T-1 MQF 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
An Operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ____?
A
Note
2
Q
If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.
A
False
3
Q
Once TCAS announces “clear of conflict”, the pilot should
A
expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.
4
Q
Failure to properly set the decision height (DH) could result in
A
nuisance warnings from the GPWS
5
Q
If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70 degree (approximate) compass segment
A
True
6
Q
The weather radar system detects ________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path
A
wet precipitation, +/- 60 degrees
7
Q
Due to weather radar system limitations, _____
A
do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather
8
Q
If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing.
A
True
9
Q
Avoid finger lift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding the throttle toward IDLE
A
true
10
Q
The weather radar system provides radar data for up to _______ NM
A
300
11
Q
If the antenna on the WX radar is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within ____ of aircraft heading
A
+/- 10 degrees
12
Q
Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded ending shutdown, however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at the time of failure or retard to to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at high power settings, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the engine shutdown during flight checklist in section III
A
True
13
Q
As oxygen cylinders become chilled, the pressure is reduced. A temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce the pressure 20%. If the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, ______
A
an oxygen leak should be suspected
14
Q
In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased Fuel Flow could result in engine cooling.
A
False
15
Q
After flushing the lavatory, _____ to prevent contents from overflowing
A
leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch
16
Q
If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute is required.
A
False
17
Q
Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.
A
False
18
Q
During cross-side operations, pilots should cross-check ______ with other reliable instruments
A
All of the above (Position, attitude and altitude)
19
Q
Asterisk (*) items in the checklist
A
need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day
20
Q
While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attentions hold be given to detect fluid leakage
A
true
21
Q
The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle
A
False
22
Q
Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door in flight
A
True
23
Q
During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system
A
True
24
Q
How many circuit breaker panels are in the aft compartment that are required to be checked?
A
3
25
The entrance door must be closed and locked prior to starting interior inspection
False
26
With respect to the door locking pins, ______ or the door may open in flight
all eight must be white
27
If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted
True
28
An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight
True
29
Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin will
All of the above (Make hatch inoperable from the outside, inside and delay emergency ground egress form the escape hatch)
30
To test the AHRS battery
A & B (Hold for five seconds, and check the AHRS BATT TEST annunciator momentarily illuminates)
31
After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to "EMER", check for operation of ___________
RTU #1
32
When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _______ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements
1,000
33
Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________
could damage the threads or needle valve seat
34
When the battery fee test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for
A & B (FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated, STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated)
35
Landing with brakes applied could result in
All of the above (Blown tires, potential runway departure, damage to the aircraft)
36
The H STAB DEICE TEST position will
B & C (Check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions, allies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six)
37
When checking the stall warning system ______
A & B (the master test switch must remain in the L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice, check hat the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication)
38
When testing the indicator lights, the flowing lights do not illuminate
All of the Above (red landing gear unlocked indicator, starter DISENGAGE button, and ENG START buttons)
39
When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate
twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7
40
After selecting the left tank during the fuel cross feed check, these lights will illuminate
Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
41
When running the pitch or roll trim switch for ______ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate.
5
42
During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physicaly check the flight controls.
True
43
If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the seconds engine until the first engine's load meter reads below ______ amps
150
44
For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at idle
True
45
The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position
3
46
While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test
True
47
Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ________
horizontal stabilizer
48
If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact
True
49
Do not operate entine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above ______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT
10
50
An external power cart is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below
5 degrees F
51
When checking wing and engine anti-ice in the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, the throttles should be set at a minimum of _____ to ensure that the wing anti-ice valve is open.
70 % N2
52
When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps ______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of ice being cast off from the tires
retracted
53
An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is
Caution
54
During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of ____ minutes behind a large type aircraft. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced
2, 5
55
For a wake turbulence takeoff
a crosswind over 5 knots may reduce the required interval
56
After the gear is retracted on a a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of _____ until reaching _______ feet above field elevation
Vco + 10, 400
57
When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of _____ degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to _____ degrees.
15; 10; 30
58
During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position
True
59
For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at
LOW
60
Ignition switches should be turned to the ON position when __________.
b and c (turbulence and visible precipitation; takeoffs, approaches, and landings)
61
During the cruise check a temperature drop of ______F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%
100, 20
62
Manual damping of dutch roll may be required in takeoff and landing (when the yaw damper is off) or in the event of a yaw damper failure. Manual damping of dutch roll is best accomplished...
with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation
63
Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at ______, enroute descent is flown at ______ and rapid descent is flown at _______
230, 250, 330
64
Maximum range descent is _________.
Idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 feet, 230 KIAS below 35,900 feet
65
During preflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve _____
is acceptable
66
Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear
False
67
Use of stabilizer trim for round out in the flare could induce strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted
True
68
In the event of a suspected hard landing:
A & B (Make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed and RA/VSI, gear should remain down and the mission terminated
69
Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ________ KIAS
6
70
The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to __________ knots indicated airspeed. higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.
200
71
The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.
True
72
Failure to properly reset the trim can result in
All of the Above (Lower than normal yoke forces, over rotation and higher than normal yoke forces)
73
Which of the following is true concerning the stall characteristics of the T-1A?
The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes
74
Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously
False
75
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway
do not retract flaps beyond 10 degrees
76
If the parking brake is set from the copilots side
A & C (binding could affect normal braking action from the pilot's side at a later time., temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur)
77
During cross feed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi
False
78
If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.
True
79
If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed,
The takeoff should be continued
80
If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected
False
81
Which statements(s) are true?
A & B (Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots), Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables)
82
If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of cross feed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected
True
83
The base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended. Use caution when using this exit
True
84
With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker
85
If UHF guard mode was on when the dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available
True
86
Using the engine fire switch lights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve
True
87
Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?
A & B (turns off the squelch, returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure
88
NAV auto tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position
True
89
In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?
Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
90
Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to ______
A & C (400 ft AGL, clear of obstructions)
91
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time
False
92
Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties
True
93
If a spin is entered:
simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control
94
During a starter assisted airstart, a relight should normal be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle
10
95
During a windmilling airstart, should the temperature rise indicate a hot start, place the throttle to CUTOFF and windmill the engine for __________ seconds before attempting another start
30
96
On V-MDA type approaches, the FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try to comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach
True
97
During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement
True
98
The switch light in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _________ on the respective engine
A & B (main fuel line shutoff valve, hydraulic valve)
99
The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.
False
100
Rudder boost is provided bye the rudder servo of the autopilot.
True
101
In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the battery switch to EMER causes the battery to power the
All of the above (emergency bus, standby battery, standby bus)
102
During the SMOKE AND FUMES IN AIRCRAFT checklist, the bleed air source selector must remain in each position long enough (approximately _______ seconds) to allow adequate system purging to determine the source of smoke.
20
103
With oil pressure below ______, execute engine shutdown during flight checklist.
40 psi
104
If high oil temperature is experienced, _______
increase affected engine throttle within N1 limits
105
While trying to eliminate smoke or fumes from the inside of the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of
12,500 +/- 1,500
106
Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed _______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling field through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than ____ minutes
121 degrees C, 135 degrees C, 121 degrees C, 15
107
If you have an EFC failure
matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause over boosting of the other engine
108
If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filters is purifying the fuel to the engine
False
109
Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately ____ pounds of fuel remains in the respective tank
200
110
If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.
True
111
If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by ______ % N2, press the starter disengage button.
45
112
Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position
True
113
An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life is not carefully followed is a _____
Warning
114
Ground fault protection is provided by the ________
Battery protection circuits
115
Air entering the cabin or pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.
True
116
In the event of a bleed air duct failure annunciator illumination, if the wing anti-ice switch was in use, subsequently turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.
True
117
If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically
True
118
If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes upend landing, ___________
Place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot's and copilot's position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.
119
The emergency descent procedure is a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment
True
120
To execute an emergency descent
All of the above (you man use up to 45 degrees angle of bank to aid in lowering the nose, lower the nose to approximately 20 degrees, and accelerate to 330 KIAS or 0.78 MACH whichever is slower
121
The maximum zero fuel weight is
13,000 pounds
122
During a controllability check, the aircraft speed must be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight in order to properly evaluate handling characteristics at slow speeds
False
123
Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees
True
124
When executing a forced landing without power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction
False
125
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system.
False
126
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker.
True
127
Electrical loads up to ______ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500
280
128
If operating below 32,500 feet, single generator operations load capacity is ______ amps
400
129
Partial failure of the electrical system may necessitate degrading electrical systems to reduce electrical loads imposed on the operating generator
True
130
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, all electrical power except the items on the emergency bus and DC standby bus are lost. Which of the following will NOT occur?
Both normal and emergency pitch trim will be lost
131
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, the engine anti-ice valves will ______.
open
132
During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.
True
133
The BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the overhead panel illuminates with any of three possible malfunctions. Which statement is correct in its entirety?
If the light is accompanied by only the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator, check the EMER BUS FDR circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has tripped and will not reset, subsequent loss of the left load buss will result in loss of the emergency bus
134
When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery _____________ and ___________
relay is open; battery charging will not occur
135
Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators
True
136
Which of the following will cause the BATTERY FDR FAIL lift on the overhead panel to illuminate?
Failure of the emergency bus feeder
137
When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery ________
relay is open
138
Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than _____ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ feet per minute
15, 500
139
Under windshear approach procedures, reference groundspeed is computed by ________ the surface headwind component (or __________ the tailwind component) from approach true airspeed
subtracting, adding
140
An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below ____°F.
5
141
If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as he/she stays strapped in.
False
142
The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that
a or b ( the cabin door pins are not fully seated, the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked.
143
The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the
cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 +/- 500 feet
144
The flight crew will make all necessary entries in AFTO 781 to indicate when any limitations have been exceeded. Entries shall include...
All the above (Time interval, instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded, amount and duration of an overtemperature)
145
Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 10 degrees Celsius.
True
146
The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for all landings.
False
147
With respect to brake energy limitations, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes in stopping the aircraft within a given stopping distance, regardless of whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or in a series of short applications
True
148
Maximum Braking Speed is the brake application speed from which the aircraft may be brought to a full stop without exceeding the energy absorption capability of the brakes. This energy absorption corresponds to the fuse plug brake energy, ________ million FT-LB per brake
4.05
149
When _____ million foot pounds are absorbed, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires
8.1
150
If hot brakes are suspected
All of the above (aircraft shouldn't be taxied any more than necessary to clear the active rwy, shouldn't be maneuvered into a crowded parking area, and parking brake shouldn't be set, don't approach brakes for half an hour)
151
The thermal fused screws are designed to soften and blow out, releasing air pressure in the tires when the temperature reaches approximately _______° F
430
152
Takeoffs are permitted with partial wing fuel and fuel in the fuselage tanks
False
153
If a thunderstorm or turbulence cannot be avoided, adjust power to establish a speed of ____ KIAS or _____ Mach.
200, 0.58
154
During stall recoveries, placing the control column forward of neutral may:
result in accelerations below 0 g, exceeding the aircraft acceleration limit with flaps extended
155
A difference of ______ knots or more indicates the presence of significant severe windshear and should be avoided
15
156
Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems:
All of the above (Mach/airspeed indicator, RA/VSI, Altimeters)
157
Apply ______% of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb, and take-off ground run and zero wind climbout factor.
150
158
After checking flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces.
True
159
The total energy absorbed by the brakes assumes equal distribution between left and right brakes. Uneven toe pressure or numerous turns in the same direction can cause one side to absorb more energy than the other. As a result, thermal fuse plug release may occur prior to 8.1 million foot-pounds.
True
160
If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged
False
161
The pilot flying must announce to the crew when the autopilot is engaged or disengaged
True
162
Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft
False
163
In the case of exceeding an aircraft limitation, you must annotate the _____ in the AFTO Form 781.
A & B (Time interval the aircraft limit was exceeded, instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded)
164
A PIC may only deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3, flight rule, ATC clearance:
All of the above (An inflight emergency requires immediate action, to protect lives, for safety of flight)
165
Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 8 degrees Celsius.
False
166
In the absence of MAJCOM-defined consumption rates, when computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for
best endurance at 10,000 feet
167
Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are responsible for avoiding:
all the above (traffic, terrain/obstacles, environmental hazards)
168
Do not turn after a takeoff until at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless
Both A and C above (safety dictates otherwise, specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure)
169
When the "ANTI-SKID FAIL" caution annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode.
True
170
The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for al landings.
False
171
If operationally necessary, AETC/A3 authorizes the PIC to ensure aircraft vertically clears all obstacles along the missed approach path OEI by subtracting up to ____ feet per NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient.
48
172
USAF fixed-wing aircraft must be flown under IFR to the maximum extent practical and shall fly under IFR if:
All of the above (weather conditions don't permit VFR flight, airspace rules require IFR (Class A), operating >180 kts within federal airways, fixed wing at night)
173
An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than
b and c above (2000' / 3, reduced to 1500' / 3 with two or more suitable independent precision approaches)
174
If operationally necessary, AETC/A3 authorizes the operations supervisor (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) to ensure the aircraft vertically clears all obstacles along the planned departure path OEI by subtracting up to ____ feet per NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient
48
175
During ground aborts within a given stopping distance, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or a series of short applications.
True
176
For fixed wing aircraft, the worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain, or snow showers) will meet or exceed the highest of
all the above (1000' / 2, +500, +1 sm)
177
Which of the following conditions does not disqualify an alternate?
all compatible approaches at the alternate require the use of GNSS and planning to the destination was based on the use of traditional ground based NAVAIDs
178
AETC/A3 authorizes AETC fixed wing multi-engine aircraft to depart VFR even if they do not meet published IFR departure climb gradients with one engine inoperative. The PIC will
a and b above ( complete a thorough review of the planned departure track, ensure terrain and obstacle clearance)
179
If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, AETC/A3 authorizes a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure. A VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure is to be used when?
a and b (as a last resort, when the mission priority justifies the increased risk)
180
For cold weather altitude corrections, add the values derived from the FIH temperature correction chart to the published procedure altitudes and advise ATC if any applied correction exceeds _____ feet.
80
181
Maximum Braking Speed is the maximum sped from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit (______ million foot pounds total)
14.8
182
When ______ million foot pounds of brake energy are absorbed per brake, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires
4.05
183
What should you do if braking effort puts you between the 8.1 million and 14.8 million foot-pounds range on the brake energy limits chart?
All of the above (This should be regarded as hot brakes, park the aircraft, shut down engines)
184
What mud you do if you suspect hot brakes
All of the above (taxi only as necessary to clear the active runway, do not set the parking brake, do not approach the hot brakes for 30 minutes)
185
Allowable asymmetric fuel conditions are:
B & C (300 pounds imbalance for al phases of flight except takeoffs, 100 pound imbalance between wings for takeoff and touch and goes)
186
For practice approach to stalls, what power setting should be used to recover?
MCT
187
Wing commander approval is the lowest approval authority required to perform practice instrument approaches under VFR
False
188
During stall recoveries, fly the aircraft
B & C (just prior to the stick shaker, at approximately 0.8 to 0.85 AOA)
189
During windshear recovery the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick shaker.
True
190
Using the 70 degree method for holding, if the inbound holding course is not within 70° of the aircraft heading:
Both B and C above (turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course, if this turn places you on the non-holding side, parallel or intercept holding course inbound)
191
Accumulations of 1/2 inch of ice can add ______ pounds or more to the aircraft gross weight
500
192
Apply _____ % of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb and take-off distance
150
193
For radar vector weather requirements, when the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course as follows:
All of the above (at least 1 mile before the FAF at an intercept of 20 degrees, or 3 miles before FAF at 30 degrees, at other times at least 3 miles at a max angle of 30 degrees)
194
Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseology “Descend Via” shall inform ATC upon initial contact with a new frequency:
True
195
After heckling flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces.
True
196
The weather radar system will always detect volcanic dust
False
197
Take-of rated thrust is the maximum allowable thrust (determined by %N1) and varies with
All of the above (pressure altitude, ram air temperature, engine bleed)
198
Increase approach speed and touchdown speed by 50% of the use increment, not to exceed a _____ knot correction.
10
199
Variation between the charted and computed final approach course should be no more than _____ degrees. If the two differ by more than _____ degrees, the procedure is not authorized
5, 5
200
Vmcg is _____ KIAS, and is the minimum speed which (with one engine failed) will allow directional control without deviating more than _____ feet laterally
88,25
201
If you are more than one dot below or two dots above glue slope on an ILS, you
either a or c above (should not descend below localizer minimums, may continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured)
202
Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to __________
Personnel movement within the cabin area
203
Noise cancelling headsets are approved for use in the T-1
False
204
Receipt of only bearing or only DME while flying a TACAN approach indicates a malfunctioning TACAN. If backup timing is published, it is permissible to use the timing to replace DME
False
205
Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when
All of the above (An inflight emergency requires mediate, deviation is necessary to protect lives, when safety of flight dictates)
206
When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel
need not include the fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the original destination
207
When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for
Maximum endurance at 10,000 feet
208
Normally, an aircraft having the right of way will maintain its course and speed. However, if the danger of a collision exists, all pilots must:
take the necessary action to avoid collision
209
On climb out after takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, you may not begin a turn to heading until past the departure end of the runway (if visible), at least 400 feet AGL, and nat a safe airspeed unless
Both A and C above (safety dictates otherwise, specifically cleared by the controlling agency or local procedures authorize it)
210
Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _____ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots ______ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFR from an airport within Class B airspace, _____ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC
10,000; must; obtain
211
Thunderstorms are responsible for two out of every three windshear events and are also often responsible for the most hazardous form of windshear, the microburst..
True
212
For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above _____ KIAS and below ______ KIAS and above ____ feet AGL.
130, 270, 5000'
213
When the "ANTI-SKID FAIL" annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid braking is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode.
True
214
Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before _________.
Runway Threshold
215
Operational check flights may be performed during student training sorties if the checks do not interfere with the training objectives.
True
216
On taxi, when obstacles affect only one wingtip, the marshaller may also act as the wing walker and direct the aircraft while monitoring the affected wingtip. This requirement does not apply at the home station when fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of ____ feet of wingtip clearance from obstacles and other aircraft.
10
217
The minimum weather to file VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and ______ statute miles visibility
1,500, 3
218
USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when
All of the above (operating in class A airspace, operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways, operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR)
219
Aerobatics is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ________ degrees
90
220
Single engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited (simulated or actual)
True
221
Minimum runway length restrictions may be waived on a case by case basis by the _______________.
Operations Group Commander
222
If a Form F requires fuel to remain in the tank in order to keep the aircraft within CG limits under certain crew or cargo complements, crews may plan on utilizing this fuel for the planned sortie
False
223
The control and performance concept procedural steps are (in order):
establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, crosscheck, adjust
224
Aircrew members must wear approved flight gloves during
a and c (external aircraft inspection, aircraft servicing)
225
In the event a formation is unable to maintain VMC while aborting a low level, lead will direct the route abort, giving base heading and ERAA at a minimum. Lead will set _____ and initiate a climb to ERAA at ______KIAS (unless otherwise briefed). The wingman will set ______, initiate a climb at ______ KIAS (unless otherwise briefed) to ERAA plus 1,0000 feet. While executing the climb, wingman will ensure lateral separation (wingman will normally execute lost wingman procedures while executing the climb to the directed altitude). Once obstacle clearance is assured, the wingman may set power as required to attain ______ mile spacing. WARNING: The wingman is responsible for avoiding obstacles while performing the lost wingman procedure.
MCT, 250, MCT, 220, 1
226
Water droplets in the free air, unlike bulk water, do not freeze at 0 degrees C. Instead, their freezing temperature varies from -10 to -40 degrees C. The smaller the droplets, the lower the freezing point. As a general rule, serious icing is rare in clouds with temperatures below -20 degrees C since these clouds are almost completely composed of ice crystals.
True
227
As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should be approximate -_____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _________
The number of degrees to be turned, 30 degrees.
228
Absence of an ILS identifier:
indicates an unreliable signal
229
Simulated single engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least _____ feet and _____ statute miles (SM) or circling minimums, whichever is greater.
2,000; 3
230
Reliable DME signals may be received at distances put o 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of _____ mile or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.
1/2, 3
231
The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP
10
232
Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored
True
233
When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes
Homing
234
If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately rolling the letter "G" (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or ______ speed
peak wind
235
The weather requirements for USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace are
3 miles vis, clear of clouds
236
Regarding VFR operations within class C airspace, pilot participation within the _____ nm outer area is ________. If class C radar services provided in the outer area are discontinued either through pilot request or ATC workload does not permit, USAF crews _____ continue to monitor the appropriate ATC frequency
20; voluntary; should
237
When does the wingman maneuver to the stack level position for a formation tactical overhead pattern entry?
Initial
238
Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft
A & C (A loud report will be audible, engine restart is not possible)
239
When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _______ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _______ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc
5, 10
240
When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is _____ feet
75
241
Discoloration, crazing, or scratches will weaken the structural strength of the windows
False
242
Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent
False
243
The green overboard oxygen discharge indicator on the right side of the nose section, provides a visual indication when an overpressure condition has existed in the oxygen cylinder. When the blowout disk is missing, the entire oxygen supply has been vented overboard. Thermal expansion will cause the disc to blow out when the pressure in the oxygen cylinder reaches approximately _____.
2700 psi
244
Which is a correct standard holding pattern,
Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet
245
Emergency braking has anti-skid protection
False
246
ATC should issue holding instructions at least ________ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within _____ minutes or reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not be received, reduce to holding airspeed
5, 3
247
During formation flight the wingman loses sight of lead in VMC. The wingman will:
all the above (call "blind" and state altitude, follow lead's instructions to ensure positive altitude separation, maneuver away from lead's last known position)
248
Alternate air refueling rendezvous procedures in order of precedence are primary _____, Secondary ______, tertiary _____
Use the computed backup timing; receiver calls miles from the ARCP (off FMS) every 2 NM;, Receiver calls DME off the NAVAID defining the ARIP/ARCP line every 2 NM (if applicable)
249
If the holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):
Both B and C above (turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course, if this turn places you on the non-holding side, parallel or intercept holding course inbound)
250
During an enroute descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:
maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach
251
Prior to the IAF you must
All of the above (recheck the weather, review the IAP, check the heading and attitude systems, obtain clearance for the approach)
252
while being vectored, repeat:
All of the above (all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), all altimeter settings)
253
Wen flying a non-DME high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published:
maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft tis below the published altitude before starting the descent.
254
Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G airspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _____ MSL. At and above this is class _ Airspace
14,500'; E
255
Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings in the aircraft
True
256
As a technique, if the receiver is less than ______ of the computed turn range (half-way through the turn) or the bearing pointer is below the ______ degree index, an overrun can be expected.
1/3; 45
257
During cell, lead will fly ______ KIAS
220
258
The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from
the procedure turn fix
259
The parking brake should not be set
All of the above (if the brakes are hot, during low temperatures, when a accumulation of moisture is present, using the copilots brake pedals)
260
The localizer has a usable range of at least ______ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline
18
261
The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as _____ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach
30
262
If you a re more than one dot below or two dots above glue slope on an ILS, you
either a or c above (should not descend below localizer minimums, may continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured
263
In the event of flap system malfunction, the FLAP circuit breaker hold be pulled to prevent further flap actuation due to air loads or switch contact proximity
True
264
T F Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft
True
265
Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT except for preflight check
10
266
Students in formal flying training programs do not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day, unless authorized in the applicable syllabus.
True
267
Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. The worst situation would occur if a 199-foot obstacle sat on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC (1:500,000) with a contour interval of 5000 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain.
True
268
Many items are required by aircrew to be considered Mission Ready. Out of those items listed below, which of the following must have been accomplished and/or maintained?
All the above (completion of initial and mission qual along with proficiency, a flight physical and egress training, instrument refresher and CRM training)
269
When throttles are advanced to _____ on the ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 to 120 foot differential
takeoff position
270
Aircrew members that fail to complete their semiannual CT requirements for the half are allowed to fly in Mission Ready status in the new period. This is because the Operations Group Commander has no need to review, waive, or assign additional training to the offending aircrew member. Furthermore there is no need to document anything in the individual’s training folder.
false
271
Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace
Both A and B (Pilots must be in two-way communication with ATC, Unless otherwise authorized, when within 4 NM of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL do not exceed 200 KIAS
272
The cabin is manually depressurized in case of an emergency by turning the control counterclockwise _____ complete revolutions. This proportionately vents the outflow safety valve’s control chambers and when the outflow safety valves open, depressurizing the cabin to a maximum of _________ feet
7; 12,500 +/- 1500
273
Out of the answers listed below, what “other” conditions require an alternate?
All of the above (all approaches require radar, required navaids are unmonitored, A N/A, winds out of limits +/- 1 hr of ETA)
274
Out of the answers listed below, what conditions disqualify an alternate?
a and b (any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section, all compatible approaches at destination and alternate require use of GNSS)
275
Declare “minimum fuel” or “emergency fuel” to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves.
True
276
In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost _____
A & C (flap asymmetry detection is not available, the flap position indicator will be inoperative)
277
Before takeoff or while airborne, changes may be made to the original filed flight plan with re-filing provided:
All of the above (The change ors not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight, the change complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area)
278
For operations on published RNAV routes (Q or T routes), if RNAV routes cannot be retrieved from the database, selecting and inserting ALL of the named fixes from the database is permitted
True
279
Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is _______
4 degrees F, decreasing
280
Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are relieved of their responsibility for avoiding traffic, terrain/obstacles, and environmental hazards.
False
281
Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC.
False
282
Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within _____ hours prior to _____ or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
12; takeoff
283
If utilizing an RNAV system on a conventional route or procedure, it is permissible to retrieve all NAVAIDs, fixes, and procedures from an expired database provided you can verify with current FLIP.
False
284
Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible to sense and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles
True
285
Aircrew have the requirement to tune, identify, monitor and _____ the appropriate ground-based NAVAID whenever practicable.
display
286
VFR-over-the-top is:
when an aircraft on a VFR flight plan that departs and climbs over the clouds in VMC, maintains VMC above the clouds, then descends in VMC and lands.
287
VFR-on-top is:
is ATC authorization for an aircraft on an IFR clearance to operate at VFR altitudes of their choice in VMC
288
If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used.
False
289
The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice and de-ice systems must operate together. Should either system fail, both must be turned off.
True
290
For VFR operations within the Outer Area adjacent to Class C airspace, participation of radar services is:
a and c, strongly encouraged, can be discontinued at pilot request
291
Prior to entering Class C airspace when operating under VFR, pilots must be in two way radio communication with ATC. What constitutes this “two-way” radio communication requirement?
ATC including the aircraft’s call sign in the radio call.
292
If the Manual Deice (Backup) switch for the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice system is held in the MANUAL position longer than momentarily, power to the gap heater elements will be maintained for more than ______ and overheating could result.
30 seconds
293
With respect to manual deice operation, to avoid damage to the electrothermal heating elements in the mats, manual mode must not be used for deicing on the ground due to:
potential overheating with insufficient airflow for cooling
294
The air data systems anti-ice heaters are powered separately for the pilot and copilot systems from the left and right overhead bus respectively
True
295
Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT except for preflight check.
10
296
Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems:
all the above (MSI, RA/VSI, altimeters)
297
Before flying under VFR, USAF pilots must brief actions to be taken in the event of inadvertent penetration of IMC. If IMC is encountered while flying under VFR, USAF pilots will ______.
make every effort to maintain VMC
298
Use of the high heat mode of the windshield is authorized during takeoff and landing
False
299
magnetic compass is unreliable when windshield heat is set to HIGH, and when the side window defog heater/blower units are operating.
True
300
When taking off with engine anti-ice on, in all cases aircrew set the throttles to the TRT calculated based on the:
actual runway conditions, not based on the 400 or 1,500 feet AGL higher deconfiguration altitude
301
USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000') or G (below 10,000') airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ______ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds and _____ feet horizontal.
3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
302
Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _____ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots ______ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFFR from an airport within Class B airspace, _____ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC
10,000; must; obtain
303
T F For frost to form, the dew point of the surrounding air must be colder than freezing
True
304
For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above _____ KIAS and below ______ KIAS
130, 270
305
When conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority to allow units to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply?
All of the above (Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities, terminal radar service shall be used when available, aircrews must make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217 Vol 2, pilots must request ATC authorization to fly the published missed approach)
306
USAF aircraft flying in FAA class C and D airspace must have a prevailing or flight viability of _____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _____ feet horizontal.
3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
307
Operation system checks will only be performed during student training sorties on a non-interference basis
True
308
Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless using a marshaller in injunction with a wing walker at the affected wingtip. Never taxi within ____ feet of any obstacle.
25, 10
309
The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is _________
6,000 feet, critical field length, or distance required to reach reference zero, whichever is greater
310
What will cause the speed brakes to automatically retract?
A or B above (Flap extension beyond the 10 degree position, either throttle advance to approximately the "NORM T.O." position)
311
The minimum runway length for full-stop landings is _____
6,0000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater
312
Single engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited
True
313
Minimum runway length restrictions and operations where runway available is less than critical field length may be waived by the
Operations Group Commander
314
Declare minimum fuel as soon as it can be determined that your fuel at touchdown will be less than _____ pounds
500
315
For student syllabus sorties, minimum briefing times are determined IAW the syllabus. For all other sorties, the minimum brief time will be _____ prior to scheduled takeoff. The aircraft command will determine briefing requirements for off-station sorties.
1 hour and 30 minutes
316
Electronic flight bags are authorized
False
317
Failure to set the proper AOA value
may cause erroneous on-speed indications
318
T F Liquid water droplets can be observed in the atmosphere at temperatures much lower than the freezing point
True
319
The secondary flight controls are
All of the above (flaps, speed brakes, all trim systems, A and C above)
320
Maintain a minimum of ____ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing in daytime
150
321
Simulated single engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least _____ feet and _____ statute miles (SM) or circling minimums, whichever is greater. Visual or instrument glide path guidance (including global positions system (GPS) vertical navigation received from a published area navigation (RNAV) instrument approach) must be available and used for all off-station night landings
2,000; 3
322
Aircrew will fly a minimum of _____ feet above the highest unseen obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft. Once the obstacle is visually acquired, aircrews will fly a minimum of _____ feet above, or laterally void the obstacle by a minimum of _____ feet.
500; 2; 500; 2000
323
Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order):
Local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station.
324
When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from
an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS)
325
Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north
True
326
If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately rolling the letter "G" (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or ______ speed
peak eind
327
USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____ statute miles and be ______ below clouds, _____ above clouds and _____ horizontal
3 miles vis, clear of clouds
328
Class E Airspace (controlled) exists at _____ AGL unless designated otherwise. The lateral and vertical limits of Class E Airspace up to but not including 18,000 are shown by ______ on sectionals and TACs, magenta for 700' and blue for 1200' or other altitudes
1200', narrow bands of vignette
329
Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting P5000FT, this means
RVR is greater than 5,000 feet
330
Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft
A & C (A loud bang will be audible, engine restart is not possible)
331
The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section
True
332
You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution
True
333
Discoloration or crazing will weaken the structural strength of the windows
False
334
During _____, to avoid obscuring visibility, the sun visors must be in the stowed position
A & B (Takeoff, Landing)
335
Cabin window shades are to be open for ________
Takeoff and landing
336
For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment.
False
337
All checklist items are to be read and the individual responsible for each item must reply with the appropriate response
True
338
During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required
True
339
Do not perform the after landing checklist until the aircraft is ____
clear of the active runway
340
Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on ____, the PF sets ____ and they memorize ____ if different than S1
S1, Vco, Vrot
341
Cross-check your ____ and ____ as the primary references for VFR recoveries, and general area orientation.
chart, area landmarks
342
Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft
True
343
Before starting traffic pattern stalls, set the yaw damper to off, set the AOA indexer to 1.3, set the proper approach speed on the airspeed indicator, compute and set the appropriate N1, and clear the area
True
344
Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering or configuration
True
345
When accomplishing rectangular patterns, fly the base turn to arrive at a ____ to _____ mile final
1, 1.5
346
Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G aAirspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _____ MSL. At and above this is class E Airspace, excluding the airspace less than _____ above the terrain and certain special use airspace areas.
14,500'; 1,500'
347
Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings int eh aircraft
True
348
When receiving your clearance from clearance delivery, you are informed that you are cleared as filed. This means the routes and altitudes in your flight plan have been approved
False
349
On final, tower clears you for the option. This means that you may
Any of the above (touch and go, full stop, low approach)
350
Class A airspace extends from ______ MSL to FL _______
18,000, 600
351
Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches?
Circling
352
When cleared for a descent at the pilot's discretion, you may temporarily level off at any intermediary altitude; however, once that altitude is vacated, you may not return to that altitude.
True
353
When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed +/- ______ knots or +/- ______ Mach.
10, 0.02
354
On a sectional or TAC, Class B airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.
Solid blue lines, solid blue numbers
355
On a Sectional or TAC, Class C Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in ______ indicating hundreds of feet
solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers
356
On a sectional or TAC, Class D Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating the lateral confines of the airspace, with the ceiling of the airspace depicted in ______
dashed blue lines, blue dashed-boxed numbers
357
On a sectional or TAC, Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are depicted by _______ indicating the various sectors within the area, with ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.
screened black lines, solid black numbers
358
Normally, students will not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day
True
359
CAP's objective is to focus supervisory attention on a student's progress in training, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.
True
360
Operation of the engines with the EFCs off has no effect on the engine, as long as TRT is not exceeded
False
361
When throttles are advanced to _____ on he ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 o 120 foot differential
takeoff position
362
On a Sectional or TAC, airports depicted in ____ have control towers, while all those depicted in _____ do not
blue, magenta
363
Verbal coordination between the pilot flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when control of the aircraft is transferred, repositioning fuel control switches (other than preflight checks), a crew member leaves position or goes On or Off inter phone, a crew member goes On or Off oxygen, any electrical power source is changed (other than preflight checks), the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, the PF intends to perform any critical maneuver - takeoff or abort, landing, go-around or touch and go
True
364
When using the manual pressurization control, you should raise agin pressure
slowly, to prevent injury to the ears
365
PICS will ensure that the current copies of _____ are on board the aircraft
All of the above (FLIP en route supplement and enroute charts, FIH, Appropriate arrival, approach and departure procedures)
366
For stopover flights, the PIC will
A & B (Ensure the entire flight is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for the first leg of the flight, obtain the latest weather and NOTAM information available for the intended route, destination and alternate before departing each intermediate stop.
367
When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve.
True
368
During night flight, each crew member must have an operable flashlight
True
369
A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:
All of the above (The change ors not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight, the PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change, the chafe complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area)
370
If departing from a nonmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with
A or B (FSS, ATC facility)
371
The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means of all of the following except
The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight
372
The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless
All of the above (An amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, deviation is required in response to a TCAS RA, Deviation is necessary to ensure safety of flight
373
A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than
500 feet or as directed by the controlling agency
374
The following are prohibited maneuvers:
All of the above(Aerobatics maneuvers - bank angel exceeds 60 degrees or pitch attitude exceeds 30 degrees, spins, takeoff and landing on an unprepared surface)
375
T F The flight commander, operations officer, squadron commander or designated supervisor may approve a student's removal from CAP
True
376
The normal landing zone for the T-1 is _______ down the runway
500-2000 feet
377
Do not execute practice single engine go-arounds __________________
after selecting 30 degree flaps
378
The maximum planned ground speed on military training routes is ____ knots
270
379
Approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, and slow flight must be completed above ______ feet AGL
5,000
380
For formation air top sorties, the planned drop altitude is normally ____ feet AGL or _____ feet above the planned route altitude
1,000; 500
381
During air refueling missions, do not fly pre contact or contact in conditions exceeding light turbulence
True
382
OG/CC approval is required to RON on the civilian side of a Joint-Use airfield.
True
383
Aircrew will add “departure” to their “gear down” call on their last pattern at CSM.
True
384
Formation maneuvers should not be conducted in AR70/60.
True
385
If in the chocks when Lightning within 5 miles of Vance Air Force Base is called, aircrew will __________ until the Lightning Within 5 is lifted
Remain in their aircraft
386
When cleared the block you are cleared the area block altitude while proceeding from present position and may maneuver once established in the altitude block up to 45 degrees from a direct line to the assigned area.
True
387
If conditions permit, aircrews should burn down additional fuel when calculated landing “Hot Brakes Speed” is less than “Touchdown Speed” for the following situations:
All the above (10-flap FS SSR, icing is encountered during flight that will force a 10-flap full stop, performing 10-flap full-stop during crosswind or gusty winds)
388
For all student training sorties, crews will use the “THROTTLES” call as the go/no-go decision point.
True
389
If a climb or descent is required through forecasted or reported moderate icing, SUP approval will be needed when
A and B (icing is >5000' thick, icing starts below the MSA)
390
If a student earns an overall grade of UNSAT, the IP is not required to notify the FLT/CC and scheduler prior to departing the squadron.
False
391
Instructors and students are not restricted from planning to locations with a forecast AHAS/BAM risk of severe, but must mitigate the potential for increased bird activity.
True
392
At Vance AFB, aircrews can taxi into or out of parking spots under the “sun shades” or past AGE without a marshaller.
False
393
Non-standard formation advisory calls are not required for flights that are cleared “MANEUVERING.”
True
