollover vent valves, frangible fittings designed to fail

Question 2

What pumps fuel over the baffles in the fuel tanks to the rear section of the cell?

Answer 2

Ejector pumps (operated by induced flow/venturi effect)

Question 3

What does the 20 minute fuel light indicate?

Answer 3

A low fuel state

Question 4

What do you do during a fuel boost pump failure?

Answer 4

If one boost pump fails it will indicate a drop in pressure, and a FUEL BOOST light will illuminate.
Land as soon as practical.

If the fuel pressure gauge indicates zero pressure and/or both FUEL BOOST caution lights illuminate, descend to 4,600’ Pressure Altitude and land as soon as possible

Question 5

How many fuel capacitance probes are there?

What powers them?

Answer 5

3

VAC

Question 6

What does VAC power on the TH-1H?

Answer 6

Fuel pressure indicator and Fuel Quantity indicator (EDCU)

Question 7

What three components make up the Fuel Control Assembly?

Answer 7

Overspeed Gov (Nf), Computer section (Ng), Metering section (Ng)

Question 8

What happens when the main fuel switch is in the ON position?

Answer 8

The fuel shutoff valve opens and the fuel boost pumps are energized. Fuel flows to the engine.

Question 9

What does the start fuel switch do?

Answer 9

Energizes the start fuel solenoid, allowing fuel flow from the fuel regulator into the combustion chamber (fuel nozzles).

Question 10

What does the start ignition trigger “start switch” control?

Answer 10

Controls the igniter solenoid valve and controls the starter generator.

Question 11

What are the two fuel quantities?

Answer 11

206. 5 Gal - Usable

208. 5 - Max total

Question 12

What are the applicable shaft horsepowers of the T-53-L-703 engine?

Thermodynamic limit?

Power reduced by fuel control?

Take off power?

Max continuous power?

Answer 12

Thermodynamic limit: 1800 SHP

Power reduced by max fuel flow: 1500 SHP

TOP: 1290 SHP

MCP: 1134 SHP

Question 13

What does the piggyback (bleed air reservoir) control?

Answer 13

Oil cooler fan, Engine De-ice, Cabin heat/defrost, improved particle separator

Question 14

What controls/operates the bleed band actuator?

Answer 14

FCU

Bleed Air

Question 15

What controls/operates the Variable Inlet Guide Vanes?

Answer 15

FCU

Fuel Pressure

Question 16

Cabin heat uses ___% fuel flow at a rate of ___lbs/hr

Answer 16

2%

14lbs per hour

Question 17

De-Ice uses ___% fuel flow at a rate of ___lbs/hr

Answer 17

3%

21lbs per hour

Question 18

Ng rates:

10%
15%
40%
68%
68-72%
80%
91%
93-95%
105.8%

Answer 18

10% - Bat at least 16V
15% - Blades turning
40% - Let go of trigger start (or 35 sec)
68% - engine stabilized
68-72% - engine idle
80% - VIGV begin to open
91% - Start of Ng green band 
93-95% - VIGV fully open
105.8% - Max Ng

Question 19

How many chip detectors are in the aircraft?

In the powertrain?

Answer 19

6 in AC

5 in powertrain

Question 20

Which chip detectors have ODDS?

Answer 20

90 gearbox, 42 gearbox, sump case, engine

Question 21

Define land As Soon As Possible/Practical

Answer 21

Possible - Minimal damage to equipment/injury to personnel

Practical - No damage, no injury, accessible to MX

Question 22

When does the HYD PRESS LO light come on?

When does it go back off?

Answer 22

1,000 +/- 100 PSI light on

1,200 +/- PSI light off

Question 23

What reduces feedback during hydraulic failure or hydraulics off?

Answer 23

Irreversible valve

Question 24

How many quadrants do hardovers take place in?

Answer 24

1 of 4

Question 25

How many quadrants do hydraulic stiffness take place in?

Answer 25

2 of 4

Question 26

When does the hydraulic system relief valve open/close?

Answer 26

Relief valve opens at 1,725 PSI | Closes at 1,530 PSI

Question 27

Where is the hydraulic reservoir?

Answer 27

The right center edge of the roof

Question 28

What are both the main DC generator and the standby starter generator rated for?

Answer 28

30 V / 300 AMP

Question 29

What is the battery rated for?

Answer 29

24 V / 42 AMP

Question 30

What is the standby generator adjusted to in relation to the main generator?

Answer 30

1 V less

Question 31

When does the EXT PWR light come on?

Answer 31

When ext pwr door is open

Question 32

What are the 4 sources of DC power for the aircraft?

Answer 32

Main gen, standby starter gen, battery, external power (ground power)

Question 33

The voltage regulator keeps the main generator at ___ - ___ volts

Answer 33

27 - 28.5V

Question 34

What relay automatically connects/disconnects generator to electrical systems?

Answer 34

reverse current relay

Question 35

When does the overvoltage relay trip the field relay?

Answer 35

at 31 - 33 V

Question 36

What do the synchronized elevators do?

Answer 36

Extend CG and increase controllability

Question 37

What does the stabilizer bar on the main rotor head do?

Answer 37

Keeps the rotorblades in the same plane of rotation

Question 38

T/F: Electrical power is required to turn the hydraulic system off.

Answer 38

TRUE

Question 39

How many first aid kits are in the aicraft?

Answer 39

4