Systems Test Flashcards
(364 cards)
1
Q
Without using the autopilot disconnect switches on the yolks, or the A/P Disengage bar on the MCP, can a pilot disconnect the A/P?
A
Yes. Both A and B are correct.
A. by applying sufficient force to move the control wheel or control column
B. Enough FORCE to move rudder pedals ONLY if LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.
2
Q
During Low Vis takeoff (RVR <500) can you use the roll bar on the PFD for lateral guidance?
A
NOOOOO.
The PFD roll bar is not certified for low vis take-offs.
3
Q
To use the Integrated Approach feature, flight crews should use the____ mode to enable the approach?
A
Push the APP button
4
Q
If the autopilot remains engaged below 100ft. RA on a non-ILS approach_____ is displayed?
A
NO AUTOLAND
5
Q
During Low VIS Take-off (RVR<500) using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is provided using________?
A
ILS Signals
6
Q
Approaches flown using IAN feature____
A
Always uses FMC computed glide path for vertical path guidance
7
Q
With an EICAS advisory message NO LAND 3 displayed, which of the following is true?
A
A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.
8
Q
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuous (CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?
A
D. All the above.
9
Q
What display indicates positive engagement of a mode selected on the MCP?
A
A. The flight mode annunciator (FMA’s)
10
Q
During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by ______, they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.
A
C. 50 kts
11
Q
With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR REF, the thrust is set to _______.
A
C. The thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.
12
Q
During autoland operations, which of the following occurs at 1500 ft AGL?
A
D. A and C.
A. Self-Test of Autoland System
C. LAND 2 or 3 annunciated on the ASA (Rollout and Flare annunciated as armed)
13
Q
What pitch and roll commands does the Flight Director provide during T/O?
A
D. All of the above.
( a. V2 + 15 kts or the speed at rotation plus 15 kts whichever is greater.
b. Heading to maintain the track existing at lift-off.
c. If target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds, a new target speed up to V2 + 25 kts max.)
14
Q
What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide during operation in the normal flight control mode?
A
D. All of the Above
which includes Stall, Bank, and Overspeed protections.
15
Q
During CAT III LAND 3 operations, after landing, when does the autopilot automatically disengage.
A
It DOES NOT automatically Disconnect after landing.
16
Q
The minimum altitude the autopilot may be initially engaged at is ____ with one or both engines operating.
A
C. 200ft
17
Q
During a Go-Around, pushing either TO/GA switch once causes the autothrottles to:
A
B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.
18
Q
During an approach, when does TO/GA become armed?
A
D. Either A or B.
(a. Whenever the flaps are OUT of up.
b. At glide slope capture)
19
Q
Below 1500 ft with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated:
A
A. Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.
20
Q
When climbing or descending in V/S or FPA, the AP/FD pitch mode will change to ______ when the selected altitude is reached.
A
D. ALT
21
Q
Pushing the FLCH button in flight will automatically engage the autothrottles in what mode?
A
B. In the THR mode.
22
Q
During an autolanding, thrust is automatically retarded towards idle at ________.
A
A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.
23
Q
During cruise with the autopilot engaged, how many autopilots actually control the aircraft?
A
A. All operating autopilots.
24
Q
If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 kts on takeoff it cannot be engaged until above _____.
A
A. 400ft
25
What does the "AUTOPILOT" EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
26
How does a pilot know when the IRS alignment is complete?
A. The EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R is removed.
27
The ADRS is the primary source for speed and altitude to:
B. Captain Instruments
28
With LOC and G/S armed, to capture the localizer, which of the following conditions must exist?
D. B and C
( B= ILS / GLS frequency must be selected in the FMC.)
and (C =Aircraft heading must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.)
29
Vertical RNP values may be entered on the CDU ____ page.
B. RNP Progress Page (Progress 4/4).
30
If both IRS's fail, will the FMC's continue to operate?
A. Yes, GPS provides track and position to the FMC.
31
What are the indications of an operational IRS losing normal power while on the ground?
D. A and C are correct.
A: a horn in the nose wheel area sounds
C: an illuminated "ON BAT" light
32
Which statement(s) is/are true regarding IRS alignment?
D. All of the above are correct.
A. If GPS is available, manual entry of Present Position is not required.
B. On the ground the aircraft should not be moved during alignment.
C. Either IRS may be realinged in flight, if GPS is available.
33
During an ILS autoland approach, what does LAND 3 displayed on the PFD indicate?
D. Answers A and B are both correct.
A. the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.
B. The aircraft ha passed 1,500 feet radio altitude and a self check has been completed satisfactorily.
34
When do the autothrottles disconnect automatically:
D. All the above.
A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is raised to idle.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
35
If both IRS's fail:
A. LNAV and VNAV are no longer available.
36
Pushing the Lateral Navigation (LNAV) Switch:
D. Both A and B.
A. Engages LNAV if the airplane is above 50 ft RA and within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
B. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on the PFD FMA roll window.
37
The Bank Limit Selector _____.
C. In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.
37
The ISFD provides:
B. A backup attitude source and backup airspeed and altitude to the PFD.
38
The IRS switches on the overhead panel:
D. Both A and C.
A. Are functional in flight and on the ground.
C. Can be used to turn off the IRS's at anytime.
39
Pushing the Altitude Selector inner knob during climb or descent:
D. Both A and B.
A. With waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude window, deletes the next altitude constraint.
B. With no altitude constraints and the MCP altitude window set above the FMC cruise alt, will reset the FMC cruise altitude to the window value.
40
The Approach (APP) Switch:
A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
41
How many FMCs does the B787 have, and how do they operate?
B. Three, one operates as the master and the others are designated as a spare and a backup.
42
How many GPS receivers does the B787 have?
D. Two: Left and Right.
43
When is the EICAS caution message “AUTOTHROTTLE DISC" displayed and aural alert sounded?
B. When thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
44
What speed does the FMC plan for during holding?
A. Best holding speed for the aircraft gross weight, altitude and flap setting.
45
During climb, if CLIMB DIRECT is selected, what happens to any intermediate climb restriction on the RTE LEGS page?
A. All intermediate altitude restrictions up to the MCP altitude will be deleted and the FMC will direct a climb to the altitude set on the MCP.
46
With a triple FMC failure which pages of the CDU will be inoperative?
A. All CDU pages are lost.
46
If unforecast tailwinds during a VNAV PTH descent cause the A/C to accelerate more than ____ kts above target speed to maintain the path, the FMA mode will change from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD.
C. 15kts
47
A descent initiated more than 50 miles from the T/D using the MCP altitude selector results in:
D. All the above.
A. A new cruise altitude.
B. A new T/D.
C. A VNAV SPD descent to the new cruise altitude.
48
The normal pitch mode annunciated on the FMA during a VNAV climb is:
D. VNAV SPD
49
Climb and/or Descent waypoint speed constraints entered on the legs page:
C. Do not require an altitude constraint.
50
For FMC ILS/GLS autotuning to occur the airplane must be less than 50 NM from the top of descent, or less than 150 NM from the landing runway, or the FMC must be in the descent mode AND
D. Either A or B.
A. An ILS/LOC/GLS runway must be in the active route.
B. A LOC back course approach must be in the active route.
51
When will placing the IRS switches to the OFF position remove power from the IRU's?
D. Anytime they are powered.
52
In the event of a complete failure of both Inertial Reference Systems, what instrument(s) is/are available?
C. Attitude, Altitude and Airspeed on the PFD's, provided by the ISFD.
53
The AHRU supplies:
D. All of the above.
A. Attitude.
B. Heading.
C. Rate information.
54
If all IRU inertial data fails which of the following occurs?
D. All of the above.
A. The FMC continues to receive hybrid GPS-inertial position solutions using the AHRU inertial sensors combined with GPS position.
B. The AHRU's continue to supply attitude data to the PFDs.
C. The EICAS advisory message NAV IRU is diplayed.
55
The IRS's can be fully realigned in flight using which of the following methods?
B. Using GPS position information.
56
While enroute and operating more than ____ nm off the active route, the FMC does not sequence the active waypoint when the airplane passes the waypoint.
D. 21 NM
57
The FMC transitions to approach if a published approach has been selected and incorporated into the active flight plan and which of the following have occurred?
D. Any of the above.
A. The aircraft has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach.
B. The aircraft is on a direct-to, or an intercept course to the active waypoint, and the distance to go is less than 12 nm.
C. The descent phase is active and the flaps are out of UP.
58
With regard to VNAV descents which of the following is true?
D. All the above.
A. Selecting DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page will start a descent to capture the VNAV PTH.
B. Using the MCP altitude selector to initiate a descent when within 50 nm of the computed top of descent initiates a DES NOW function.
C. The CDU Help Window message DRAG REQUIRED displays if actual airspeed exceeds FMC computed target speed by more than 10 knots.
59
The EICAS shows "FMC". Which of the following could cause this message to display?
A. All three FMC's have failed.
60
Which statement is true, when operating with a triple FMC failure?
D. All the above.
A. New waypoints must be entered using lat / long and are entered on the ALTN NAV page of the TCP.
B. ILS/GLS Radio tuning is available through the ALTN NAV Radio page of the TCP.
C. LNAV/VNAV is inoperative.
61
Which of the following may be used by the FMC for position updating?
D. All the above.
A. GPS/IRU.
B. DME/DME IRS.
C. LOC/IRU.
62
The ISFD receives Pitot & Static data from:
C. The Center Pitot / Static System.
63
Selecting CLB DIR (Climb Direct) deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and ______.
A. The LOWER of the FMC cruise altitude or the MCP altitude.
64
At acceleration height, VNAV commands a speed ____ kts below the existing flaps placard speed, based on flap handle position.
A. 5
65
If LNAV is armed prior to takeoff it will engage at ____ ft RA.
C. 50
66
What is the maximum operating pressure altitude for the 787-10?
C. 41,100 feet
67
Why are rapid and large alternating control inputs to be avoided?
D. They may result in structural failure at any speed.
67
Autoland capability may only be used for landing at airports with a field elevation _____?
C. At or below 8400 feet.
68
When is the use of reverse thrust is prohibited?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. Intentionally in flight.
B. During single engine landings.
69
What is the lowest allowable oil temperature for engine start?
B. Colder than -40C.
70
When is it prohibited to use FLCH?
B. Below 1000 feet AFE, on final approach.
71
What is the maximum permitted glideslope angle that can be used with an ILS automatic landing?
C. 3.25 degrees.
71
What is the minimum permitted glideslope angle that can be used with an ILS automatic landing?
A. 2.50 degrees.
72
What are the maximum wind components when making a HUD low visibility takeoff (RVR <500)?
A. Headwind 25 knots
Crosswind 15 knots
Tailwind 10 knots
73
What is the minimum engine oil quantity required prior to engine start?
B. 18 quarts.
74
What are the maximum allowable wind speeds for autoland operations for CAT II or CAT III operations?
A. Headwind 25 knots
Crosswind 15 knots
Tailwind 10 knots.
75
What are the maximum allowable wind speeds for autoland operations for other than CAT II or CAT III operations?
A. Headwind 25 knots
Crosswind 25 knots.
Tailwind 15 knots
76
If the glidepath angle for an ILS, GLS or non-ILS is greater than 3.77 degrees, at what altitude must the autopilot be disengaged?
C. No later than 50 feet below DH/MDA.
77
Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below ______.
C. 135 feet AGL.
78
With LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and glidepath angles greater than 3.25 degrees, the autopilot must be disengaged before continuing below ______.
B. 100 feet AGL.
79
On takeoff or missed approach, do not engage the autopilot below_____.
C. 200 feet AGL.
80
Icing conditions exists when:
C. Answer A or B plus visible moisture is present.
A. OAT (ground) is 10C or below.
B. TAT (flight) is 10C or below.
81
What is the maximum landing crosswind component on a dry runway?
D. 40 knots.
82
What is the operating speed in severe turbulence when below 25,000 feet?
B. 290 KIAS.
83
What is the operating speed in severe turbulence when at or above 25,000 feet?
A. 310 knots/.84 Mach (whichever is lower).
84
What is the maximum landing tailwind component during a CAT ll/lll ILS?
C. 10 knots.
85
What is the maximum takeoff/landing tailwind component?
A. 15 knots.
86
Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude for the 787-9 is:
A. 43,100 ft
87
The CONFIG PARKING BRAKE warning level EICAS indicates:
A. The parking brake is set when either engines thrust is in the takeoff range on the ground.
87
When using only battery power for braking, ______ protection is available.
D. All of the above.
A. Touchdown.
B. Normal anti-skid.
C. Locked wheel.
88
Maximum autobrake pressure is provided while operating in the:
B. Rejected takeoff mode only.
89
Nose wheel steering may be inoperative after loss of the:
B. Center hydraulic system.
90
The alternate gear extension system utilizes trapped fluid from the:
D. Center hydraulic system.
91
If center hydraulic system fluid quantity is low, is it likely that the gear actuation system has lost all available pressure sources?
A. No, if center hydraulic system fluid quantity is low, the center system fluid is isolated to provide an alternate extension source.
92
What is provided by the RTO function of the autobrake system?
C. The RTO function automatically applies maximum brake pressure when the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots groundspeed.
93
What does the alternate landing gear extension system use to extend the gear?
A. A dedicated DC hydraulic pump and trapped center hydraulic system fluid.
94
The autobrake system disarms if:
D. All of the above.
A. Pedal braking is applied.
B. Either thrust lever is advanced after landing.
C. Speedbrake lever moved to the DOWN detent after the speedbrakes have deployed on the ground..
95
Which of the following will disarm the Autobrake system and cause the EICAS "AUTOBRAKE" advisory message to display?
D. All of the above.
A. Selection of the Autobrake switch to Disarm .
B. Autobrake system is inoperative for any reason.
C. RTO is initiated above 85kts but autobraking has not been applied.
96
If an RTO is initiated below 85 knots groundspeed, the RTO autobrake function:
A. Does not operate. The RTO function engages above 85kts.
97
Hydraulic power for gear retraction and extension is supplied by the:
D. Center hydraulic system.
98
The landing gear speed limits for all configurations and modes are _____ .
B. 270 / .82
99
Which of the following is true regarding gear down and locked sequence:
A. Hydraulic pressure unlocks the uplocks, gear falls by gravity, hydraulic pressure closes the gear doors.
100
The landing gear is held in the up and locked position by:
C. Hydraulically actuated mechanical locks.
101
Which autobrake mode provides the highest deceleration rate for landing?
D. MAX AUTOBRAKES
102
How do you know that the parking brake is set?
B. The EICAS memo message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed.
103
Because of its greater length, the B787-10 has both Nosewheel and Main gear steering.
False
104
Select a TRUE statement about alternate gear extension.
A. The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position.
105
During landing, auto brake application begins:
D. Both A and C.
A. When both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
C. With wheel spinup.
106
During takeoff, RTO braking will not occur unless groundspeed is above:
A. 85 knots.
107
Wheel brake temperatures are displayed:
C. On the gear synoptic page
108
Where would you find hydraulic quantity indications?
D. Both B and C.
B. Status Display.
C. Hydraulic Synoptic.
109
In the AUTO position, the right hydraulic system demand pump:
D. All the above.
A. Operates from takeoff thrust set to flaps retracted.
B. Operates when system, or primary pump pressure is low.
C. With landing gear lever down and below 1000RA to groundspeed less than 40kts.
110
The primary hydraulic pump FAULT lights illuminate (amber) when the following occurs:
D. All the above.
A. Low primary pump pressure.
B. Excessive primary pump fluid temperature.
C. Pump selected OFF.
111
How or when is the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) deployed?
D. All the above.
A. Manually by pushing the guarded RAT switch on the overhead panel.
B. Automatically with the loss of all four EMPs and an engine failure on takeoff or landing.
C. Automatically, with the loss of Captain and F/O Instrument busses.
112
Which of the following components are powered by the right hydraulic system?
D. Both B and C are correct.
B. Some flight controls.
C. Right engine thrust reverser.
113
What happens if both the C1 and C2 Pump selectors are positioned to ON at the same time?
A. Both pumps will run.
114
Autoland is inoperative for which of the following conditions?
D. Left and right hydraulic system pressure is low.
115
What component(s) does the RAT hydraulically power?
C. Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system.
116
Which of the following will cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?
D. Left, Center, and Right Hydraulic pressure low.
117
The hydraulic isolation system ensures:
C. Landing gear can be lowered and nose wheel steering operates.
118
Which hydraulic pump(s) may be shed to allow the electrical system to provide power to other systems?
D. All the above.
A. Center demand pump.
B. Left Demand Pump.
C. Right Demand Pump.
119
What is the minimum number of hydraulic systems required for "adequate airplane controllability"?
A. One
120
With the left or right hydraulic demand pump selectors in the AUTO position, which of the following is true?
D. All the above.
A. Pumps operate from takeoff thrust set to flaps retracted.
B. Pumps operate with system low pressure.
C. Pumps operate during thrust reverser operation.
121
The left hydraulic system powers which systems?
C. Some flight controls and left engine thrust reverser.
122
Normal brakes are powered ______.
C. Electrically.
123
The Center Demand pump operates ______?
D. All the above.
A. On the ground for the first three minutes after the second engine is started.
B. From T/O thrust set until above 2000ft RA and during descent with the gear handle down and the RA is less than 2000ft until groundspeed is below 60kts.
C. Flaps and Slats are in motion.
124
On the EICAS display, an amber fuel temperature can mean:
D. Answers A and B are correct.
A. Fuel temperature is approaching the maximum allowable temperature.
B. Fuel temperature is approaching the fuel freeze temperature entered into the CDU.
124
The center hydraulic system has an isolation function which _____.
D. A and B are correct.
A. Ensures the flight crew can lower the landing gear.
B. Allows nosewheel steering to be operational for landing, rollout and taxi.
125
The APU can receive fuel from:
D. Any fuel tank that has an operating fuel pump.
126
During normal operations, the APU receives fuel from the:
D. Directly from the left tank.
127
An EICAS message FUEL JETTISON MAIN indicates:
D. Fuel jettison from the main tanks is INOPERATIVE.
128
The center fuel tank pump pressure lights illuminate:
A. When pump pressure is LOW with the pump switch selected ON.
129
When the fuel jettison system is ARMED, the fuel to remain is automatically set to a quantity that will _________ when jettison is complete.
D. Have the aircraft weight at the maximum landing weight.
130
A FUEL CROSSFEED advisory message displayed on EICAS indicates:
B. The crossfeed valve position disagrees with the switch position.
131
The minimum fuel temperature should be set to ______ fuel freeze temperature.
A. 3 degrees above.
132
The minimum fuel temperature is entered on the:
D. CDU PERF INIT page.
133
If a center tank pump has low output pressure with low center tank quantity, the __________ EICAS message is displayed.
C. FUEL LOW CENTER.
134
On the ground or in flight certain fuel pumps may load shed when:
A. Less than all engines or generators are operating.
135
The minimum fuel temperature is displayed on:
C. On the CDU PERF INIT page and the FUEL synoptic.
136
When balancing fuel, what indication(s) appear when the main tank fuel is balanced?
A. A flashing FUEL BALANCED indication replaces the Fuel Quantity title on the expanded quantity display.
137
The expanded fuel quantity display appears when:
D. All the above.
A. One or more fuel quantity indicators are INOP.
B. The FUEL QTY LOW message is displayed.
C. The crossfeed valve is open.
138
The center tank scavenge system will begin to transfer fuel from the center tank when:
A. Either main tank quantity is below 35,000 lbs and both center tank pumps are off.
138
Fuel jettison time is displayed:
D. On the FUEL synoptic only.
139
Placing the fuel jettison ARM switch to the ARMED position causes the Fuel To Remain indication to be displayed:
C. On both the EICAS fuel display and FUEL synoptic.
140
In flight, with center tank fuel on board, placing the left fuel jettison NOZZLE switch to ON, with the jettison system ARMED will:
D. A and B.
A. Open both main tank jettison valves.
B. Open both center tank jettison isolation valves.
141
The fuel balancing system is inhibited:
D. All the above.
A. During defueling, refueling or ground transfer of fuel.
B. Prior to engine start with the APU off.
C. On the ground and one or both engines are running.
142
Exceedence of the fuel imbalance limits:
A. Requires no logbook entry or aircraft inspection.
143
On the ground the fuel jettison system:
A. Is inhibited.
144
When all available fuel has been jettisoned there will be:
D. 8,700 lbs remaining in each main fuel tank.
145
The CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL indicates:
B. Predicted fuel at destination will be less than entered reserves.
146
The DC fuel pump operates automatically when:
C. The APU is started without AC power available.
147
The DC powered fuel pump is located in the _____ .
A. Left main fuel tank.
148
Actual fuel temperature is displayed on ______.
D. Both A and B.
A. EICAS.
B. FUEL synoptic.
149
How does the flight deck get the attention of the ground crew if they are not responding to the flight interphone?
D. By selecting CAB on the TCP, and pushing the button for GND CREW.
150
The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when:
B. The LEFT oxygen mask door is open.
151
How can the Center VHF radio be tuned to DATA if DATA is not visible on the center radio?
D. Both B and C are correct.
B. By selecting the Center radio as the active radio, then stepping through the standby frequencies until the word DATA appears on the standby line, and transfering it to the active window.
C. By selecting COMM on the DSP, then selecting the Manager key, then the VHF key, then select the Center radio as Default, then select Default Radio Data.
152
What, if any protection or indication is there for a "stuck mic" switch while in flight?
C. In the event an HF or VHF radio transmits for more than 30 seconds the EICAS “Radio Transmit (Capt., FO, or OBS)” is displayed.
153
Which of the following statements are true concerning B787 VHF communications?
D. All of the above.
A. DATA capability is only available on the Center and Right VHF radios.
B. The VHF radios are designated Left, Right, and Center.
C. Center radio is normally selected to DATA.
154
What are the indications of an incoming HF SELCAL?
D. All of the above.
A. Hi-Lo chime.
B. "CALL” annunciated on the audio control panel at the applicable radio.
C. "SELCAL" EICAS com message.
155
Where can the menu with pre-defined stations or groups of stations for the Cabin Interphone be found?
A. On the first page of the Communications chapter of the Flight manual..
B. By pushing the ACP CAB mic select button twice within one second.
156
Regarding the Cabin Interphone System display page of the TCP, which of the following will result in “PA IN USE” appearing in the scratch pad?
D. Both B and C are correct.
B. A portion of the aircraft PA system is in use.
C. Both the PA and the video entertainment systems are in use.
157
Which of the following may be used to initiate a call to Door 1L?
D. All the above.
A. Use the flight deck handset.
B. Use of any TCP.
C. Pushing the CAB (cabin) transmitter select switch on the audio control panel twice within 1 second.
158
The audio control panel may be used to operate which of the following?
D. All of the above.
A. Service interphone.
B. Passenger address system.
C. Flight interphone.
159
The service interphone system provides voice communications between:
A. The flight deck and ground crew stations at various locations around the airplane.
160
An "FMC MESSAGE" EICAS alerts the crew:
A. To check the CDU help window for message information.
161
What are the indications to the pilots, of an incoming medium level communication.
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. A white EICAS message showing COMM.
B. A high - low aural chime is associated with a crew alert communications message.
162
An EICAS “GROUND CALL” message accompanied by the flight deck call chimes may be responded to by:
D. B and C are correct.
B. Selecting the FLT MIC button on an Audio Selector Panel.
C. Answering the call using a hand microphone push to talk switch.
163
Passenger Address announcements may be made using which of the following devices.
D. All the above.
A. Hand held microphone.
B. Oxygen Mask Microphone.
C. Flight Deck Interphone Hand Set.
164
If both inboard display screens fail, can the pilots view the EICAS display?
D. Yes, it will automatically transfer to the outboard DU of the pilot that last had it displayed on their inboard screen.
165
Regarding the "Pick Waypoint" function, which of the the following is/are true?
D. All of the above are true.
A. May be used to select any airport displayed on the ND display.
B. Is only available when the cursor is on the ND.
C. When a point is selected, the latitude and longitude of the selected point is placed in the CDU scratch pad.
166
To use the "Pick Waypoint" function, the ND must be in the ______ mode(s).
D. All the Above
A. Map
B. Center Map
C. Plan
167
Where can VOR pointers be viewed?
A. The ND MAP and MAP CTR display.
168
How can you display the Airport Map display on the ND?
A. Select any map range of 5nm or less.
169
How can you display the VSD?
D. Select MENU using the ND mode selector, then select VSD from the drop down menu selection.
170
The VSD can be shown when the ND is in the ____ mode.
A. Map mode only.
171
The mini map display has a fixed range of ____ nautical miles.
A. 20
172
The altitude trend vector on the PFD/HUD predicts the altitude in the next ____ seconds.
B. 6
173
The airspeed trend vector on the PFD/HUD predicts the airspeed in ____ seconds.
B. 10
174
The EFIS control panel Minimums Reference Selection allows values to be set as:
D. B and C
B. RADIO
C. BARO
175
What system is not available as a synoptic display?
C. Navigation Radios.
176
How do you display an unannunciated non-normal checklist?
A. Select the NON-NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.
177
What does a white square icon next to an EICAS message indicate?
D. There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete.
178
What does the nose of the airplane symbol represent in ND Plan mode?
A. Actual position and track along the flight plan route.
179
Under normal conditions, where is EICAS displayed?
D. A and C are correct.
A. Left Inboard MFD.
C. Right Inboard MFD.
180
How is the HUD decluttered?
A. Selecting the outboard push button on the control wheel.
181
QFE reference switching can be accomplished on the CDU _________ page.
B. APPROACH
182
Regarding non-normal checklists and deferred items, which statement(s) is/are true?
D. Both answers B and C are correct.
B. If a non-normal checklist has a deferred item, it will automatically append to the appropriate normal checklist.
C. If a non-normal checklist has a deferred item, it is considered complete when the green banner at the bottom of the checklist is visible stating "CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS".
183
Regarding Takeoff Reference Speeds:
D. Both B and C.
B. "NO V SPD" is displayed next to the speed tape, if V speeds are not selected on the CDU.
C. V1 is displayed at the top of the airspeed indication when selected and the value is off the scale.
184
Where is the AUX Panel displayed?
C. The respective outboard DU.
185
The Electronic Checklist (ECL) can be displayed on:
D. Any MFD.
186
The ____ mode of the ND is recommended for most phases of flight.
B. MAP
187
The Pitch Limit Indication (eyebrows) on the PFD indicate:
A. Stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions.
188
What determines the checklist priority when the checklist display switch is pushed?
D. All of the above.
A. EICAS message level.
B. Air / Ground logic.
C. Fuel control switch position.
189
When will Radio Altitude indications first display on the PFD/HUD?
B. When the aircraft is below 2500 ft AGL.
190
Which of the following is not a major component of the ADRS?
D. FMC
191
How wide is the VSD LNAV corridor?
A. 2X the FMC RNP value.
192
L or R displayed to the left of the barometric setting on the PFD/HUD:
C. Indicates which EFIS panel barometric setting is used for reference by the AFDS.
193
If an EFIS control panel fails, is it still possible to control your displays, and if so, how?
A. Yes, using the EFIS/DSP system display function available via the SYS menu.
194
What is indicated by the landing altitude reference bar that is displayed on the inside edge of the altitude indication?
C. The reference bar indicates the FMC calculated height above touchdown for the destination runway.
195
When is the pitch limit indication displayed?
C. The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are not up or at slow speeds with the flaps up.
196
At the completion of a non-normal checklist a message appears at the bottom of the page which states:
D. A and C are correct.
A. Checklist Complete.
C. Checklist Complete Except For Deferred Items.
197
Regarding the HDG REF switch (with the switch in NORM) which of the following statements are correct.
D. All the above.
A. Heading references are magnetic north while below 82 degrees North.
B. Heading references are true north when above 82 degrees North.
C. Provides no reference for AFDS roll modes other then LNAV when above 82 degrees North.
198
A non-normal checklist containing deferred items is considered complete when:
B. All steps prior to the deferred items have been completed.
199
Pitot and static pressures are converted to digital outputs by:
D. Air data modules.
200
Upper Display control is normally available through the:
A. Respective upper DSP control panel.
201
When Autodrag is operating, how does it perform its function?
B. It deflects both ailerons downward simultaneously, and raises the two most outboard spoilers.
202
Which DU's will normally have MFD functionality?
C. Left and right inboard and lower DU’s.
203
Before takeoff, the EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND, may appear for what reason?
D. Both B and C are correct.
B. A nose gear transducer has failed.
C. The FMC computed green band range does not agree with the pressure transducer data.
204
In the Normal mode, what does Stall Protection do when it begins to function?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. It limits nose up trim at approximately minimum maneuvering speed.
B. It requires pilots to use significant continuous additional aft control pressure to maintain an airspeed below the minimum maneuvering speed.
205
With the autopilot engaged, use of either the Primary or alternate trim switches will ______?
C. Primary and Alternate trim switches are INHIBITED with the Autopilot engaged.
206
What is true about the Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM)?
D. Both B and C are correct.
B. It is only functional with flaps at 20 or greater.
C. It is used to improve approach attitudes and increase the nose gear ground contact margin during overspeed approaches.
207
When is flap load relief operational?
D. A and B are correct.
A. In Primary mode only.
B. When the flaps placard limits are exceeded, with flaps selected beyond flaps 5.
208
When does the Pregap function operate on the 787-9/10?
D. All of the above.
A. In the Secondary mode only.
B. When the flap handle is not Up.
C. When the airspeed is less than 240 knots.
209
When do the speedbrakes automatically retract?
D. all of the above are true.
A. In the air when either throttle is advanced 90% full travel.
B. On the ground, when either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range.
C. On the ground, if there is a transition to in the air.
210
After landing why are any applied automatic or manual rudder trim inputs zeroed?
A. So that that they do not provide a yaw command during the transition from air mode to ground mode.
211
In the Normal flight control mode, rudder trim or input is automatic under which of the following conditions?
D. Both A and C are correct.
A. During takeoff in crosswind or gusty conditions, or during engine failure.
C. On landing when there is reverse thrust asymmetry.
212
Why is Wheel to rudder cross tie not provided in the Normal flight control mode?
B. Because the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
213
When does the Auto drag function operate?
B. With flaps at 25 or 30, and the thrust levers at idle.
214
Which is a true statement concerning Tail Strike protection?
B. It is automatic, but a pilot can override its effect.
215
When is automated yaw and roll control for engine failure, crosswind, or turbulence, an integral part of the flight control system?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. Only in the Normal mode.
B. Only above 60 knots groundspeed, when on the ground.
216
What happens when a control wheel roll input causes the bank angle to exceed 35 degrees?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. The control wheel force attempts to roll the airplane back towards level flight, to less than 30 degrees of bank.
B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.
217
Which of the following functions are available in the Secondary Mode?
A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie.
218
The yaw control function for thrust asymmetry:
A. Is only available in the Normal flight control mode.
219
Which flight control surfaces are locked out during high-speed flight?
A. Ailerons.
220
If the flap placard speed is exceeded with flaps in the _____ position on the 787-8, or flaps in the _____ position for the 787-9/10, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate for the airspeed.
D. A and B are correct.
A. 15 through 30.
B. 10 through 30.
221
What is the function of the Wheel to Rudder Cross-tie?
B. In the secondary and direct flight control modes, it reduces maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
222
In flight, in the Normal flight control mode, with the autopilot Off, stepping on a rudder pedal causes the what response?
B. A sideslip maneuver is commanded, with the sideslip angle dependent on pedal displacement.
223
Which of the following are limitations on the use of speed brakes?
B. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.
224
When does the slat auto gap function activate on the 787-9/10?
D. All of the above MUST be present.
A. In the primary mode, with the slats in the middle position.
B. When the aircraft enters a high angle of attack.
C. Airspeed below 240 KIAS for the B787-9.
225
Some of the benefits of the fly-by-wire design are:
C. All of the above.
A. Enhanced handling qualities.
B. Reduced pilot workload.
226
What effect does a total failure of one of the hydraulic systems have on the spoilers.
C. Each spoiler pair is dedicated to the same hydraulic system, therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.
227
The ailerons are:
A. Locked out during high speed flight.
228
The autothrottles will not automatically engage to support stall protection when ______?
D. All of the above are correct.
A. When the Autothrottle Switches are both OFF.
B. During a descent in VNAV SPD, with a thrust FMA of HOLD.
C. When the pitch mode is FLCH or TOGA .
229
The autothrottles must be ______ to support stall protection.
C. Armed
230
If BOTH the L2 and R2 stabilizer control switches are placed to CUTOUT while in the NORMAL flight control mode:
D. Pitch trim is still available through the trim switches.
231
The stabilizer green band is calculated by:
B. The FMC using inputs of CG, and gross weight.
232
What are some characteristics of the Alternate Trim switches?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator.
B. They have priority over the primary trim switches, in all flight control modes.
233
In the NORMAL mode, pitch trim switches operate the trim in what manner?
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. On the ground, the stabilizer is positioned directly.
B. In flight, they signal the Primary Flight Computers to change the trim reference speed.
234
When the autopilot is not engaged, when is manual trimming necessary?
B. For airspeed changes.
235
During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at:
A. Approximately 60 knots.
236
Why is the B787 provided with an electrical flight control backup system?
B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.
237
After landing, the flight control system automatically self tests:
C. With flaps and speedbrakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts
238
With a total hydraulic failure, Pitch and Roll control is still available:
C. Electrically using the control wheel and either primary or alternate pitch trim.
239
The three modes of the Primary Flight Control System are:
Normal, Secondary, Direct
240
Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in which mode(s)?
D. A and C.
A. In Secondary Mode
C. In Direct mode
241
Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFC's), places the aircraft _____.
In the DIRECT mode
242
In the NORMAL flight control mode, yaw control attempts to maintain zero yaw rate due to engine failure when above _______.
B. 60kts groundspeed and aircraft on the ground.
243
How can the pilot place the aircraft into the SECONDARY flight control mode?
C. You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.
244
The flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode are _______.
D. Both A and B are correct.
A. Both controlled by the Flap handle
B. Operated separately either by hydraulic or electric motors, depending upon the failure that occurred.
245
In the Normal mode, primary flight control computers (PFC's) _______.
A. Monitors and provides envelope protection during manual flight.
246
When operating B787-9/10 with the slats in the SECONDARY mode and positioned to the fully extended position, if the airspeed exceeds 240 knots:
D. Both B and C.
B. LOAD RELIEF will be displayed on the EICAS.
C. The slats will retract to the middle position.
247
When the flaps and slats are in the PRIMARY mode, uncommanded motion will:
D. Both A and C are correct.
A. Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.
C. If the uncommanded motion continues in the Secondary mode, the respective system shuts down.
248
The autopilot is available in:
D. NORMAL flight control mode only.
249
The autopilot sends signals:
D. Answers B and C are correct.
B. Directly to the PFCs.
C. To the backdrive actuators.
250
The primary flight control system provides flight envelope protection in which mode(s)?
A. Normal Mode.
251
With flight controls operating in the direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are inoperative?
D. Primary flight computer (PFCs).
252
Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
A. Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.
253
When are all spoiler panels extend automatically?
D. All of the above are correct.
A. When armed, upon landing, when the main gear trucks un-tilt and both thrust levers are not in the takeoff range.
B. When not armed, on the ground, with groundspeed above 85 knots, and either thrust lever was previously in the takeoff range, and both thrust levers are then moved to idle.
C. When not armed, on the ground, when both thrust levers are moved to the the reverse idle detent.
254
With the flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode, if airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8 or 240 knots for the 787-9/10 with the slats fully extended, they retract to the _____ position.
C. Middle (Half position)
255
The flaps and slats are both driven:
D. Hydraulically in the PRIMARY mode only.
256
With a complete loss of flight control signaling, the ______ must be used to move the stabilizer.
C. Alternate pitch trim switches.
257
On the ground above 60kts groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by applying rudder input. This function is only available in ____.
A. The NORMAL flight control mode.
258
While taxiing, will hot brakes alone generate enough heat to trigger the Wheel Well Fire Warning.
A. No.
259
What provisions are there for testing the fire and overheat detection system?
C. The fire and overheat detection system has both manual and automatic fault testing.
260
Where is the fire extinguisher located in the lavatory?
B. Each lavatory has a fire extinguisher located beneath the sink area.
261
How is the lavatory fire extinguisher discharged.
C. Automatically by the heat generated by a waste bin fire.
262
How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the APU?
A. One
263
How many detector channels are there in each engine detector assembly?
B. Two
264
Smoke detection in the forward crew rest compartment will cause ____?
A. An EICAS caution message SMOKE REST UPR DR 1, and the Master Caution lights and beeper.
265
Which of the following occur when an engine fire switch is pulled?
D. All the above.
A. Arms the selected compartment extinguisher valve.
B. The associated engine anti-ice valve closes.
C. The associated engine-driven hydraulic pump depressurizes.
266
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the Cargo Compartment Fire Protection?
D. Both A and B.
A. The forward and aft cargo compartments are divided into three detection zones each.
B. Seven fire extinguisher bottles are shared by FWD and AFT cargo compartments.
267
EICAS fire warning messages will be removed:
A. Automatically, when the fire is no longer sensed.
268
What are the indications of a wheel well fire?
D. The fire warning bell, the red Master Warning lights, and the red EICAS warning message FIRE WHEEL WELL.
269
If smoke is detected in a lavatory, an aural alert sounds in the lavatory and in the cabin. In addition, ____.
D. Both B and C are true.
B. The EICAS Advisory message SMOKE LAVATORY appears.
C. The lavatory call light flashes and the master call light at the associated attendant station illuminates.
270
Arming the AFT Cargo Fire Arm switch ____?
D. Both A and B.
A. Shuts down the Lavatory / Galley vent fans.
B. Puts the Aft Equipment Cooling system into the override mode.
271
Which of the following areas have dual assembly / loop fire detection?
A. Engines, APU and Wheel Well.
272
When the cargo fire bottle discharge sequence is initiated:
C. The CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light illuminates when the first two extinguisher bottles begin to discharge.
273
Which of the following are indications of a cargo compartment fire.
D. Both A and C.
A. The master WARNING lights illuminate and the fire bell sounds.
C. The FIRE CARGO (FWD or AFT) fire warning light illuminates.
274
Which of the following are indication(s) of an engine fire?
D. All the above.
A. The fire bell sounds.
B. The master WARNING lights illuminate.
C. The engine FUEL CONTROL (L or R) switch fire warning light illuminates.
275
Placing the FWD cargo fire arm switch in the ARM position will:
A. Put the FWD equipment cooling system into the OVERRIDE mode.
276
Failure of a single channel of an engine fire detection assembly will:
C. Cause the system to switch to a single channel operation.
277
In regards to the hydraulic system, pulling an engine fire handle:
D. All of the above.
A. Will shut off fluid to the associated pump.
B. Depressurizes the engine driven pump.
C. Removes power from the thrust reverser isolation valve.
278
When the airplane is on the ground with both engines shut down, a fire signal from either APU fire loop will cause:
C. The APU to automatically shutdown and the fire bottle to discharge.
279
When inflight, and a fire is sensed, the CARGO FIRE protection system automatically discharges two bottles immediately. The remaining metered bottles discharge _______ minutes later.
D. 15
280
When an engine fire switch is pulled out, rotating the switch in either direction discharges how many extinguisher bottles into the associated engine.
B Only one Engine Fire Bottle.
281
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a lavatory fire?
D. Both A and C are correct.
A. The EICAS message SMOKE LAVATORY is displayed.
C. If smoke is detected, an aural alert sounds and the respective lavatory's call light illuminates.
282
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a wheel well fire?
A. There is NO built-in fire extinguishing system for the wheel well.
283
On the ground, if the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is armed, what happens when the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
C. Two rapid dump bottles and one metered bottle discharge into the forward cargo compartment.
284
What action should you take if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected?
A. Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch.
285
During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE 1 DISCH ENG message displayed on EICAS. What does this mean?
C. Fire bottle 1 has discharged or pressure is low.
286
During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE DISCH APU message displayed on EICAS. What does this mean?
A. The APU fire bottle pressure is low.
287
What happens when an APU fire is detected ?
B. The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.
288
What does pushing the FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switch (ARMED visible) do?
D. All of the above.
A. Arms all fire bottles and the selected compartment extinguisher valve.
B. Shuts down the respective cargo compartment heat.
C. Places the associated (fwd or aft) equipment cooling system into the override mode.
288
How many and what type of Cargo Fire bottles are installed on the 787?
C. 7 Halon; 2 rapid discharge and 5 metered flow bottles.
289
What are the indications on the flight deck when a cargo fire extinguisher bottle discharge is initiated?
D. All of the above.
A. The cargo fire discharge switch light illuminates amber when the first two extinguisher bottles begin to discharge.
B. The EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCH CARGO is displayed when the first two extinguisher bottles have completely discharged.
C. The CARGO FIRE FWD/AFT warning message is likely to remain after the fire is extinguished due to smoke in the cargo compartment.
290
When airspeed has reduced to TAMS (Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed), Flight deck indications are ____.
A. An aural warning of "AIRSPEED AIRSPEED" with an associated Master Warning.
291
How can a PILOT RESPONSE message be cleared?
A. The PILOT RESPONSE message can be cleared by pushing any control on any of the monitored systems or panels.
292
The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) is a part of which system?
D. The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) is a part of the weather radar system.
293
How is EGPWS terrain display information generated?
A. The terrain display information is generated from a database contained in the GPWS computer and correlated to the GPS position.
293
The terrain data on the ND is magenta when:
A. No terrain data is available.
294
Which statement about Memo Messages is true?
D. All the above.
A. Memo Messages are not considered crew alerts.
B. Memo Messages are displayed in white font on EICAS.
C. Memo Messages indicate the current state of certain aircraft systems.
295
When are the Fire Bell & Master Warning lights inhibited during takeoff?
B, At V1 or Vr (whichever occurs first), until 400' RA or 25 seconds after inhibit began, whichever occurs first.
296
What action is required to display the next page of STATUS messages when additional pages exist?
B. Select "NEXT PAGE" on the lower right corner of the Status Page.
297
Takeoff Configuration warnings are armed when the aircraft is on the ground and thrust is in the takeoff range on either engine. The Takeoff Configuration warnings are inhibited during takeoff at ________.
D. V1
297
An engine fire warning indication includes, a red light in the fire handle and fuel control switch, and _______.
D. A and C are correct.
A. An aural bell.
C. A Master Warning Light.
298
When should an engine be shut down in flight based on a STATUS message only.
B. NEVERRRRR, based only on a STATUS message.
299
Warning alerts, communication alerts, and memo messages:
A. Cannot be cleared by the Master WARNING/CAUTION Reset switches, or the Cancel/Recall switches.
299
Which of following warnings cannot be silenced by the MASTER WARNING / CAUTION reset switch:
D. All of the above.
A. Takeoff configuration.
B. Autopilot disconnect.
C. Landing configuration.
299
To cancel the autopilot disconnect aural alert:
B. Use the control yoke autopilot disconnect button.
300
Which of the following alert messages can be cleared by the CANCEL / RECALL switch?
A. Advisory alerts.
301
When Status messages are displayed on the MFD STATUS display page, what must be done before pushing from the gate to start engines, if any remain displayed.
A. The condition must be cleared by maintenance before pushing.
302
An overflow of messages in the EICAS message field is indicated by:
C. A page cue below the alert field.
303
Which of the following is true of an overspeed condition greater than VMO/MMO?
D. All the above.
A. The MASTER WARNING lights illuminate.
B. An EICAS Warning message OVERSPEED appears.
C. An aural warning siren sounds, and can be silenced by pushing the Master WARNING/CAUTION Reset switch.
304
When is testing of the Weather Radar and Predictive Windshear System by the flight crew required during preflight?
B. It is NEVER required.
305
When LAND 2 or LAND 3 are displayed, the master CAUTION lights and beeper for most messages are inhibited below _____ feet AGL.
A. 200
306
How should STATUS Messages be addressed in flight?
D. The flight crew should make an airplane logbook entry only.
307
The Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting feature includes a caution and warning alert. If neither pilot has terrain selected, how is the information supplied to the pilots.
D. All the above.
A. A caution terrain alert is initiated approximately 40 - 60 seconds from projected impact.
B. A warning terrain alert is initiated approximately 20 - 30 seconds from projected impact.
C. The terrain data is automatically displayed on the ND with the first alert.
308
During ground engine start, new caution and advisory alerts are inhibited from engine start switch engagement until:
D. A and B are correct.
A. The engine reaches idle RPM
B. After the start is aborted
309
A filled red square on a TCAS alert indicates:
A. A resolution advisory (RA).
310
Which of the following would remove a WINDSHEAR time critical warning?
B. Flying out of the windshear condition.
311
What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during takeoff?
B. The airplane should not be pressurized.
312
Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding Thrust Assymmetry Protection (TAP) automatic operation during an engine failure?
D. Answers A and B are correct.
A. Only functions in the Normal flight control mode.
B. Reduces thrust on the operating engine when airspeed is below V2 on takeoff or VREF on go-around.
313
When inflight with an engine failure, the Autostart system will attempt ____ .
A. Continuous restarts.
314
What is true regarding starting both engines simultaneously?
D. Answers A and B are correct.
A. It should not be attempted if only one APU generator is operating.
B. Starting both engines simultaneously reduces the a/c pack (CAC) restart time.
315
The APU is designed to be started with no fuel pumps operating in-flight at altitudes up to ____ ft.
B. 14,000
316
The APU battery is designed to support ____ consecutive start attempts.
A. 2
(then a 5 min cooling period)
317
What is the purpose or function of Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?
C. During single engine T/O or Go-Around, TAP may reduce thrust on the operating engine to maintain the required climb performance.
318
The minimum APU oil quantity needed for start is ___ quarts.
D. No required minimum quantity.
319
During takeoff, an engine failure may generate a time critical warning which will consist of the following:
D. All of the above.
A. An aural warning "Engine Fail".
B. Illumination of the Master Warning lights.
C. A PFD warning message of ENG FAIL.
320
Can both engines be started simultaneously?
C. Yes, if using both APU generators as the power source.
321
Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is only available when:
D. Both A and C.
A. The flight controls are operating in the Normal mode.
C. The EEC is in the normal or alternate mode.
322
What is the function of the ENG switch located on the Multi-function Display (MFD) selector?
A. Only to display or remove the secondary engine instruments.
323
When is the APU operating in the unattended mode?
A. On the ground, no engines starting or running.
324
When does the APU FAULT light illuminate?
D. All of the above.
A. APU Fire
B. Momentarily during start cycle self test
C. APU shutdown due to FAULT
325
How many starters are available to start the APU?
C. Two, electric only.
326
In the attended mode, which of the following faults do NOT cause the APU to shut down immediately:
D. High EGT, High Oil Temperature, Low Oil Pressure.
327
When does Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA) protect against asymmetrical power between engines?.
A. On the ground, thrust levers at idle.
328
During cruise flight, with the EECs operating in the normal mode, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen?
B. The engines will produce maximum rated thrust.
328
Which statement is TRUE concerning the alternate EEC mode?
A. If a fault occurs in the normal mode, control is automatically transferred to the alternate mode.
329
What does the "APU LIMIT" EICAS message mean?
A. An APU limit has been exceeded.
330
Select the correct statement(s) concerning the Engine Oil System (assuming normal operations).
D. Both A & B are correct.
A. There is no minimum oil quantity limit for operating the engine in flight.
B. On very cold days, thrust should not be advanced to takeoff thrust until the oil temperature gauge is above the minimum indication.
331
Which statement(s) are true of the Thrust Reverser System?
D. Both B and C.
B. When the reverse thrust levers are moved aft to the interlock position, the autothrottles disengage and the auto speedbrakes deploy (if not armed).
C. Pushing the reverse thrust levers to the full down position retracts the reversers to the stowed and locked position.
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Which statement is correct regarding APU operation?
B. Electrical power is available when at or below 43,100 ft.
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What effect will the thrust ramping feature have when setting T/O thrust levels?
D. Maximum T/O thrust may not be reached until 65kts IAS.
334
If the N2 redline is exceeded, the red color around the digital indication can be reset to white (if the exceeded parameter has returned to normal) by pushing:
B. The Cancel / Recall switch.
334
Both engine ignitors operate continuously when the:
C. Fuel control switch is in run and engine speed decays to below idle.
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The 787-9 GEnX engines are rated at:
A. 74,100 lbs T/O thrust.
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Moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to the CUTOFF position will close the fuel valves, removes ignitor power and:
A. Unlocks the fire switch.
337
While operating in the ATTENDED mode, the APU will not shut down for:
D. High EGT.
338
With the EEC switch in the ALTN position, thrust is set using:
C. N1 as the controlling parameter.
339
During engine start, placing a start/ignition selector to START ____ .
A. Opens the spar fuel valve.
340
Maximum rated thrust is available in any phase of flight by moving the thrust levers to the full forward position. The _____ provides N1 and N2 overspeed protection.
A. EEC.
340
On the ground, the engine autostart system will not attempt a second start after which of the following malfunctions?
D. All the above.
A. No N1 rotation.
B. No oil pressure rise.
C. Loss of both starter/generators.
341
The engine autostart system will make three start attempts before aborting the engine start sequence when:
B. On the ground.
341
The APU is operating in the attended mode when:
D. All the above.
A. Either engine is STARTING.
B. Either engine is Running.
C. The aircraft is in flight.
342
The reverse thrust levers can be raised only when:
C. On the ground with the forward thrust levers in the idle position.
343
How will a low oil quantity condition be displayed on EICAS?
A. Reverses the display to show black numbers on a white background.
BLACK NUMBERS on WHITE Background
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