Systems Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Dimensions Length

A

L 51’4

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2
Q

Dimensions Width

A

W 52’3

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3
Q

Dimensions Height

A

H 16’9

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4
Q

Dimensions Wheel Base

A

Wheel base 9’4

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5
Q

What equip is powered by static inverter?

A

AC Outlets

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6
Q

Power source for the static inverter

A

Shed bus 1

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7
Q

What normal pilot action turns off the the static inverter?

A

Selecting the SIGNS/OUTLET switch to the PED-BELTS/OFF

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8
Q

Which conditions cause static inverter to be depowered automatically

A

Generator failure

Oxygen mask deployment

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9
Q

How many latch pins installed on main door

A

8

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10
Q

Auto off period for baggage lights

A

5 min

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11
Q

Where is the beacon light

A

Top of vertical stabilizer

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12
Q

What activates the beacon

A

Either START/STOP knob in RUN

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13
Q

Where are the strobes located

A

Top/Bottom of fuselage

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14
Q

Nav lights location

A

Wing tips

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15
Q

Landing/Taxi lights location

A

4 elements on lower fuselage adjacent to the wing root

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16
Q

TAXI lights on means

A

4 elements turn on with moderate intensity

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17
Q

Landing light on means

A

Center 2 elements go max intensity, outer 2 stay moderate

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18
Q

When do emergency lights turn on when In ARM

A

Electrical emergency
Impact

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19
Q

Static wicks

A

Total 14/16
Winglet 2 each
Aileron 2-3 each
Elevator 2 each side
Rudder 2

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20
Q

What locks the gear in the down position

A

MLG: Locking ring internal to actuator
NLG: over centered spring loaded locking stay mechanism

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21
Q

What unlocks the gear during retraction

A

MLG: Hyd press applied to the retract side of actuator

NLG: Hyd press applied to downlock release actuator

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22
Q

What keeps the gear locked in up position

A

Hook attached to Uplock box

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23
Q

What unlocks gear during extension

A

Hyd press applied to Uplock box release actuator

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24
Q

What happened when you pull the Gear Emergency Extension handle

A

Mechanically release Uplock hooks
Hyd fluid released
Gear extends through gravity

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25
What criteria must be met to trigger GEAR aural warning with flaps 0-2
At least one gear not down AND Altitude less than 700 LFE or AGL Airspeed less than 160kts One thrust lever angle less than 26 degree with other less than 40 (both engines) Thrust lever less than 40 degrees (one engine)
26
What will trigger GEAR aural warning flaps 3-4
A least one gear not down (can’t be silenced)
27
Types of Brake/Wheel protection provided by brake control unit
Antiskid Locked wheel Touchdown Retraction braking Integrated built in test
28
Is antiskid avail when using emergency brake handle
No
29
Can the EMER/Parking Brake accumulator be charged without system pressure
No
30
How many brake applications are available with full accumulator charge
6
31
Min cooling period required for RTO or landing above Quick Turn Around Weight
20 min
32
Reference source for brake cooling periods
POH 2
33
Engine make and model with rated thrust
PW535E 3360lbs of thrust up to 30 degrees
34
Components of the accessory gear box
HYD pump Oil pump Fuel Management Starter/Generator
35
FADEC protections with auto abort
Hot Hung No Lightoff
36
When are Engine start protections inhibited
In-flight start
37
How is the FADEC powered normally
Permanent magnet ALTERNATOR in the FMU mounted to the engine accessory case
38
Alternate power for FADEC
On side DC bus
39
ATR is armed when…
ATR is selected on (avionics) Thrust levers in TOGA
40
What causes the ATR to automatically activate
ATR armed with either 20% Differential N1 Loss of communication between FADECs
41
How does ATR provide max thrust
FADEC commands FCSOV (ECS) valves closed so no bleed air is wasted on environmental
42
Position of FCSOV and PRSOV valves during ATR activation
All closed except PRSOV valve on operating engine with wing/stab anti ice valves open
43
How many FADEC channels?
2, one active and one standby
44
Function of active FADEC channel
Actively Control all engine functions
45
Function of standby FADEC channel
Monitors all engine functions and assumes control with failure of active channel
46
What determines active FADEC channel
Alternates between engine cycles
47
When will both igniters be commanded to operate
Engine inflight start Auto relight Ground start with temps below 0deg
48
When is only one igniter commanded on
Ground start with temps above 0deg
49
Ignition switch in the OFF position allows you to
Dry motor
50
Where do we find approved oil types
POH vol 1
51
Recommended time for checking oil following shutdown
10 to 20 min
52
3 main sections of each wing tank
Main Collector Surge
53
Types of fuel approved
Jet A Jet A-1 JP8
54
Total fuel pumps per wing
Main Ejector pump Scavenge Ejector pump Dc Aux pump
55
Function of Main Ejector Pump
Draw fuel from Collector tank into line that supplies Fuel Management Unit
56
Function of Scavenge Ejector pump
Maintain the fuel level in Collector tank
57
How are the Main and Ejector pumps powered
Motive flow from FMU
58
With switch in Auto when do the Dc Aux pumps operate
Low pressure in engine supply line with START/STOP knob in RUN Crossfeed
59
What happens when Fuel Xfeed is moved to LO1/LO2
Xfeed valve opens Supply side DC pump turns on
60
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another
No
61
How can the DC pumps be operated manually
Select the pump switch on
62
Can a DC fuel pump operate with the pump switch off
No
63
What pilot action closes the fuel shutoff valves
Depressing the fire SHUTOFF 1/2 button
64
When does the yellow FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL (CAS) illuminate
Less than 310lbs fuel remaining in collector tank
65
What triggers yellow FUEL IMBALANCE
Imbalance equal or greater than 220lbs, will remain illuminated until imbalance below 88lbs
66
When will the FUEL EQUAL cas appear after an imbalance
Imbalance is less than 44lbs
67
How many fuel quantity sensors installed
8 total, 4 per side
68
Location of fuel temp sensor
Right collector tank
69
Location and number of Main Tank fuel vents
One per side, under the wing below the Surge tank
70
How is refueling and fuel sampling accomplished
Gravity through dump valve under each wing
71
Aircraft components that are hydraulically actuated
Gear Brakes Emer/Parking brake Multi-function spoilers Spring loaded rudder booster Stick pusher
72
Function of main hydraulic accumulator
Stores pressure for periods of increased demand (simultaneous braking and ground spoiler application)
73
Function if the Priority Valve
Restricts flow to landing gear actuators during operation of multiple hydraulic loads since in worst case scenario the gear can free fall down
74
Number of hydraulic filters
2
75
Normal pressure of the hydraulic pumps
Left pump 3000psi Right pump 2850psi
76
Indications of impending hydraulic filter bypass
Pop up indicators on the reservoir/manifold assembly
77
What will close the hydraulic shutoff valves
HYD pump switch CLOSED Fire shutoff button pushed Hydraulic fluid overtemp (auto closes both valves)
78
Pilot action required for accurate hydraulic fluid check
Emer/parking brake accumulator completely discharged
79
Above what value should the hydraulic system pressure fall rapidly
1200psi
80
How many batteries are installed and what type
2 lead acid
81
Amp hour rating for each battery
Batt 1/ 34 Batt 2/ 48
82
MIN temp for battery start
-18c
83
Min voltage for battery start
24v
84
On ground, batteries off, what busses are powered
Hot buses
85
On ground, batteries on, which busses are powered
All except SHED busses
86
Voltage range to accept GPU power
25-30v
87
Indication that the plane will accept GPU power
GPU AVAIL light
88
Function of the 1 OPEN or 2 OPEN position of BUS TIE switch
Forces respective bus tie open against system logic, other side operates normally
89
Buses and equipment powered by Batt 2 during start
Hot batt bus 2 Central bus Engine starter
90
Buses powered by Batt 1 during start
Hot Batt bus 1 Emergency bus Both DC buses
91
How does DC Bus 2 receive power during start
Quiet start contactor
92
Which buses are depowered during start
Shed buses
93
Bus tie contactors position during start and normal operation
Start: Both open Normal op: 1 open, 2 closed
94
Which generators power which buses in flight
Gen 1: onside buses and Emergency bus Gen 2: onside buses and Central bus
95
Battery duration in Electrical Emergency configuration
45 min
96
Purpose of ELEC EMER button
Manually forces the contactors into ELEC EMER configuration if system logic failed to do so
97
Xbleed switch in auto, when will the valve open
Loss of bleed from one engine
98
Cockpit indication that one or both Pressure Regulating SOVs is closed
CAS: BLEED 1 (2) OFF ECS Synoptic Ice protection synoptic
99
What occurs when the ECS switch is over to either 1 or 2
Opposite side Pressure regulating SOV and ECS valve closes Xbleed closed if wing/stab anti ice valves are closed
100
What happens with the ECS switch in OFF VENT
Ram Air opens ECS sovs close Pressure reg sovs close if wing/stab off
101
How does temp control work in Auto?
Valves automatically adjust to mix air to achieve selected temps
102
How does temp control work in Man?
You manually adjust the valve to make it hotter or colder
103
What happened when the temp control mode switch is OFF?
Vapor cycle system is off but valves are in auto
104
How do you know if the vapor cycle system is working?
Environmental synoptic page
105
Where are all the pressure valves located?
Aft cabin pressure bulkhead
106
In what position does the outflow valve fail?
its last position
107
In what position does the pressure relief valve fail? the negative pressure relief valve?
closed
108
cockpit indication of outflow valve position?
Environmental synoptic page
109
Main difference between the the two pressurization ECMU channels (electronic control and monitoring units)
one regulates the outflow valve automatically while the other controls it manually through the MAN position on the PRESN MODE switch
110
do both pressurization ECMU channels provide cabin alt limit protections?
yes
111
what happens when you hit the PRESN DUMP button
outflow valve opens recirc fans disabled
112
Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in AUTO?
12,000FT
113
Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in MAN
14,500FT
114
When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message BELOW 25,000?
LFE < 8300 = 10,000 8300-9600 = 11,500 >9600 = 14,200
115
When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message ABOVE 25,000?
Cabin alt > 10,000
116
Can the active FD be removed with AP on?
no
117
What pilot action disconnects AP?
AP button QD button Man trim TO/GA
118
What items are disabled when you hold down the QD
AP YD PUSHER TRIM
119
Function of Ventral Rudder?
essentially a back up YD above 60kts with YD off
120
what happens when you press TO/GA
AP disengaged Lat/Vert modes activated nav legs sequenced past runway nav source switch to GPS/FMS
121
Some stuff that can cause AP/YD Fail
GIA (integrated avionics unit) fail AHRS fail ADC fail FCE (Flight control electronics) fail Stall warning
122
How are climb/descent rates controlled in FLCH
Mainly by the throttles
123
Which vertical modes will the AFCS not capture a selected lower altitude?
GS GP
124
Will GP capture if CDI I not centered?
No
125
criteria for EDM to be armed...activated?
airplane pressure alt >25,000 AP on CAB ALTITUDE HI activates it
126
where does the IESI get its power, attitude info, heading info, air data, and nav info?
Power = emergency bus/DC BUS 1 Attitude = internal gyro Heading = AHRS 1 Air data = Standby pitot static and its own internal ADC processor Nav = ILS 1/2
127
In the event of a dual AHRS fail, how can you keep heading?
GPS page has track info which is pretty reliable and the standby compass
128
Mask Mic turned ON does what?
headset mic off mask mic on speaker on
129
automatic cutout for comm transmitter?
35sec
130
what types of operations are allowed by SBAS?
RNAV/GPS approaches down to LP/LPV mins
131
When do we have to check RAIM?
If SBAS or WAAS isn't avail along entire route of flight
132
Can a SID/STAR be used if nav database is not current?
yes, as long as each point is checked against current charts
133
can an RNAV or GPS approach be shot if the nav base isn't current?
no
134
when can we NOT use LNAV/VNAV (Baro-nav) mins?
approaches to airports above 5000ft elevation
135
What does ATC see through our transponder ADS-B out?
our GPS position
136
failed position of WING/STAB anti-ice valves?
closed
137
What caution must be exercised when turning WING/STAB on?
Gotta confirm that current airspeed is at or above published min airspeed for operating in icing
138
what do you have to check before reseting the ice speeds?
that there's no ice on the airframe
139
when is WING/STAB inhibited on the ground?
wheel speed below 40kts
140
when is the N1 anti-icing bug visible?
Wing/stab on and gear down or single bleed source
141
failed position of engine anti-ice valves
open
142
when are the engine TTO probes heated
anti-ice switches on on ground below 10 deg in flight below 15 deg
143
how is the starter/generator air inlet protected from ice
exhaust air from engine anti-ice system is directed over it
144
when are ADS probes heated when in auto?
at least one engine running or weight off wheels
145
how do we know if the ELT is transmitting?
flashing red light
146
reference source for o2 quantity for dispatch
poh
147
reference source for action required during high altitude airport ops
AFM
148
When will the masks drop when the switch is in PAX AUTO
Cabin alt 14,700 =/- 300ft
149
what is the volume of the o2 cylinder?
50cubic ft
150
flap degrees in each postion?
8, 26, and 35 degrees
151
is AP avail when we are using the backup pitch trim?
no
152
which FCE controls normal trim
FCE 2
153
which FCE controls the back up trim
FCE 1
154
3 Functions of multifunction spoilers
roll spoiler ground spoiler speed brake
155
at what wheel speed will ground spoilers disarm
45 knots
156
what commands the spring loaded rudder booster
FADEC
157
Electrical power source for rudder lock
hot bus 2
158
power source for engine fire protection system
emergency bus
159
how many fire detection loops are installed in each engine compartment
1 single loop
160
NO TAKEOFF CONFIG triggered by what?
pitch trim out of green flaps not in TO spoiler not in TO parking brake not released
161
How many fire bottles are installed and where are they located?
One in the rear fuselage
162
What type of chemical is in the fire bottle?
Halon 1301
163
What happens when one of the SHUTOFF buttons are pressed?
Bleed, fuel, and hydraulic SOVs close Bottle is armed SHUTOFF button white stripe is lit
164
Do we get an indication when the fire bottle is blown?
Yes, ENG FIREX DISCH
165
PRSOV positions during start
SAT >30c = both closed SAT between 8c - 30c = PRSOV 2 Open SAT < 8c = both open
166
What part of the avionics controls the Flight Directors?
The GIA’s
167
What navigation sensors are used in long range (magenta) source?
GPS only
168
Turning assisted by brakes radius
43 Degrees - Outbound gear 8.56m 28 ft 1 " (R10 pg 2)
169
Where can you find Door Synoptics
G3000 - GTC Aircraft Systems (R10 pg 3)
170
Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude
8,300 feet or 14,000 feet with AFM supplement 2 (RV10 pg 4)
171
Abbreviations: ACFOG
Airplane Changes Flight Operations Guide (RV 10 PG 7)
172
Abbreviations: FOLs
Flight operations letters (RV 10 PG 7)
173
Abbreviations: OB's
Operations Bulletins (RV 10 PG 7)
174
How is the QRH Organized
Normal checklist, Normal checklist Icing Conditions, Smoke, Non-annunciated, (index) annunciated tabs, simplified Performance
175
How is the QRH, then Emergency and abnormal procedures organized
Normal checklist, Normal checklist Icing Conditions, Smoke, Non-annunciated, (index) annunciated tabs, simplified Performance
176
Which Manuel: Limitations
AFM (section 2)
177
Which Manuel/s: Normal Procedures Checklist & Detailed Procedures Checklist:
Normal Procedures Checklist: QRH Detailed Procedures Checklist: POH
178
Which Manuel/s: Emergency and Abnormal Procedure
QRH
179
Which Manuel/s: Cold Weather Ops
POH (Section 2 Procedures and Techniques)
180
Which Manuel/s: Supplements
AFM (back right before appendices)
181
Which Manuel/s: Weight and Balance
AFM (Section 6) (do not confuse W&B with performance different version of performance tables are in the POH, QRH, and AFM)
182
Which Manuel/s: Systems, Operations and Schematics
POH (Section 6 of 6 sections)
183
Which Manuel/s: Simplified Takeoff Analysis and Landing Distance
QRH (last section under performance)
184
Which Manuel/s: Comprehensive Performance Data
POH (Section 3 though strangely almost a complete second book)
185
Which Manuel/s: Graphic Description of Maneuvers and approaches
SOP
186
Which Manuel/s: Configuration Deviation List (CDL)
AFM (Appendix, Appendix 1)
187
What is the Configuration Deviation List
Contains additional certification limitations for operating the airplanes without certain secondary airframe and engine parts as listed (meaning missing equipment/items not in the MEL where we can still dispatch the aircraft with specified additional limitations) (Only one part of a system unless specified))
188
Which Manuel/s or publications: Latest Embraer communications regarding flight operations
Flight Operations Letters (FOLs)
189
Latest Embraer Communications regarding changes implemented in the airplane (by service bulletins, manual changes, garmin loads, ect)
ACFOG (airplane changes flight operations guide)
190
Limitations: Use of VNAV is prohibited during
Use of VNAV is prohibited during the intermediate segment of an approach that includes a teardrop course reversal
191
Dead Reckoning Mode use is available only
Dead Reckoning Mode use is available only in enroute (ENR) or oceanic (OCN) phases of flight. during DR the CDI is removed the estimated navigation must not be sole source of navigating
192
G3000 the trip statistics information, fuel statistic information and other kinds of statistics presented in the G300 trip planning and weight and and fuel screens
G3000 the trip statistics information, fuel statistic information and other kinds of statistics presented in the G300 trip planning and weight and and fuel screens on the GTC are supplemental info only and must be confirmed by the flight crew prior to use. (AFM 2-56)
193
What is the electrical source for the PFD 1, AHRS 1, Transponder 1, AFCS (automatic flight control system Control unit(autopilot panel and brain), IESI (integrated Electronic Standby Instrument)
Emergency Bus
194
What is the source of the heading information for the IESE (integrated electronic standby instrument)
AHRS 1
195
What is the primary source of information for the three Air Data Systems
ADS 1 : IASP 1 (Integrated Air data and stall protection probe) ADS 2 : IASP 2 ADS Standby : Pitot Static
196
What is the primary source of attitude and heading information in the phenom 300
AHRS 1 & 2
197
List the three sources of DATA for the CDI and the color and number of lines
Nav 1 - Single green line Nav 2 - Double green line FMS - Single magenta line
198
How to change the flight director display; Single-que (v-bars) to/from dual que (cross bars)
G3000- home- setup-avionics settings - system tab- select single or dual que
199
What must be done to place flight director controls in other pilots control.
Press the CPL button on the AFCS (automatic flight control system,) panel - if the autopilot is engaged it will stay engaged but switch to roll and pitch mode.
200
Takeoff reference will be automatically removed from the speed tape when
accelerating through 160
201
what does the green circle mean on the speed tape:
1.3 vs : 1.3 Pusher
202
How do you access the Synoptics Page:
Aircraft Systems on the home screen
203
How do you split the PFD
PFD settings soft Key
204
What the magenta trend vectors on airspeed/altimeter tape indicate
Where the airspeed will be in 6 seconds.
205
Describe what the light blue and magenta title bars at the of the MFD indicate?
Light Blue - the display was selected by the left GTC Purple - the display was selected by the Right GTC
206
Where do you set the speed bug (takeoff numbers)
GTC home page (speed bugs)
207
Describe the Manual and Automatic Revisionary Mode of the Electronic Display System
208
Three types of CAS messages
Warning, Caution, Advisory
209
Identity a Golden Case Message
A CAS Message that is the root cause of the other failures must be accomplished first, (EAP INTRO -2 QRH) (steady reverse video means it flashes and then steady highlight)
210
How to silence a Caution CAS Message Aural Chime
Press far right soft Key on either PFD1 or PFD 2
211
If PFD 2 Fails what happens to the MFD and PFD 1
Nothing changes on PFD 1 or the MFD
212
The integrated Electronic Standby Instrument (IESI) permits computation and displays three main functions:
Attitude (Pitch and Roll) Standard or barometric corrected altitude and associated barometric pressure Indicated Airspeed
213
In addition the IESI provides the following secondary functions or displays:
Indicated Mach Number VMO/MMO Lateral Acceleration/slip indication Vertical speed ILS Barometric Pressure altitude in meters Heading
214
IESI primary power source? What happens you if you loose both generators?
IESI is powered by the Emergency bus which without power will run off the battery. p.s do not move the aircraft during the 90- second alignment
215
Does SVS assure IFR operations below published minimums.
No
216
Describe Operation of the Crew Alerting System
Advisory - (white) Caution - (yellow) Warning -(red) Displayed on the PFD Grouped by level of importance
217
218
219