Systems Study Guide (Dated August 2018) Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
How do the cabin seat belt signs work when operating in the AUTO position on the Seat Belt Selector?
A
Seat Belt Signs are turned off or on automatically with reference to:
Landing gear configuration (not up and locked) or
Flap position (lever not up and locked) or
Aircraft altitude (below 10300 ft 200A/B) or
Cabin altitude above 10000 or
Passenger oxygen on
2
Q
Each emergency lighting system component has battery power that provides at least ______ minutes of operation if fully charged?
A
15
3
Q
When does the nose landing light illuminate in the on position?
A
Only when the nose gear is down and locked
4
Q
With the nose gear retracted does the Taxi light illuminate?
A
No. Only with gear down and locked
5
Q
What switch positions allow emergency lights battery packs to be charged from DC power?
A
All switch positions. But lights on is insufficient to maintain the battery packs charge
6
Q
When pilot oxygen masks are not in the container, closing the left door and then pushing down on the PUSH TO TEST AND RESET slide lever does what?
A
Shuts off oxygen to the mask and re-selects the boom mic.
7
Q
The oxygen masks and chemical generators are located above the seats in passenger service units (PSUs). How are the masks deployed?
A
Automatically when cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500 ft or
Manually from the flight deck using the PASS OXYGEN switch on the panel
8
Q
What does pilot oxygen EMERGENCY position supply?
A
100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes.
9
Q
(200A/B/322) When the flight deck door is closed and electrical power is available, the door locks automatically. How is access granted
A
Using the emergency access code or depowering the airplane
10
Q
(200A/B/322) Flight Deck Door emergency access can be denied by the pilots at any time within the first ____ seconds by momentarily selecting ____.
A
30, DENY
11
Q
(200C) If the Flight Deck Door does not automatically unlock 30 seconds after pushing the emergency entrance switch, pilots should
A
Contact MX
12
Q
Bleed air is supplied to _____
A
Aft and Bulk cargo heat Air conditioning Air driven hydraulic pumps APU and engine start Hydraulic reservoir pressurization Potable water system pressurization Pressurization TAT probe aspiration Wing and engine anti−ice
13
Q
APU bleed air is used primarily during ___ for ____.
A
Ground operations, for air conditioning pack operation and engine starting
14
Q
The engine bleed air valves are armed when the ENGINE bleed switches are selected ON.
For what reasons do the engine bleed valves close automatically?
A
During engine start When a ground cart is supplying air For bleed source loss (think engine shut down) When an engine fire switch is pulled For bleed air over−temperature For bleed air overpressure For a bleed air duct leak
15
Q
Left, center, and right isolation valves divide the bleed air duct into segments. The center isolation valve is normally closed, except during _____.
A
during engine start or single engine bleed source operation
16
Q
Engine bleed air comes from _____.
A
High stage or low stage engine compressor section.
17
Q
When one pack enters standby cooling mode and the other is operating normally, the pack in standby may automatically shutdown at ____ and will restart when _____.
A
at lower altitudes or higher outside air temperatures
when ambient conditions permit standby cooling
18
Q
Air from the lower recirculation fans is mixed with ____ before entering supply ducts. Air from the upper recirculation fans feeds directly into the ____.
A
pack air
supply ducts.
19
Q
The target temperatures of each passenger cabin temperature zone can be modified ____ degrees F, within the range of ____F to ____F.
A
+/- 10
65
85
20
Q
The FLIGHT DECK TEMP selector sets flight deck temperature between ____ degrees F and ____ degrees F.
A
65
85
21
Q
The HIGH setting on the bulk cargo temperature selector turns on bulk ventilation fan, which provides for animal carriage. What does an overheat in the aft or bulk compartment cause?
Can heat be restored?
A
The system to shut down automatically and an EICAS advisory message CARGO HEAT (AFT/BULK).
Cargo heat to the affected compartment cannot be restored inflight.
22
Q
The forward cargo compartment is heated by air from the ____
A
forward equipment ventilation system.
23
Q
If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING displays. How is the ground crew made aware of the condition?
A
The ground crew call horn in the wheel well sounds.
24
Q
In flight smoke evacuation of the flight deck and equipment cooling of the lower forward
pressurized section is provided by the equipment cooling system override mode. Under what
conditions does this override mode operate automatically?
A
The EQUIP COOLING switch is OFF, or In flight, both supply fans fail, or In flight, low airflow is detected, or Smoke is detected in the forward equipment cooling system or the forward equipment ventilation system, or The FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is ARMED.
25
Pack control, fault detection, and overheat protection are automatic. Packs shut down for certain faults, and pressing the AIR COND RESET switch, resets or attempts to reset the pack for which conditions?
```
Any closed pack flow shutoff valves or trim air valves closed due to
Failed recirculation fan
Fault protection
overheat,
control failure,
valve failure
```
26
What protects the cabin against excessive pressure differential.
Two positive pressure relief valves and four negative pressure relief vents
27
In flight, with ENGINE ANTI−ICE selector to AUTO, engine anti−ice valves are controlled by the automatic ice detection system. On the ground, the selectors must be in the ___ position to operate the engine anti−ice system.
ON position
28
If TAT is 10 degrees C or above, manual (ON) wing anti−ice operation is inhibited until five minutes after takeoff. The inhibit is removed when TAT drops below what
temperature?
Below 10C TAT
29
Which flight deck windows are electrically heated?
All flight deck windows are electrically heated. Front windows only are Anti-Ice backed up by anti-fog. Side windows are anti-fog.
30
In flight, with ENGINE ANTI−ICE selector to AUTO, engine anti−ice valves are controlled by the automatic ice detection system. On the ground, the selectors must be in the ____ position to operate the engine anti−ice system.
ON
31
If TAT is 10 degrees C or above, manual (ON) wing anti−ice operation is inhibited until five minutes after takeoff. The inhibit is removed when TAT drops below what temperature?
10C TAT
32
Which flight deck windows are electrically heated?
All of them. Front are anti-iced backup by anti-fog. Side are anti-fog only.
33
The autopilot system can detect the degradation of a specific autopilot mode. What indication(s) results when an engaged mode degrades?
The autopilot remains engaged in an attitude−stabilizing mode based on inertial data
A persistent condition is annunciated by an amber line drawn through the affected Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) Further degradation results in EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT.
34
What does an AFDS status annunciation of LAND 3 indicate?
Three autopilots are engaged and operating normally for an automatic landing. The autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).
35
Changes in autoland status below 200 feet, other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND are ____.
Inhibited
36
How does the autothrottle apply thrust when operating in the THR mode?
The autothrottle applies thrust to maintain the vertical speed required by the pitch mode
37
What flight envelope protection is provided by the autopilot?
Bank angle
Stall (above 500 feet)
Overspeed
38
When does the autothrottle disconnect automatically?
The autothrottles disconnect automatically when:
− A fault is detected in the engaged autothrottle mode.
− Either reverse thrust lever is raised to the interlock position.
− Both engines are shut down.
39
When the CLB CON switch on the MCP is pushed in flight, what is accomplished?
With two engines operating, changes the engine thrust limit to the FMC selected climb thrust.
With only one engine operating, changes the thrust limit to maximum continuous (CON).
40
The MCP IAS/MACH window displays ___ knots when power is first applied.
200
41
What is accomplished by pushing the LNAV switch on the MCP?
Arms, engages, or disarms LNAV as a roll mode.
Displays LNAV in white (armed) on PFD roll FMA when armed. Previous roll mode remains active.
LNAV engages if aircraft is above 50 feet radio altitude, within 2.5 NM of active leg, and within path capture parameters of ground speed, intercept angle, and bank angle to active leg. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on PFD roll FMA.
With LNAV armed and aircraft not on heading to intercept active leg, displays NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING in CDU scratchpad.
Selection of LNAV when an active route is not available displays NO ACTIVE ROUTE in CDU scratchpad.
42
After localizer and glideslope capture, the localizer and glideslope modes can be disengaged only by what?
Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both F/D switches to OFF
Engaging the go−around mode
If above 1500 feet, by de−selecting APP (roll and pitch revert to default modes)
43
During an approach after LOC and G/S capture, how do you disengage the LOC and G/S?
After localizer and glideslope capture, these modes can be disengaged by one of the following methods:
− Disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off
− Engaging the go−around mode
− If above 1500 feet, de−selecting APP (roll and pitch revert to default modes)
44
What Flight Mode Annunciations (FMAS) indicate that the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) is commanding the Autothrottle system to set thrust to maintain a vertical speed required by the active pitch mode?
THR
45
What happens when VNAV ALT is engaged and the IAS/MACH window is closed, and you change the altitude in the Mode Control Panel ALT window and push the FLCH switch?
THR and FLCH SPD annunciate and IAS/MACH window opens.
46
Which Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) indicates that the throttles are moving to match thrust to the green thrust limit annunciated on the primary EICAS?
THR REF
47
When is the TO/GA mode armed inflight?
Unannunciated, but armed when flaps are extended or glideslope is captured
48
VNAV ALT annunciates to indicate that the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) has honored which of the following?
An intermediate mode control panel ALT that conflicts with the VNAV profile.
49
Which of the following flight modes can cause the Auto Pilot Flight Director system to depart from a Mode Control Panel ALT window altitude.
V/S and FPA
50
During an autoland, at what point during the approach do FLARE and ROLLOUT mode display?
1500 feet RA with GS and LOC captured
51
All flight control modes except _____ (below 1500 feet RA with LOC and G/S capture) can be disengaged by selecting another mode.
APP
52
On a go-around with the first push of either TO/GA switch, the PFDs display roll and pitch guidance to fly the go-around, AFDS maintains the ground track and increases pitch to hold the selected speed as thrust increases while the autothrottles have engaged in which mode of operation?
THR to provide adequate thrust to establish a 2000 fpm climb rate
53
What pitch mode FMA will you see as the AFDS maintains FMC/CDU altitude or descent path with pitch commands.
VNAV PTH (engaged)
54
The flight deck voice recorder digitally records ____ audio channels for the last ___.
4 channels for the last 2 hours
55
VHF L is configured for ____. VHF R and VHF C can be configured for ____.
voice communication only, data or voice communication
56
Both HF radios use a common antenna and both HF radios can receive simultaneously; however, while one HF radio is transmitting, the other HF radio cannot transmit or ____.
receive on another frequency.
57
Flight deck to cabin ALL CALL (55) from the flight deck produces ____ and the ____ at flight attendant stations.
a chime, call light flashes
58
When dashes are displayed in the radio tuning panel, indicate
The selected radio is failed or has been disconnected.
59
How can flight interphone and service interphone systems be connected?
Placing the SERV INTPH switch to ON
60
What is accessed by selecting COMM on the display select panel?
The communications main menu on the selected MFD
61
What will pushing the CAB transmitter select switch twice within 1 second cause to happen?
A priority call to flight attendant station 1L will be placed.
62
With only one generator available or if the electrical loads exceed power available (aircraft or external), ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority. What order of priority does ELMS use?
Galleys first then utility busses followed by individual equipment items powered by main AC
busses.
63
What does an IDG power when its engine is started with the GEN CTRL switch ON?
Its respective main bus is powered.
64
The APU generator is identical to the IDG. If no other power source is available when the APU generator reaches operating speed, what does the APU generator automatically power?
With no other power source available it connects to both main busses.
If the primary external source is powering both main busses, the APU powers the left main bus.
The APU and the secondary external cannot both provide power to the aircraft at the same time.
65
When primary external power source voltage and frequency are within limits, and are not in use, the primary external power ____ light illuminates.
AVAIL
66
How is IDG drive disconnect accomplished?
The IDG drive can be disconnected from the engine by pushing the respective DRIVE DISC switch.
High generator drive temperature causes the IDG to disconnect automatically.
67
The APU is automatically started in flight regardless of switch position when ____.
Both AC transfer busses lose power.
68
The ground handling bus is powered automatically by primary external power or APU generator. What does the bus power?
```
Cargo Doors (except bulk cargo door)
Cargo handling system
```
Cargo lights
Refueling and defueling system
Potable water servicing and functionality
Lavatory servicing and functionality
69
Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from what items?
Ground service bus (except main and APU battery chargers, and left forward fuel pump).
Utility Busses
Galleys
Fluorescent cabin lighting
Beacon, logo and wing lights
Gasper fan (200A/B, 322)
70
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEAT power switch to OFF removes power from what items?
IFE (all components)
WIFI
Passenger seats (including seat motor power, personal computer power outlets, and telephones)
322 Ground maneuvering cameras’
71
The backup electrical system automatically powers one or both transfer busses when?
The system is automatically tested after engine start.
Only one main AC generator is available.
Power to one or both main AC busses is lost.
Approach mode (APP) is selected on the MCP.
72
Each backup generator contains ____ permanent magnet generators (PMGs). The PMGs are reliable sources of electrical power and normally supply power to the ____.
2 PMGs
| flight control DC electrical system
73
The main DC electrical system uses transformer rectifier units (TRUs) to produce DC power. What normally powers TRUs?
AC transfer busses.
74
What does the standby electrical system power?
Selected flight instruments, communications, navigation systems, and flight control system.
75
The RAT can supply standby electrical power to C1 and C2 TRUs and hydraulic pressure simultaneously. If the RAT is unable to maintain RPM, what happens?
the RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is satisfactory.
76
How is the RAT deployed (4 things)?
Automatically if both AC transfer busses lose power or
Both engines are failed and center system hydraulic pressure is low or
All three hydraulic system pressures are low or
Manually using the RAM AIR TURBINE switch (hot battery or APU battery bus must be powered)
77
What occurs when the BATTERY switch is placed to OFF on the ground and in flight?
Turns the battery power off on the ground only (inhibited in flight) and the EICAS advisory message ELEC BATTERY OFF is displayed. In flight, the EICAS advisory message ELEC BATTERY OFF is displayed.
78
When does the EICAS automatically show compacted engine display?
EICAS displays engine indications in compact format whenever:
Secondary engine display is automatically selected,
and the lower multifunction display is
failed, unpowered, or is occupied, or
Secondary engine display is manually selected to the lower center MFD and the lower MFD is
failed, unpowered, or occupied with EICAS
79
(200A/B) Describe engine indications and limitations when EEC operate in the soft alternate mode.
Lose:
EPR indication is blank.
Thrust limit protection is not available.
No reference/target indications are displayed.
Retain:
Overspeed protection is available.
Autothrottle remains engaged.
80
(200A/B) Describe engine indications and limitations when EEC operate in the hard alternate mode.
Lose:
EPR indication is blank.
Thrust limit protection is not available.
Retain:
Reference/target N 1 is displayed.
Overspeed protection is available.
Autothrottle remains engaged.
81
The EEC selects minimum or approach idle automatically. In flight, when is Approach idle selected?
Engine anti−ice is operating.
Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater for a two engine approach.
One hydraulic system air−driven demand pump is inoperative, and the flaps are out of the UP position.
The opposite engine bleed valve is closed.
82
During an autostart, what indication does the EEC monitor until idle RPM is reached?
EGT
N 2
Other engine parameters
83
(200 A/B) On the ground, autostart can make two attempts to start an engine.
Under what conditions will the autostart system only make one start attempt?
No N 1 rotation
Insufficient air pressure
Starter shaft failure
Start time exceeding starter duty cycle.
84
Operation of the EECs in the normal mode maximum thrust is available from the engines.
What indicates maximum thrust?
200A/B ____. 200C/322 ____.
(200A/B) An amber line at the top of the EPR dial
| (200C/322) An amber line at the top of the N 1 dial
85
Each engine has two ignitors. How are ignitors operated during a ground start and during an inflight start?
The EEC automatically selects the appropriate ignitor(s) and alternates ignitors for successive ground starts.
Both ignitors are utilized for all inflight start attempts.
86
With the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN, continuous ignition is selected in what configurations?
START/IGNITION selector CON.
START/IGNITION selector NORM and one or both of the following:
− Flap lever out of UP position
− Engine anti−ice on (automatically or manually selected)
− During auto−relight flameout protection
87
What controls operate spar and engine fuel valves?
FUEL CONTROL switch
Engine fire handle
88
Each engine has two oil filters installed in series. (200A/B) Which filter can be bypassed?
The primary oil filter
89
Oil quantity is displayed to the nearest quart. What is the minimum oil quantity limit?
There is no minimum oil quantity limit (no amber or red line limit): however, a low oil quantity causes automatic display of the secondary engine display and reverses the display indication to show black numbers on a white background.
90
What occurs when the thrust reverser levers are raised to the interlock position?
Autothrottles disengage.
Autospeed brakes deploy.
91
The engine vibration monitoring system can display a range from 0.0 to 5.0. What will cause the secondary engine indications to automatically display?
There is no certified vibration limit, but when a high vibration level is reached, the secondary engine parameters are automatically displayed.
92
What engine failure warning indications occur with an engine failure (actual thrust is less than commanded thrust) during takeoff with airspeed between 65 knots and 6 knots prior to V 1
An aural alert ”Engine Fail”
Master Warning Light
PFD ENG FAIL message
93
Rotating the APU selector to START begins the automatic start sequence. When the APU air inlet door reaches the full open position, which starter engages?
The air turbine starter is selected automatically when there is sufficient bleed air duct pressure.
If insufficient bleed air pressure, the electric starter using the APU battery engages.
94
In flight, when does the automatic start of the APU occur?
When power is lost to both AC transfer busses.
95
What source automatically supplies fuel for APU operation?
Left forward fuel pump when AC power is available and cannot be turned off on the ground.
DC fuel pump in the left main tank when AC power is not available.
96
When an engine is running or starting (attended mode), or when the airplane is in flight, what does an APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message indicate?
Fire/inlet overtemperature
Overspeed/loss of overspeed protection
APU controller failure
Speed droop
97
Dual loop fire/overheat detection is provided for each engine. What occurs if a single loop fault is sensed in the fire/overheat system?
The system automatically switches to a single loop operation.
98
Fire and overheat detector loops are continuously monitored for faults. What occurs if there are faults in both detector loops in an engine nacelle?
No fire or overheat protection is provided, and EICAS advisory message DET FIRE ENG (L or R) is displayed.
99
When an engine fire is detected, what indications will the pilot have?
Fire bell sounds.
Master WARNING light illuminates.
An EICAS warning message FIRE ENG (L/R) displays.
Engine fire switch warning light illuminates (LEFT or RIGHT engine fire switch).
Fire switch unlocks.
Engine FUEL CONTROL switch fire warning light illuminates.
100
What type of fire detection system does the APU have?
The APU compartment has dual fire detector loops. Normally both loops must detect a fire to produce a fire warning.
101
If an APU fire is detected, what indications will the pilot have?
Fire bell sounds.
Master WARNING lights illuminate.
EICAS warning message FIRE APU displays
APU fire switch warning light illuminates.
APU fire switch unlocks.
102
Pulling and rotating the APU fire handle in either direction discharges the extinguisher into the APU compartment. What pilot indications will display?
APU BTL DISCH light illuminates.
EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCH APU displays
103
What type of fire protection and detection is provided to the main gear wheel wells?
Dual loop fire detection and no fire extinguishing system.
104
Five (six in the 322) fire extinguishing bottles are installed in the cargo fire system. How are the bottles fired when the discharge switch is pushed?
Two bottles fire immediately.
After a 20−minute delay, the remaining bottles discharge through a filter/regulator.
If airplane lands prior to the 20−minute delay, one bottle discharges at touchdown.
On the ground two bottles are discharged immediately, and after a time delay one remaining bottle discharges at a reduced flow rate.
105
Each lavatory has a smoke detector installed. When smoke is detected, what indications alert the crew?
An aural sounds in the lavatory and the cabin.
A lavatory call light flashes and the master call light on the associated attendant station illuminates EICAS advisory message SMOKE LAVATORY displays (200C/322)
106
Manual testing of the fire and overheat detection system would give what indications?
Master WARNING lights illuminate.
Fire bell sounds.
EICAS warning message
• FIRE TEST IN PROG (followed by)
• FIRE TEST PASS or FIRE TEST FAIL
LEFT and RIGHT engine fire switch lights illuminate.
APU fire switch light illuminates.
Nose wheel well APU fire warning light and horn.
FWD and AFT CARGO FIRE warning lights illuminate.
LEFT and RIGHT FUEL CONTROL switch fire warning lights illuminate
107
What is indicated when the APU FIRE WARNING HORN sounds intermittently with the airplane on the ground?
APU fire
| APU fire test
108
The columns and control wheels are connected through jam override mechanisms. If a jam occurs in a column or wheel, how can the pilots maintain control?
applying force to the other column or wheel to overcome the jam.
109
Asymmetrical spoilers assist in roll control while symmetrical spoilers are used as ____.
Speed brakes
110
Which flight control mode (s) is/are represented by the following signal sequence:
Pilot inputs −> ACEs −> PFCs −> ACEs −> Control Surfaces?
Normal and Secondary
111
PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed. For what do PFCs automatically enhanced handling qualities?
```
Flap, slat and speed break position,
Gear configuration,
engine thrust,
turns up to 30 degrees bank,
radio altitude,
air data,
inertial data
```
112
When must the pilot make control column inputs or trim changes to maintain a constant flight path?
Airspeed changes − not necessary for configuration changes
113
In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stabilizer directly, but make inputs to the PFCs to change ____.
Trim Reference Speed
114
Alternate pitch trim is controlled by the dual alternate pitch trim levers on the aisle stand.
What does moving both do?
Changes the trim reference speed (normal mode) and
Directly moves the stabilizer (all modes)
115
When is hydraulic power to the STCM automatically shut off?
When uncommanded motion is sensed.
116
The stabilizer trim indicators display the takeoff green band indication calculated by pilot CDU inputs of CG, gross weight, takeoff thrust and V1.
What three green band segments can be illuminated for takeoff?
Midband
Nose down band (added forward of midband)
Nose up band (added aft of midband)
117
Automatic autothrottle engagement (autothrottle wake up) can occur in all flight control modes but will not be supported under which pitch modes or flight conditions?
Pitch mode is FLCH or TO/GA.
Airplane below 400 feet AFE on takeoff.
Airplane below 100 feet RA on approach.
During a descent in VNAV SPD, the autothrottle may be in HOLD and will not support stall protection
118
The autothrottle can support stall protection if armed and not engaged.
If speed decreases to near stick shaker activation, the autothrottle engages in the SPD and THR REF mode and advances thrust to maintain ____.
minimum maneuvering speed or the speed set in the MCP speed window, whichever is greater
119
Pitch Envelope Protection functions do not reduce the pilot’s authority. What do these functions consist of?
Stall protection
| Overspeed protection
120
All three hydraulic systems supply the spoilers. Each hydraulic system is dedicated to a different set of spoiler pairs to provide what?
To provide isolation and maintain symmetric operation in the event of hydraulic system failure
121
The wheel−to−rudder cross−tie system operates in flight below 210 knots in the Normal mode. What does wheel−to−rudder cross−tie permit?
Allows control wheel input to deflect the rudder up to 8 degrees.
122
When will TAC automatically DISengage?
When engine thrust data is lost.
May also disengage following a severe engine damage or surge
123
Pilot inputs −> ACEs −> Control Surfaces is the signal sequence for the Direct Flight Control Mode.
The aircraft can enter the Direct Mode as a result of
___.
The ACE’s automatically transition to the direct mode when they detect a Failure of all three PFCs or lose communication with the PFCs
Manually by placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS switch to DISC
124
In what flight control mode(s) are the following NOT available: automatic pitch compensation for thrust changes, gear configuration changes, turbulence, flap changes, speed brake configuration changes, and turns?
Secondary and Direct flight control modes do not provide automatic pitch compensation.
125
In Secondary and Direct flight control modes, the elevator feel system provides two force
levels that change with ____.
Flap position
126
In the Secondary and Direct flight control modes, spoilers ____ are locked out as speed brakes.
4, 5,
10, 11
127
To protect against inadvertent deployment during cruise, when is flap and slat extension from the UP position inhibited?
At speeds greater than 250 knots (200A),
265 knots (200B/C),
275 knots (322),
and at altitudes above approximately 20,000 feet
128
In the primary flap mode, the flap load relief system protects the flaps from air load damage. If placarded flap airspeed limits are exceeded with the flaps in the ____ through ____ position, the flaps automatically retract to a position commensurate with airspeed.
15, 30
129
```
Slat load relief is available in the secondary flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap positions in the secondary flap mode.
If airspeed exceeds ____ knots (200A)
or ____ knots (200B/C),
or ____ knots (322),
the slats retract to mid position.
```
215, A
239, B/C
256, 322
130
In the secondary flap mode, the flaps and slats are positioned by electric motors, and movement is considerably slower than primary mode.
Because autoslats are unavailable, the slats are ____ extended at the flaps ____ through ____ detents.
fully,
1,
30
131
The alternate flap mode must be manually selected. The alternate flap mode allows direct manual operation of the flaps and slats through the ____.
Secondary drive electric motors.
132
Alternate mode flaps and slat extension is limited to slats mid and Flaps 20.
What is not available in the alternate mode?
Asymmetry protection,
uncommanded motion protection,
autoslats,
flap/slat load relief
133
An airspeed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in seconds ____?
10
134
A pitch limit indication displays at low speeds when the flaps are up and
at all times when the flaps are down.
135
The current radio altitude displays in the bottom center of the attitude indication area when radio altitude is below ____ feet AGL.
2500
136
The ECL is not required for dispatch. What must be available in lieu of a electronic checklist on the flight deck?
A printed checklist
137
ECL operational notes (active) are selectable through the ____ key at the bottom of ____ ECL page.
NOTES,
any
138
Flap Maneuvering Speed displays below ____ feet and indicates speed for flap ____ or ____.
20,000,
retraction,
extension
139
There are two FMCs with one FMC active and the other inactive.
The active FMC accomplishes all flight management computing tasks.
What happens if a system fault occurs in the active FMC?
The second FMC replaces the active FMC if system faults occur.
140
The FMC determines present position from ADIRU, GPS, and navigation radios. What is the priority of navigation sources?
GPS−updated,
navigation radios (when enabled),
ADIRU (inertial)
141
What will cause the FMC to automatically provide inputs to reference all fight displays in true north and how is the change annunciated?
The FMC begins polar operations when computed aircraft position enters a polar region. Auto switching to a true north reference is annunciated by a flashing white box around the word TRU on the Navigation Display (ND)
142
When VNAV is armed for takeoff, the FMC updates the VNAV target airspeed to ____ or the current airspeed whichever is higher up to ____.
VNAV engages at ____.
V2+15,
V2+25
400 feet AFE
143
FMC Datalink communication system provides two−way communication between the FMC and airline operations. What information can be transferred?
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Data can be uplinked from the airline system directly to the
PERF INIT,
TAKEOFF REF,
RTE,
DESCENT,
FORECAST,
ALTN, and
WIND pages.
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144
Independent left and right GPS receivers provide airplane position to the FMC. What indicates to the pilot that GPS is providing position data?
The symbol GPS is displayed as the FMC position update status on the Navigation Display (ND)
145
The ADIRU ON BAT on the overhead panel indicates what?
Internal power−up requires battery bus power.
If electrical power is removed the ADIRU is powered by the Hot Battery Bus and occurs when the switch is left on and all other power is removed from the aircraft.
The horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds to alert personnel of the condition.
146
When the ADIRU is in the align mode, a new airplane latitude/longitude position must be entered on the CDU POS INIT page.
What will result when an entry of a latitude and longitude that is not close to the position of the origin airport?
What happens if a position fails the internal check twice?
The FMC displays the scratchpad message INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE and then the message ENTER INERTIAL POSITION is displayed.
The scratchpad message ALIGNMENT REINITIATED is displayed and the system begins a
new alignment cycle. (ref. 3−1.30.8)
147
When the alignment is complete, the ADIRU enters the navigate mode and the airplane can be moved. What occurs when the aircraft is stopped for an extended period of time?
The ADIRU enters the realignment mode and refines the alignment until the aircraft moves again.
148
When can the ADIRU position be updated manually?
In the automatic realignment mode a new latitude/longitude position can be entered on the CDU POS INIT page.
149
The EICAS caution message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL displays when the ADIRU fails indicating SAARU is providing backup information. How long can the SAARU provide heading information?
The SAARU supplies 3 minutes of backup heading based on ADIRU heading before failure.
150
From what sources do the ADIRU and SAARU receive air data and when are the sources considered valid?
Both the ADIRU and SAARU receive air data from the left, center and right pitot tube and static systems.
Data is valid when two or more sources agree.
151
Three ILS receivers are installed. How can they be tuned?
Normally tuned automatically by the FMC but can be manually tuned
152
What is required for FMC auto−tuning of the ILS receivers?
An ILS, or LOC backcourse approach has been selected on the active route
AND
the aircraft must be less than 50 NM from the top of descent or,
less than 150 NM from the landing runway threshold or,
in the FMC descent mode
153
Manual tuning of the ILS is possible when not inhibited.
What inhibits manual tuning of the ILS?
The autopilot is engaged and the localizer or glideslope is captured
Only the flight director is engaged, the localizer or the glideslope is captured, and the aircraft is below 500 feet radio altitude.
On the ground, the localizer is alive, airplane heading is within 45 degrees of the localizer front course, and groundspeed is greater than 40 knots.
154
When is the ILS frequency automatically re−tuned?
The ILS frequency is automatically re−tuned when ILS tuning is enabled and a new approach is selected on the CDU.
155
A fuel pointer appears next to the low tank quantity in the expanded format. What does a solid white pointer indicate?
Fuel imbalance is greater than 1000 pounds.
Fuel imbalance is greater than 200 pounds with a crossfeed valve open.
156
On the ground, with only a single source of electrical power, which fuel pumps can operate?
Left FWD and AFT
Right FWD and AFT
On the ground with only one power source available and the center fuel pump switches on, only one pump can operate.
157
When the FUEL LOW CENTER EICAS message displays with the center fuel tank ON, the center fuel tank will have less than 2400 pounds of fuel (400 pounds 200A) remaining.
What happens to the remaining fuel?
The center tank scavenge system transfers any remaining fuel to the main tanks whenever the main tank pumps are ON and the fuel quantity in either main tank is less than
20,000 pounds 200A,
29,000 pounds B/C,
52,600 pounds 322
158
When main tank fuel pressure is low (dual pump failure) how is fuel supplied to the engine?
How would failure of both center tank pumps affect fuel use?
The main tank fuel would suction feed.
Center tank fuel would be unusable because center tank fuel cannot suction feed.
159
What is the source of fuel to the APU?
Any AC pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold
DC fuel pump in the left main tank if AC power is unavailable
With AC power available, the left forward fuel pump operates automatically regardless of switch
position.
160
What happens in the fuel system when the TO REMAIN fuel value is reached during fuel jettison?
Jettison automatically stops at a value just above the TO REMAIN quantity.
The system shuts off the main tank jettison pumps and closes the center tank jettison isolation valves.
161
(200B/C/322) What happens during the fuel jettison when the airplane is heavy and loaded near the forward CG limit?
Fuel is jettisoned from the center tank first to keep CG in limits.
Main tank jettison is delayed.
Computed jettison time is automatically adjusted to reflect increased jettison time.
162
Normal fuel quantity is indicated by a Total Fuel indicator on the upper EICAS screen.
What causes the Total Fuel to reconfigure to the expanded format?
One or both crossfeed valves open.
One or more fuel tank quantity indicators are inoperative.
Aircraft is on the ground and one or both engines are off.
FUEL IN CENTER alert message is displayed (center tank quantity amber).
FUEL QTY LOW alert message is displayed (low main tank quantity in amber).
FUEL IMBALANCE alert message is displayed.
FUEL FLOW ENG L/R alert message is displayed AIMS BP−16 or later software.
163
Center Fuel Pump Press lights are inhibited when the switches are OFF. When the switches are ON, what do the lights indicate?
Pump output pressure is low.
164
Left and right hydraulic system standpipes provide fluid to which pumps?
The engine driven pumps
165
The center hydraulic system standpipe provides fluid to which pumps?
All center system pumps (C2 primary, air−driven demand pumps, and RAT) except the primary C1
electric pump.
166
Where can hydraulic fluid quantity be checked?
Quantities may be checked on the STATUS page or the Hydraulic Synoptic.
167
What is the source of power for the pumps in the left and right hydraulic systems?
The left and right primary pumps are engine driven, and the demand pumps are electric.
168
What is the source of power for the center hydraulic system pumps?
The primary pumps are electric, and the demand pumps are air driven.
169
When electrical load shedding occurs, which hydraulic pumps are shed?
C2 primary pump
170
When can both center hydraulic system air−driven demand pumps operate simultaneously?
When both are selected to the AUTO position of the selectors only
171
When the center hydraulic system fluid quantity is sensed low and the airspeed is greater than 60 knots, how are systems affected?
Alternate brakes are isolated from the center system and remain operable using reserve fluid.
Nose gear actuation and steering are further isolated and remain inoperable.
Leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary (hydraulic) mode.
172
When are nose gear actuation and steering reconnected?
Airspeed decreases below 60 knots or
Hydraulic pressure to the center system flight controls is low or
The landing gear is selected down, both engines are normal, and both engine−driven pumps are
providing pressure.
173
In flight why does the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) deploy automatically?
Both engines are failed and center hydraulic pressure is low.
Both AC Transfer busses lose power.
All three hydraulic systems have low pressure.
174
What do Hydraulic Primary Pump FAULT Lights indicate?
Low primary pump pressure
Excessive primary pump fluid temperature
Pump selected off
175
When the landing gear is retracted, what holds the gear in the up and locked position?
Hydraulic pressure is removed and uplocks hold the gear up.
176
What occurs when the gear handle is placed to the DN position?
EICAS displays a white crosshatch in−transit indication.
Gear free−fall to the down and locked position.
Downlocks move hydraulically to locked position.
Hydraulically actuated gear doors close.
Main gear trucks tilt to flight position.
177
How is the gear extended using the alternate gear extension?
An electrically driven hydraulic pump and trapped hydraulic fluid from the center system releases all uplocks on the gear and doors. Gear free fall to the down and locked position.
178
Normal brake pressure is supplied from which Hydraulic system?
Right hydraulic system
179
When Normal Brake pressure is lost which hydraulic system provides brake pressure?
Center hydraulic system
180
Antiskid protection for the brakes is provided in which braking system?
Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and alternate brake hydraulic systems.
The normal brake hydraulic system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection.
Alternate/Reserve antiskid system provides tandem wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle wheels and the aft wheels have individual antiskid protection.
181
When the normal brake system is operating, what do autobrakes provide?
Automatic breaking at preselected deceleration rates for landing and maximum braking for rejected takeoff.
182
With loss of the normal, alternate/reserve brake systems, the accumulator provides brake pressure.
How many applications will the accumulator provide?
Several braking applications or parking brake application
183
The Autobrake system can be disarmed by what pilot actions?
Advancing either throttle after landing
Manual braking
Moving the speed brake lever to the DOWN detent
Selecting DISARM or OFF with the selector
184
Under what condition will the RTO position of the autobrakes apply maximum brake pressure when selected prior to takeoff?
Groundspeed is above 85 knots and both throttles are retarded to idle.
185
Autobrakes are disarmed under what system conditions?
ADIRU failure
Autobrake fault
Normal antiskid system fault
Loss of the R HYD system pressure
186
What indication does the pilot have that the parking brake is set?
PARKING BRAKE SET displays on the upper EICAS screen
187
The parking brake is set when both brake pedals are pressed and the handle raised.
How is the parking brake released?
The parking brake is released by pressing the pedals until the PARKING BRAKE lever releases.
188
When a brake is deactivated, the pilot can find it indicated where?
The word BRAKE appears on the landing gear synoptic next to the deactivated brake.
189
What indicates antiskid faults?
ASKID indication on the landing gear synoptic for the respective wheel
190
What is indicated by 5.1 next to a wheel on the landing gear synoptic?
Overheat condition of the indicated brake. Expect a solid amber box in conjunction with any
reading 5.0 and greater.
191
What are Time Critical Warnings and how are they announced to the pilots?
Alert pilots to a non−normal operational condition requiring immediate pilot awareness and corrective action to maintain safe flight.
Master WARNING lights, voice alerts, and PFD indications or stick shakers announce time critical warnings.
192
White boxes appear and disappear approaching or departing the selected altitude in the MCP window ____ feet prior and disappear within ____ feet of the selected altitude.
900, 200
193
When are MCP selected altitude alerts inhibited?
Glideslope captured, or
| Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked
194
Alerts requiring immediate pilot awareness and corrective action are
Warnings
195
The ”TOO LOW GEAR” and ”CONFIG GEAR” voice alerts are inhibited by the ____ switch.
Ground Prox Gear Ovrd
196
PWS is enabled 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear.
The system operates only below ____ RA; PWS alerts are enabled below ____ RA.
2300 ft,
| 1200 feet
197
After engine start the blue ____ cue is inhibited until 30 minutes after takeoff
Status
198
When is the status message cue inhibited during landing?
From 800 feet RA until below 75 knots groundspeed.
