T1 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of resorption occurs in a mature apex after an avulsion injury?

A

Replacement resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the best solution to keep a tooth in following avulsion?

A

Milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is a composite bandage important in young permanent teeth?

A

Seals the dentine tubules to stop infection from reaching the pulp. You want to prevent young children from having an RCT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What makes a splint flexible?

A

It is flexible, passive and is only attached to one tooth either side of the ones being held in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you treat a root fracture?

A

Reimplant the fragment, the aim is to get the two fragments to reunite. Can RCT up to fracture line. (if fracture in coronal third - refer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 2 injuries in permanent teeth will always result in pulpal necrosis?

A

Severe intrusion and avulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What medical conditions should you not reimplant a tooth?

A

Infective endocarditis risk and immunosuppressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of a concussion injury?

A

Trauma to the tooth with no displacement or mobility, it’s like a bruise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between apexification and apexogenesis?

A

Apexification is the placement of a barrier at the apex (such as MTA), apexogenesis is stimulating the apex and root development via Cvek/pulp cap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 outcomes for the pulp following trauma?

A

Survival, obliteration, necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do you pulp cap following a complicated crown fracture? What is the other option?

A

Pin point exposure, within 24 hours, clean tooth = pulp cap. Large exposure, more than 24. hours, dirty = Cvek.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is sensibility testing unreliable in young people?

A

Already in high stress condition, pulp is larger, more sensitive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What pulpal outcome is common in open apex teeth who have undergone severe luxation?

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What injuries is replacement resorption most likely in?

A

Severe intrusion and avulsion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is first indicator for replacement resorption?

A

Infra-occlusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is surface resorption?

A

Present early, as part of normal healing, radiographically looks like you have gone from open to closed apex, transient apical breakdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is inflammatory resorption?

A

Due to necrotic pulp and PDL damage. Is preventable and treatable, pulp should be extirpated ASAP with non-setting for 1 week or corticosteroid for 6 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a smear layer?

A

A layer that sits on the wall of the canal that contains dentine debris, left over pulp and bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is guidance ALL children/parents for 0-3?

A

Brush teeth twice a day (once at night and one other time), using 1000ppm fluoride toothpaste as soon as teeth start to come through, smear amount, limit sugar intake to mealtimes, children should be supervised whilst brushing, spit don’t rinse. Don’t have any drinks for 30mins after brushing. Fizzy drinks should be avoided. Children should be breastfed up to 6months with solids introduced after that (experience less tooth decay), babies should not be fed with a bottle during the night and a cup should be introduced from 6 months with no bottle from 1 year old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is guidance for high caries risk 0-6?

A

Use 1350-1450 ppm fluoride toothpaste, dental recall every 3 months. When big teeth start to come through can place fissure sealants and all teeth should be monitored. Fluoride varnish should be applied every 3 months to all teeth. Diet diary should be given to patient to assess.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is guidance for ALL children/parent for 3-7?

A
  1. 3-7 same as 0-3 however use a pea sized amount of 1000ppm toothpaste. Fluoride varnish should be applied twice a year. Sugar-free medicine should be had wherever possible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is guidance for ALL children 7+?

A
  1. Same as 3-7, however can be unsupervised with a 1350-1450ppm toothpaste used. If possible, use electric toothbrush and interdental cleaning can also begin. If using mouthwash, ensure to use at a different time to brushing. Sugary foods and snacks should be avoided before bedtime and especially after brushing. High caries risk 8+ can be prescribed 0.05% NaF mouthrinse.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is recall intervals for children?

A

High risk, 3 months.
Medium risk, 6 months.
Low risk, 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is recall intervals for adults?

A

High risk, 4-6 months.
Medium risk, 12 months.
Low risk, 18-24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you know when a child can brush their teeth unsupervised?

A

Tie their shoe laces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can be prescribed at age 10?

A

2800ppm NaF toothpaste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What can be prescribed age 16?

A

5000ppm NaF toothpaste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is fluoride varnish, how often can it be prescribed, how does it work?

A

As the tooth demineralises it diffuses in to form fluorapetite which is stronger and has a higher pH than hydroxyapatite therefore strengthening the tooth. It can be given from 3 years and should be given twice a year and up to 4 times a year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What special investigations do we carry out on teeth to aid clinical diagnosis?

A

Mobility, colour, pharma-ethyl/EPT, pocketing, TTP, percussion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is attrition and its clinical presentation?

A

The wearing of teeth due to contact from opposing teeth. Teeth appear flat with loss of enamel and wear faucets with shorter crowns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is abrasion and its clinical presentation?

A

Wearing of teeth from non-tooth surfaces, commonly caused by brushing and bad habits. Usually presents with semi-lunar wear marks along the cervical margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is erosion and its clinical presentation?

A

Acidic breakdown of the tooth that does not involve bacteria. Posterior teeth you get occlusal cupping with exposed dentine. Anterior the incisal edges appear translucent with chamfer margins seen palatally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is impaction?

A

When a tooth is impacted it means it has been blocked from erupting into the oral cavity – an impacted tooth is one that has never reached functional occlusion, they should be extracted if they are causing resorption, bone loss or develop cysts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Reimpaction?

A

When a tooth is reimpacted it has erupted then unerupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is retention?

A

Retention is the tooths ability to withstand vertical forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is resistance?

A

Resistance is the tooths ability to withstand horizontal forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 5 principles for crown prep?

A

Preservation of tooth structure, retention and resistance form, structural durability, marginal integrity, preservation of the periodontum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you carry out a jaw reg for complete dentures?

A

Begin with upper wax rim. Start by check labial fullness, then Ala-tragal and inter-pupillary, then record RVD. Mark midline, canine line and check smile line. Then try in lower check labial fullness and extensions. Place upper and lower in and record OVD (licking lips, swallowing, saying M), ensure FWS is 2-4mm, if not reduce lower rim ONLY. Once happy record bite in centric relation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What material can be used for secondary impressions complete?

A

ZOE or medium body silicone. If asking for ZOE you want a non-spaced tray, for silicone you want a non-perforated, spaced tray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is written on the lab form following primary partial impressions?

A

Please can lab pour up models and construct a spaced, perforated special tray (angle handle 10 degrees lower, 45 degrees upper).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should be looked at coronally when assessing if a tooth is suitable for endodontic treatment?

A

Restorations present/tooth structure remaining. If a coronal seal cannot be placed following endodontic treatment, then the tooth is not suitable. You can also assess radiographically the space between the roof and the floor of the chamber – the larger this space the easier instrumentation will be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How would a tooth with dentine hypersensitivity present?

A

Short, sharp pain following exposure to stimuli that cannot be put into any other pathology. It is due to exposed dentine tubules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the symptoms of reversable pulpitis?

A

Short, sharp localised pain that appears on stimulus and usually lasts a couple of seconds. When the pain appears, it can be made better by painkillers. It is usually due to deep restorations, new filling or caries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the symptoms of irreversible pulpitis?

A

Dull, aching pain that is spontaneous and is not made better by painkillers. The pain often keeps patients awake at night and often radiates. When exposed to certain stimuli patient can experience sharp pain that doesn’t get any better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the symptoms of symptomatic apical periodontitis?

A

Similar symptoms to irreversible pulpitis however patient may also get pain from biting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. How do intact periapical tissues appear radiographically?
A
  1. Lamina dura intact and the PDL space is uniform.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the normal width of the PDL?

A

0.2-0.4mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the difference between an acute abscess and a chronic abscess?

A

An acute abscess has a rapid onset which is spontaneous with large pus swelling that forms around the soft tissues. A chronic abscess has an associated draining sinus with a gradual onset and little discomfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is condensing osteitis?

A

A localised bone reaction to a low grade chronic inflammatory stimulus at the apex of the tooth. Radiographically appears as a diffuse radiopacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is placed when carrying out a pulpectomy?

A

As it is performed only on primary teeth, ZOE should be placed as the obturation material as it is able to resorb as the primary teeth do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is an indirect pulp cap carries out?

A

It is carried out when caries removal is close to the pulp but has not exposed it yet (should have 0.5mm of dentine remaining). A small layer of infected dentine can remain and then non setting calcium hydroxide is placed to promote tertiary dentine deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is a direct pulp cap carried out?

A

It is carried out when the pulp has been exposed and is seen as an alternative to extirpation. Non setting calcium hydroxide, MTA or biodentine are placed to stimulate reparative dentine production with a restoration placed on top.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the aim of pulp caps?

A

Promote reparative dentine production to keep the pulp alive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the aim of an access cavity?

A

Allow straight line access to canals to prevent fracturing of instruments and allows an unobstructed view of the canal orifices. It should also conserve as much healthy tooth tissue as possible and provide retention and support for temporary fillings placed between appointments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How can calcification be removed?

A

Spoon excavator, ultrasonic. C+ files can be used in calcified canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the advantages of rubber dam?

A

Improved comfort, protects patients from aspiration of foreign bodies and protects soft tissues by retraction. For operators it allows better vision, better moisture control and aids in infection control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the consequences of over instrumentation?

A

Pain due to an acute inflammatory response, extrusion of infectious materials, overfilling with GP can lead to SAP, increases healing time and worsens prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are 2 advantageous properties of Ni-Ti instruments?

A

They are more flexible and resistant to fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the CDJ?

A

Cemento-dentinal junction (where the cementum and dentine meet), it is within the canal and is 0.5-3mm short of the apex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the consequences of under instrumentation?

A

Accumulation of infected debris can prevent healing and can prevent an apical seal being formed therefore allowing bacteria to re-enter the pulp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are ideal properties of an irrigant?

A

Broad spectrum antibacterial properties, able to dissolve necrotic tissue, low toxicity, good lubricant, low surface tension, sterilise the canal, prevent formation of a smear layer, inactivate toxins that cause resorption. Accessory canals reached that can’t be instrumentated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is EDTA, how is it useful?

A

It’s a chelating agent that breaks down inorganic debris as well as also acting as a lubricant. Therefore it breaks down the smear layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a phoenix abscess, how would a patient present?

A

It is an acute exacerbation of CAP during/following endodontic treatment. Patients present with large, soft swellings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why are anterior teeth more commonly prone to radicular cysts?

A

Palatal invaginations which allow plaque build-up and therefore caries, small teeth therefore pulp necrosis and exposure is easier, as they are at the front they can be more prone to trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is modified step back technique?

A

MSB is used for larger canals and it is the idea of shaping the apex and then working your way back up the canal to shape the rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is crown down technique?

A

CD is used for smaller canals and shapes from the crown down to the apex.
Rotary files can be used for this or hand files but the files are made out of Ni-Ti.
A glide path must be created before going in with rotary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the difference between FFB and MAF?

A

FFB is the first file to passively go down to working length with no watch-winding and has tug back.
MAF is 2 sizes up from that and is the final size of the apex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the aims of instrumentation?

A

Remove pulp and microbes, facilitate irrigation, allow placement of medicament and enable placement of root filling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why is orifice enlargement carried out?

A

Removes infected material from coronal portion, improves access to apical third, improves irrigation and removes curvature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Why do we create a glide path?

A

Allow easier access for instrumentation and therefore prevents fracture of materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is apical gauging - how is it carried out?

A

A technique used to determine the correct apical constriction to improve the apical seal and minimise extrusion of GP. If one file goes past working length but then next file is slightly too short to passively move to the apex then you know the apical constriction is in the middle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the active ingredient of odontopaste?

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the active ingredient of Ledermix?

A

Demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why is odontopaste preferred over ledermix?

A

Ledermix can lead to staining of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the best material to use for apexification?

A

MTA. Biodentine has better handling properties however it’s research for endodontic use is limited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the difference between cold lateral compaction and warm lateral?

A

A heated finger spreader is used in warm lateral compaction as opposed to a cold one. This allows the GP to almost melt together and from one unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the problems associated with extrusion of obturation materia?

A

Can irritate periapical tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why is coronal seal required post endodontic treatment?

A

Prevents the entrance of microorganisms into the coronal portion of the pulp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Why does a pulp make a tooth stronger?

A

The pulp roof has a bracing effect on the enamel which when removed makes it weaker, the pulp provide the dentine tubules with water. Once gone these are much more brittle due to dehydration and there is a colour change due to non-removed pulp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What 4 considerations should be taken into place when providing a patient with a fixed prosthesis?

A

Amount of tooth structure remaining, the occlusal forces, the aesthetic requirements and the restorative/material requirements (enamel and ceramic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

On an endodontically treated tooth what is the resistance form dependent on?

A

The amount of radicular dentine and coronal tooth structure and this is what then provides resistance and retention form to the restoration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the biological width?

A

It is the distance from the crestal bone to the gingival sulcus and contains the junctional epithelium. A crown prep should not encroach this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If there isn’t enough tooth structure remaining when you place a crown, what is most likely to happen to the tooth?

A

Root fracture, dislodgement of restoration, secondary caries, endodontic failure and attachment loss due to encroaching on the biological width.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a ferrule and what are its requirements?

A

When there is a minimum of 1.5-2mm of the axial wall height of 1mm thickness that runs the full way around the tooth it reduces the chance of fracture as the dentine wall creates a bracing/supportive effect. It allows the crown to brace against the remaining tooth structure therefore creating better support. When creating a post and core from this the prep must sit on the tooth structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Why would you consider a post and core after endodontically treating a tooth?

A

It helps to retain the core and distribute coronal stress through the radicular dentine into the root. Therefore a crown may be considered to reinforce tooth stability as long as there is an absence of all pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are some disadvantages of composite?

A

Composite shrinks during polymerisation and isn’t very good at adhering to dentine on the pulp floor as well as coronal dentine therefore not good for core build up. It also requires good moisture control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Why do root canals fail?

A

Unfilled canals, loss of coronal seal, root fracture/perforation, periodontal pathology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is periapical periodontitis?

A

Inflammatory lesion which can destroy the PDL, bone or root.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How does internal root resorption occur?

A

When endotoxins stimulate osteoclast like cells which are in contact with the dentine surface of the pulp (little radiolucent bubbles in the canal). It can be stopped by removal of the cells, via RCT, or if the pulp becomes necrotic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How is external inflammatory resorption treated?

A

It occurs following trauma where microorganisms enter the canal and stimulate the osteoclast like cells which initiates the resorption. It is treated by placing non setting calcium hydroxide on the area of resorption until no other resorption occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is replacement resorption?

A

Necrosis of the PDL caused by the tooth drying out (avulsion). The teeth then become ankylosed and then permanently replaced by bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the different forms of endodontic surgery?

A

Surgical drainage, periradicular surgery, corrective surgery, replacement surgery, implant surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the different options for replacing a gap?

A

Accept and monitor, ortho closure, denture, RRB, conventional bridge, implant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a denture?

A

ADV: cheap, easily add on more, can replace multiple units, non invasive, easier cleaning, can be placed immediately.

DIS: is removable, can alter taste/sensation, poor aesthetics/function, bulky, patient intererance, may be unretentive and fall out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a RRB?

A

ADV: fixed, minimal tooth prep. DIS: only replace one unit, can have poor aesthetics, dependent on occlusion, can debond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a conventional bridge?

A

ADV: fixed, reinforce heavily restored teeth, aesthetics. R: requires significant tooth prep, can have poor aesthetics, limited number of teeth can replace, more costly than RRB, not immediate (6 months heal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of an implant?

A

ADV: aesthetics, fixed, can replace multiple tooth units, long prognosis, does not damage adjacent teeth

DIS: complications, long term maintenance, expensive, complex treatment planning, requires surgery, need to stop stoking, might get peri-implantitis and lose implant in future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When is a fixed prosthesis indicated?

A

Protect weakened tooth, fractured cusp, previous endo, vertical fracture, maintenance of occlusion, replace old crown, aesthetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When may a fixed prosthesis be contraindicated?

A

Inadequate tooth tissue, inadequate perio support, poor OH, untreated disease, non-vital tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why can excess tooth reduction lead to pulpal inflammation?

A

High speed handpieces cause inflammation in the odontoblast nuclei, open dentinal tubules risk getting infection inside, microleakage can lead to pulpal inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How is structural durability maintained?

A

Sufficient occlusal and axial reduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What can insufficient axial reduction result in?

A

Flexing of the crown on occlusal forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How can periodontal tissue be maintained during crown prep?

A

By placing the prep supra-gingival wherever possible and never encroaching on the biological width. Also correct embrasure and contact points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Why may a prep be placed sub gingivally?

A

Aesthetics, retention for short crown, caries/restoration on finish line therefore placed sub-gingivally so it can be placed on sound tooth tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What tissues are present in the biological width?

A

Connective tissue and junctional epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How is marginal integrity maintained?

A

Fit the crown as close to the finish line, the prep must allow for sufficient thickness to provide strength to the crown, crown placed on margin line that can be cleaned and monitored by dentist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What occurs if the prep encroaches on the biological width?

A

Attachment loss, gingival inflammation, difficulty cleaning and crestal bone loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How is periodontal disease prevented, both at home and professional intervention for ALL adults?

A

Toothbrushing at the gum line as demonstrated by the dentist at least twice a day using either a manual or electric toothbrush. Interdental brushing is advised, especially where there are signs of inflammation. The patient should attend the dentist regularly to ensure regular removal of supra-gingival calculus and to ensure no overhangs or plaque traps are present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How is periodontal disease prevented, both at home and professionally for patients with or at high risk of periodontal disease?

A

Clean daily below the gum line using TePe brushes BEFORE brushing. For small spaces floss should be used. Professionals should treat patients as per the BSP guidelines for their appropriate BPE score.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are some periodontal risk factors?

A

Smoking, poor oral hygiene, diabetes, some medications that cause xerostomia or gingival enlargement, vaping, alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are risk factors for oral cancer and how as dentists can we prevent/detect?

A

Tobacco, alcohol, diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When should a patient be sent down the urgent or suspected cancer pathway (as per DBOH guidelines)?

A

Unexplained ulceration lasting longer than 3wks, persistent lump in the neck, persistent lump on the lip, a red patch consistent with erythroleukaplakia, red and white patch, unexplained hoarse patch, persistent pain when swallowing for more than 3wks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are 5 behaviours that support better oral health?

A

Improving oral hygiene, optimise fluoride exposure, reducing sugar consumption, stopping smoking, reducing alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are 3 important things a patient should have to allow behaviour change regarding oral health?

A

Capability, motivation and opportunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are SMART goals?

A

Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely. Help you to help your patient change their behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What common rehabilitation drug is usually given as a sugar-based prescription?

A

Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Why are the elderly at higher risk of developing caries?

A

Polypharmacy and the use of sugary oral nutritional suppliments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
  1. Define periodontal health, gingivitis and periodontitis?
A

Periodontal health is the absence of clinically detectable inflammation (<10% BoP), on an intact periodontium or a reduced periodontium (loss not through perio).
Gingivitis is an inflammatory condition resulting from the dental plaque and the host response interacting leading to inflammation contained to the gingiva.
Periodontitis is a microbially-associated, host-mediated inflammation that results in loss of periodontal attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the BSP guidelines regarding a BPE of 3?

A

Supra-scale with 3 month 6PPC review of sextant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the BSP guidelines regarding a BPE of 4?

A

6PPC of all teeth should be carried out and sub-gingival PMPR on pockets >4mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the BSP guidelines regarding a BPE of 0/1/2?

A

Risk factors should be controlled/maintained, oral hygiene should be promoted, and you should ensure patient is in dental health with regular check-ups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

When should advanced periodontal treatment be carried out?

A

Once 2 rounds of PMPR have been carried out on unresponding pockets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What types of periodontal surgery are available?

A

Crown lengthening, gingivectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are some primary prevention mechanisms of periodontitis?

A

Management of risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are secondary prevention mechanisms of periodontitis?

A

BPE with grading and staging of periodontal status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the guidelines regarding a BPE from 7-11?

A

Only score up to 2, using the 6s and 1s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
  1. What are the guidelines regarding carrying out a BPE 12-17?
A

Can score up to 4 but continue to use the 6s and 1s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are tertiary prevention of periodontitis?

A

Supportive periodontal care: setting expectations, monitor depths (once a patient has had periodontitis they should have a 6PPC carried out every year to ensure no remission), oral hygiene advice, PMPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Define peri-implant heath, peri-implant mucositis and peri-implantitis?

A

Peri-implant health: absence of any signs of inflammation, no bleeding or suppuration on probing and absence of bone loss or deeper probing depth.
Peri-implant mucositis: bleeding on gentle probing with some erythema/suppuration but no increase in probing depths.
Peri-implantitis: plaque-associated disease of tissues around implant, inflammation of mucosa and surrounding bone. Bleeding, suppuration, probing increase and loss of attachment present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How is peri-implantitis prevented?

A

Control of risk factors can be useful however regular recall and maintenance along with radiographs is more important.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the components of supportive periodontal care?

A

Setting expectations, monitor depth, OHI, PMPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are cancer/ex-cancer patients at higher risk of?

A

Dental caries, oral mucositis, MRONJ, ORN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the components of a BEWE?

A

It’s a screening tool that records the most severely affected surface for each sextant based on an estimate of how much tooth structure has been lost (not due to caries).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What advice should be given to prevent tooth wear?

A

Lower their intake and frequency of acids, control intrinsic acids (work out where from and try help in this area), effective and proper tooth brushing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are some denture hygiene instructions?

A

All dentures should be cleaned after eating with debris removed, removed at night and remaining teeth should be looked after. Acrylic dentures can be cleaned for 20 mins with alkaline hypochlorite but left to soak in water overnight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

When should daily interproximal cleaning have begun by?

A

Should have started by 18 years of age, or younger depending on presence of gingival inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What areas are still under the fluoridated water scheme?

A

Birmingham, Newcastle and Scunthorpe/Lincoln.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

When does calcification of the permanent incisors occur?

A

30 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

When does calcification of the permanent premolars occur?

A

6 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What cements cannot be used sub-gingivally?

A

Resin based cements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What does ceramic require to bond to?

A

Enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the purpose of a functional cusp bevel?

A

Allow for extra thickness and strength of the crown to deal with occlusal forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are guide planes?

A

Parallel surfaces on teeth that aid in insertion and retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are colour shades made up of?

A

Hue, value and chroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is a problem of using hydrobite?

A

It can prop open the bite when used as a bite reg material, so you don’t get the true extent of ICP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How is occlusion defined?

A

The static relationship between the incisal or masticatory surfaces of the teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is centric relation?

A

Jaw position where the muscles of mastication are relaxed, and the condyle is in the most anterior, superior position in the glenoid fossa. It is the most reproducible position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is a cross-bite vs scissor-bite?

A

Crossbite = when the buccal cusps of the lower teeth occlude buccaly to the buccal cusps of the upper teeth.

Scissorbite = when the buccal cusps of the lower teeth occlude lingually to the lingual cusps of the upper teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is canine guidance and why is it preferred?

A

Vertical and horizontal overlap of the canine teeth on the working side which leads to disengagement of the posterior teeth when moving laterally. Preferred due to their long roots which allows transmission of force, they stay in the mouth on general the longest and the palatal aspect is concave so made for lateral forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is mandibular displacement?

A

Movement of over 1cm from RCP to ICP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are 3 occlusal diseases?

A

Occlusal dysthesia, bruxism, trauma from occlusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is displacement without reduction?

A

When the articular disc is displaced anteriorly to the condyle when both open and closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is displacement with reduction?

A

Closed jaw - condyle seated in fossa with disk anteriorly.
Condyle begins translation - as mouth opening a clicking or popping sound occurs as disk returns to its normal position in relation to condyle.
During closing - disk beomces anteriorly displaced sometimes accompanieed by secdonary sound (reciprocal click)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are signs of soft tissues of parafunctional habits?

A

Linea alba, tongue scalloping, mandibular tori.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Why might a crown be indicated?

A

Protection of weakened tooth, vertical root fracture, fractured cusp, endodontically treated tooth, maintenance of occlusion, replace old crown, aesthetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What should be considered when assessing if a tooth is suitable for a crown?

A

Amount of enamel, quality of enamel, parafunction habits, apical radiolucencies, periodontal health, subgingival caries, patient compliance, occlusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the rules for cementing a ceramic crown?

A

Need to have sufficient enamel to allow binding of the resin-based cement. Cannot use eugenol based temporary cement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Why do we use temporary crowns?

A

Cover exposed dentine, function, aesthetics, diagnosis, to prevent gingival overgrowth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the 3 different options for temporary crowns and when would we use them?

A

Preformed crowns (metal or composite), chair-side (quick, cheap, allows assessment of sufficient tooth reduction), lab based (trial new shade/shape).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

When thinking of ideal properties of materials what should they usually be?

A

Non-toxic, biocompatible, cheap, easy to use, adhere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Why would you use poly F over tempbond?

A

For long term temporaries or when placing a ceramic crown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Why would you use tempbond over Poly F?

A

Sedative effect and also antibacterial, is also easily removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is an inlay?

A

An intracoronal restoration that replaces tooth tissue but not the cusps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is an onlay, when are they indicated?

A

A restoration that replaces one or more cusps and the occlusal surfaces. They are used for increasing OVD, when a direct restoration wouldn’t be feasible, on endodontically treated teeth, as denture abutments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the indications for a post and core?

A

Successful endo treatment, restorable tooth, good perio status, no parafunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What should be considered when placing a post?

A

Curvature, length, width and taper of root, any untreated disease, quality of endo treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

When is placement of a post and core not advised?

A

Short root, inadequate ferrule, poor endo, inadequate dentine thickness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are rules of post and core placement?

A

Post should be longer than the height of crown
4-5mm of GP should remain for apical seal
At least 2mm of circumferential ferrule
Tip of the post should be no more than 1/3 diameter of the root
The post diameter should ideally not exceed the diameter of the shaped and disinfected canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What does a longer post allow?

A

It allows even distribution of forces and better retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is the definition of MIH?

A

Hypomineralisation of one or more permanent molars and/or incisors associated with illness between 0-3, illness during pregnancy or traumatic birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the components of a bridge?

A

Abutment, pontic, retainer and connector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

When would an RRB be chosen over a conventional bridge?

A

Unrestored dentition, replacing one unit, no parafunction habits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

In a cantilever bridge where should the abutment tooth be in comparison to the pontic?

A

Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What are problems associated with a fixed-fixed RRB?

A

Higher likelihood of debonding therefore can get caries underneath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How can we increase the survival rate of an RRB?

A

Cantilever design, little to no prep, using rubber dam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the Dahl effect?

A

When there is insufficient occlusal space an RRB can be cemented higher to allow for re-establishment of occlusion via intrusion of some teeth and eruption of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are the options for restoring primary teeth?

A

GIC, compomer, composite, SSC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are options for restoring permanent teeth?

A

GIC, compomer, composite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What 3 things help you indicate someones caries risk?

A

Newly formed caries, anterior caries, presence of other restorations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Why are 6s most likely to get caries?

A

In mouth the longest, 15% of people have MIH, can partially erupt and be difficult to clean, deep pits and fissures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What 2 congenital conditions increase caries risk?

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta and cleft palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What in a social history may increase a childs caries risk?

A

Social deprivation, caries in siblings, irregular attender, availability of sugar, low knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the definition of early childhood caries?

A

Presence of DMFT in 1 or more primary tooth in 72 months or younger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Explain bottle caries and risk factors.

A

Due to frequent consumption of sugary drinks in bottle leads to long exposure of cariogenic drink and low salivary rate at night.

185
Q

When giving patients diet advice, what should be explained?

A

More about frequency of sugar intake than amount so should be had at mealtimes. Fizzy drinks should be had through a straw if drunk and should be infrequent and not swished or swilled around mouth. Avoid juice/milk in bottle. Only water between meals. Snack on sugar free snacks. Beware of hidden sugars.

186
Q

What is the prescription for mouthrinse?

A

0.05% NaF daily.

187
Q

How does fluoride varnish work?

A

It’s used to arrest lesions by increasing the presence of topical fluoride in the mouth.

187
Q

What patients should not be given fluoride varnish?

A

Necrotising gingivitis, allergy to colophony, asthmatics.

187
Q

How does fluorosis occur?

A

Fluoride effects enamel maturation by impairing mineral acquisition therefore resulting in hypomineralisation. Teeth at greater risk whilst developing.

188
Q

What can excess ingestion of fluoride cause?

A

Fluorosis can lead to more serious complications including hospitalisation.

188
Q

At birth how does the child occlude?

A

Gum pads that occlude distally to allow for suckling, anterior oval opening and fleshy labial frenum.

189
Q

At 36 months how does the child occlude?

A

Incisors vertically inclined, deep overbite, anthropoid spaces (mesial to maxillary canine, distal to mandibular), ovoid arch form and flush terminal plane.

189
Q

What happens at 6 when the first molars erupt?

A

Begin to lose primary teeth, overbite decreases, pronounced spacing of the anterior teeth (to make way for bigger ones), noticeable attrition due to thin primary enamel.

190
Q

When should the canines be palpatable?

A

Dental age 9.

191
Q

How does thumb sucking appear clinically?

A

Asymmetric anterior open bite, proclined uppers, retroclined lowers, unilateral crossbite.

192
Q

What are natal/neonatal teeth and what are issues with them?

A

Natal: present at birth.
Neonatal: present within 1 month.
Can cause issues feeding to mum, issues to soft tissues and due to undeveloped root can cause an aspiration risk.

193
Q

Why may we not extract a natal tooth?

A

As there are not enough clotting factors present.

194
Q

What anatomical features make primary molars at higher risk of caries?

A

Thin enamel, narrow occlusal table, large interproximal contact points, larger mesiobuccal pulp horn, large pulp.

195
Q

What does ALARP stand for?

A

As low as reasonably practicable.

196
Q

When should radiographs be taken for high, medium and low risk caries?

A

6 months. 12 months. 18-24 months.

197
Q

When may radiographs in children be indicated?

A

For detection of caries, in trauma patients, examination of pathological conditions, assessment of eruption.

198
Q

Why do we restore primary teeth when they exfoliate anyway?

A

To prevent infection disturbing permanent successor, to increase compliance with dentist, to remove pain, maintain function and space, avoid life threatening spread of infection.

199
Q

Why is restoring childrens teeth difficult?

A

Small mouth doesn’t open very wide, attention span, compliance, lack of motivation and co-operation, fear.

200
Q

When are stainless steel crowns indicated?

A

Interproximal caries, 2+ carious surfaces, young children.

201
Q

What in a patients medical, social and dental history may indicate a fear of dentist?

A

Pain driven attendance, previous extensive/invasive treatments, previous bad experience with medical professional.

202
Q

What is Frankl behaviour classification?

A

Assess behaviour of patient 1 being un-cooperative, 4 being positive.

203
Q

What are some behaviour management techniques used in paediatric dentistry?

A

Tell, show, do.
Positive/negative reinforcement.
Voice control. Distraction.

204
Q

Why are first permanent molars at high risk of caries?

A

Deep pits and fissures, first to erupt, MIH, partially erupted, difficult to access.

205
Q

What patients benefit from non-operative preventative treatment?

A

High caries risk, patients with health impairments who would be affected by caries (IE and immunocomprised), children with deep fissures, children with 1 or more occlusal cavity.

206
Q

What material is used for restoring anterior teeth but why may this pose a problem?

A

Composite due to its aesthetic component. Difficult to get moisture control so needs good compliance. Poor oral hygiene can lead to gingival bleeding, in rampant caries sometimes GIC will be placed as an intermediate.

207
Q

When is a preventative resin restoration indicated and how is it carried out?

A

Occlusal caries that is just into dentine so able to remineralise. A slow hand piece is used to remove sticky caries, a small bit of composite to fill the cavity and then a fissure sealant placed on top - no LA used.

208
Q

Why is extraction of 6s often considered and when should it be carried out?

A

As you don’t want to begin the restorative cycle on them. Should extract when the bifurcation of the 7s has begun which is around the dental age of 8-10 however should be checked on a DPT, this allows the 7s to erupt into the space.

209
Q

What can be seen clinically that can help aid in diagnosis of the pulp?

A

Draining sinus, colour change, mobility, swellings.

210
Q

What medical, social and dental considerations should be taken into account when deciding how to treat extensive caries in a paediatric patient?

A

Medical (IE, immunocompromised, bleeding risk, GA risk).
Social (oral hygiene, cooperation, motivation, attendance, parental attitude)
Dental (resorption, number of carious teeth, time until exfoliation, swelling).

211
Q

What is used when deciding whether to stoop at a pulpotomy/continue to a pulpectomy?

A

Depends upon bleeding with ferric sulphate is applied with a cotton wool pledget.

212
Q

What is a desensiting pulpotomy?

A

Indicated when hyperaemic pulp and poor compliance when anaesthesia not working. Apply Ledermix and then GIC restoration and figure out best restorative option.

213
Q

How can you clinically and radiographically tell that a pulp is still vital (paeds)?

A

Clinically - based off presenting complaint + colour/sinus/mobility. RAdiographically will see interradicular bone loss if necrosis has occurred.

214
Q

What is the aim of pulp capping?

A

Stimulate tertiary dentine.

215
Q

What is used for obturation in a pulpectomy?

A

ZOE as it is resorbable.

216
Q

How does MIH present in incisors and how does it present in molars?

A

Incisors appear as demarcated white/brown patches. Molars appear with often post eruptive breakdown with demarcated brown/yellow/white patches.

217
Q

How does enamel hypoplasia present?

A

Small pits and fissures with severe enamel defects.

218
Q

What is seen histologically in MIH that affects the teeth’s ability to be restored?

A

Reduced enamel hardness and less distinct enamel rods which makes etching difficult.

219
Q

Why in general is treating a patient with MIH difficult?

A

Patients usually present young and treatment lasts for life, aesthetic zone is affected, poor quality teeth make restoring hard and pulp is often hyperaemic therefore LA administration doesn’t always work.

220
Q

Why are MIH teeth more sensitive?

A

Increased vascularity to the tooth and increased porosity of enamel lead to increased sensitivity.

221
Q

What preventative advice can we give to patients with MIH?

A

CPP-ACP, fluoride, desensitising toothpaste (stannous), fissure sealants, OHI, diet.

222
Q

How can we treat 6s and then 1s affected by MIH?

A

Incisors: microabrasion, vital bleaching, composite, veneers.
Molars: onlays, SCC (only temporary to maintain space until 7 ready), composite.

223
Q

Why is endodontic treatment not indicated in newly/younger erupted 6s?

A

Starts restorative cycle early on, poor compliance, may make patients more anxious, root not fully developed, no need to be retained.

224
Q

What 2 abnormalities influence extraction of 6s?

A

Malocclusions and hypodontia.

225
Q

What are 7 restorative and patient factors to take into account when thinking about restoring or extracting teeth?

A

Extent of lesion, quality of enamel, moisture control, compliance, dentist experience, symptoms, caries risk factor.

226
Q

What should be taken into consideration when designing a denture?

A

Casts should be articulated prior to denture design being completed, there should be a rest seat next to every saddle, if more than 2 teeth then rest seat should be adjacent (except for free end saddle where it is mesial), every clasp needs a rest but not vice versa, ensure it is cleansable, maximum support minimal coverage, for a lingual bar the functional sulcus (when tongue lifted to gingival margin) should be >8mm, more teeth missing means more coverage, all clasps should have reciprocating arm.

227
Q

What are some causes of intrinsic discolouration?

A

Tetracycline, Dentingogenesis imperfecta, fluorosis, hypoplasia, smoking, caries, RCT, trauma.

228
Q

What are different ways we can manage staining?

A

For extrinsic stains: proper oral hygiene, management of diet, scale and polish.
For intrinsic stains: microabrasion, non-vital bleaching, vital bleaching, veneer, composite restoration.

229
Q

If carrying out vital bleaching in practise what should be placed prior to bleaching agent?

A

Gingival barrier placed to protect gingiva.

230
Q

What is vital bleaching?

A

Vital bleaching is placement of carbamide peroxide/laser to bleach the outside of the teeth - preformed on vital teeth.

231
Q

What concentrations are used for bleaching in the UK?

A

Carbamide peroxide 10% (3.5% hydrogen peroxide) and carbamide peroxide 16% (hydrogen peroxide 5.6%).

232
Q

What are the 3 options for non-vital bleaching?

A

Walking bleach, inside out, selective reservoir.

233
Q

What are the negatives of bleaching?

A

Can cause sensitivity, may damage gingiva, relapse, potential cervical resorption, doesn’t work on stains from amelogenesis/dentinogenesis.

234
Q

What conditions are the stains not able to be whitened?

A

Amelogenesis, Dentinogenesis, Enamel hypoplasia, root resorption.

235
Q

How is microabrasion carried out?

A

Especially good for brown lesions (MIH patients),
- Isolate teeth w rubber dam
- Mix 18% HCL with pumice into slurry and apply small amount to labial surface with a slowly rotating rubber cup.
- Wash for 5s directly.
- Repeat up to 10 x 5 seconds
- Polish with super fine Soflex disk then with toothpaste.

236
Q

What conditions is whitening good at removing the stains created?

A

Trauma, tetracycline, fluorosis, ageing.

237
Q

What bacteria are present in caries?

A

Streptoccocus mutans, actinomyces and lactobacillus.

238
Q

What is the process behind caries?

A

Cariogenic bacteria in biofilm metabolise simple carbs from their diet and produce acid as a waste produce of anaerobic respiration therefore lowering pH.

239
Q

How does active caries appear?

A

Soft and sticky, usually white/brown.

240
Q

How do arrested caries appear?

A

Hard and shiny, can have a scratch surface, yellow/black in colour.

241
Q

What is the critical pH of enamel and dentine?

A

pH of enamel: 5.5
pH of dentine: 6.7

242
Q

What ions in saliva aid in remineralisation?

A

Calcium and phosphate. Along with the bicarbonate buffer.

243
Q

What is the bicarbonate buffer reaction?

A

The bicarbonate in saliva reacts with the acid produced by bacteria to produce water and carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide then diffuses into the environment to maintain the concentration gradient.

244
Q

How does saliva prevent caries?

A

It contains calcium and phosphate to remineralise teeth, allows for bicarbonate buffer, swallowing removes simple carbs, contains antimicrobials.

245
Q

What factors in food have an impact on caries?

A

Consistency of carb and frequency of carb.

246
Q

What are the 5 main concepts behind caries prevention?

A

Diet, salivary stimulation, promote remineralisation, remove plaque build up, fluoride.

247
Q

How does xylitol aid in regression of caries?

A

It is taken up by S.mutans but not metabolised therefore it inhibits glycolysis.

248
Q

How can a continual low pH in the oral cavity lead to changes in plaque biofilm?

A

Low pH consistently can result in a shift of the bacterial population to become more aciduric.

249
Q

What are histological areas of enamel?

A

Translucent zone, dark zone, body of lesion, surface zone.

250
Q

What are histological areas of dentine?

A

Zone of sclerosis, zone of demineralisation, zone of bacterial invasion, zone of destruction.

251
Q

How does dentine respond to caries?

A

As the odontoblasts are irritated it leads to tertiary dentine placement.

252
Q

What are pulp stones?

A

Calcified bodies within the organic matrix found in the coronal pulp.

253
Q

What are the caries risk factors?

A

Initial, moderate and extensive. Then should be classified depending on active/inactive.

254
Q

What does ICDAS radiograph 1-6 mean, what can this also be classified as?

A

1&2 is which half of enamel, 3&4&5 is which third of dentine and then 6 is pulp – can be classified as E,D,Pulp.

255
Q

What is the definition of caries?

A

Biofilm mediated, diet modulated, multifactorial, dynamic disease resulting in net mineral loss of dental hard tissues.

256
Q

What is seen when caries reaches the ADJ?

A

It spreads along the ADJ making the demineralisation wider, this is the brown discolouration seen which is the first sign of dentine breakdown.

257
Q

What are benefits of resin infiltrations and what material do we use?

A

Non-invasive, one visit, arrests early initial lesions, can improve aesthetics of white spot lesions. ICON.

258
Q

What is the main effect of fluoride?

A

It leads to subsequent remineralisation whilst caries is occurring.

259
Q

How does fluoride varnish work?

A

It forms calcium fluoride which pools on the tooth and due to being more resistant at lower pH’s when the protein layer of phosphate is washed off this remains and causes remineralisation

260
Q

What are the 4 concepts of complete dentures?

A

Stability, retention, support and balanced occlusion.

261
Q

What 5 things can cause cracked tooth?

A

Parafunctional habits, occlusal accident, highly restored teeth, habits, structural issues (AI, DI).

262
Q

What can cause retarded eruption?

A

Premature birth, traumatic displacement of tooth germ, nutritional deficiencies, chromosomal abnormalities, hypothyroidism.

263
Q

What is hypophosphotasia?

A

Low activity in alkaline enzyme phosphatase, can result in loss of all teeth by age 5 due to disturbed cementum formation

264
Q

What is cherubism and the clinical features?

A

A genetic disease that produces abnormal bone due to disruption of the signalling pathways associated with maintaining bone, excessive osteoclasts.
Bilateral swelling of maxilla and mandible, upturned eyes.

265
Q

What is persistence of deciduous teeth associated with?

A

Developmentally missed permanent, trauma, failure of eruption of permanent.
- Ectopically developing permanent teeth.
- Trauma or infection affecting the primary teeth.
- Fused or germinated teeth.
- Infra-oclusion
- Cleidocranial dysplasia

266
Q

What can cause impaction of teeth?

A

Abnormal position of tooth crypt, lack of space, supernumeraries, cyst, tumour, stainless steel crowns on E.

267
Q

What causes teeth to become infra occluded?

A

Infraocclusion is caused by insufficient process of the alveolar process giving them the look of being submerged. Classified as mild (1mm below), moderate (at contact point), severe (at the interproximal gingiva).

268
Q

What syndromes are associated with hyperdontia?

A

Gardner’s and Cleidocranial.

269
Q

What syndromes are associated with hypodontia?

A

Cleft palate/lip, downs, ectodermal dysplasia, gorlin-goltz.

270
Q

What is cleidocranial dysplasia and what are its clinical features?

A

Facial + body features:
- Clavicular aplasia
- Short stature
- Failed fontanelle fusion.
- Facial:
- Hypertelorism (Wide set eyes)
- Flat nose
- small maxilla
- Brachycephalic skull (side, short skull)
- osteopenia (decreased bone density)
- Often class III skeletal due to small maxilla.

Dental features:
-Delayed exfoliation/retained primary teeth.
-Delayed tooth development
-Multiple impacted permanent teeth.
-Supernumerary teeth.
-Dentigerous cysts.
-Teeth appear small, irregularly spaced and crowded.
- Teeth may display malformed roots and enamel hypoplasia
- Malocclusion
- Narrow arched palate.

271
Q

What is Gardner’s syndrome?

A

Mutation in chromosome 5, leading to multiple dense bony islands, multiple osteomas, polyposis, epidermoid cysts, increased bowel cancer risk.
Supernumeraries - Hyperdontia

272
Q

What are the clinical features of Down’s syndrome?

A

Extra chromosome 21, class 3, bifid uvula, short hands broad trunk, macroglossia, hypodontia, peg shaped laterals, perio, cleft palate.

273
Q

What are the clinical features of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Mutation in ectoderms, sparse hair, thin nails, hypo/anodontia, peg shaped teeth.

274
Q

What is cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

Cleft LIP = Defect in the alveolus, failure of fusion of the medial nasal prominence and the maxillary process.

Cleft PALATE = Can occur in isolation when the palatal shelves fail to fuse in the midline, or in combination with cleft lip.

275
Q

How do turner teeth appear and how do they form?

A

White/yellow spots/ brown mottled appearance due to trauma/infection to the primary predecessor. Localised enamel hypoplasia/defect to the enamel.

276
Q

What are the consequences of congenital syphilis?

A

Moon molars, hutchinsons incisors, mulberry molars. Due to mother having syphilis.

277
Q

How does excess fluoride impact teeth?

A

Can cause fluorosis if ingested whilst permanent teeth are calcifying can lead to hyperplastic appearance of teeth. Maxillary incisors calcify between 15-30 months therefore should be aware due to the aesthetic zone.

278
Q

What is amelogenesis imperfecta and how does it appear?

A

It’s a hereditary disorder of enamel leading to hypoplastic and hypomatured/calcified teeth, it affects all teeth and has a different appearance depending on which type the patient has.

Type 1 - hypoplastic
Type 2 - hypomatured
Type 3 - hypocalcified
Type 4 - hypomaturation/hypoplasia/taurodontism.

279
Q

What are 2 metabolic causes of dentine changes?

A

Rickets and insufficient calcium intake.

280
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta and its clinical features?

A

Hereditary disease caused by defective type 1 collagen. Patients present with generalised osteoporosis, blue sclera, long slender limbs, multiple fractures.

281
Q

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta and how do the teeth appear? Types + RG appearance?

A

Type 1 (related to osteogenesis) and type 2 (by itself) and type 3 (has marked attrition and pulp exposures, often called shell teeth due to RG appearance).
Teeth erupt amber and then turn blue/grey over time with translucent glassy appearance. Often associated with significant tooth wear (attrition)
Tulip shaped crowns, obliteration of pulp chamber.

RG- teeth can have bulbous crown, short roots and/or pulp obliteration in many teeth.

282
Q

What is type 1 vs type 2 dentinal dysplasia?

A

Type 1: affects the roots - crowns are normal but with short roots, pulpal obliteration and early loss of teeth.
Type 2: crowns are tulip shaped with flame shaped pulps.

283
Q

What is hypercemtosis and what can cause it?

A

Abnormal amounts of cementum around the root, can be caused by periapical inflammation, pagets, mechanical stimulation.

Excessive deposition of cementum on tooth roots. RG might appear as bulbous enlargement of root. Mandible 2:1. Molars then premolars most affected.

Cuased by supererupted tooth as it erupts into space of missing opposing tooth. Periapical inflammation. Traumatic occlusion. Pagets disease. Hyperpituitarism (acromegaly and gigantism).

No treatment. Pose problem when extracting.

284
Q

How do dens in dente appear?

A

Invagination of the dental papilla by the enamel organ. An enamel linked cavity opening on the tooth surface which can act as a plaque trap and caries risk. Can be treated with a fissure sealant or prophylactic filling.

285
Q

Where do enamel pearls arise from?

A

Originates from Hertwigs shealth cells differentiating into ameloblasts instead of roots.

286
Q

What is concresence?

A

Roots of 1 or more teeth are joined by cementum. Only work out when you go to extract but can’t.

287
Q

What should you be wary of a delayed trauma presentation?

A

Non accidental injury

288
Q

Why should you check if a patient has had any trauma to the teeth before?

A

Previous injuries to the pulp worsen the prognosis and when taking baseline radiographs it may account for an anomaly noticed.

289
Q

What should you check soft tissue for following trauma?

A

Degloving, lacerations and any part of the tooth in the soft tissues.

290
Q

What determines whether the pulp recovers or necroses following trauma?

A

Revascularisation of the PDL

291
Q

Why do we take baseline radiographs (trauma)?

A

To assess further inflammation, periapical infections and pulpal status. Medicolegal reasons.

292
Q

What sensibility tests should be included in a trauma grid?

A

Colour, mobility, TTP, sensibility, radiographs, swellings/sinus.

293
Q

Why may a tooth not erupt?

A

Ectopic position, no permanent successor, cyst, retained primary, insufficient space.

294
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

Deviation in the tooth crown to root.

295
Q

What is an infolding defect and how is it managed?

A

Infolding prior to mineralisation taking place that can act as a plaque trap. Prophylactic filling however if pulp exposed then pulp treatment continue.

296
Q

What are outfolding defects more commonly known as?

A

Dens evaginatus on molars or talon cusps on anterior teeth.

297
Q

What are the problems associated with talon cusps?

A

Irritation of tongue, occlusal interference, attrition to opposing teeth, rapid pulp inflammation. Can place fluoride varnish to desensitise.

298
Q

What is a turner tooth?

A

Turner tooth is localised hypoplasia to a permanent tooth which is concurrent with trauma to the primary predecessor.

299
Q

What is MIH?

A

Hypomineralisation of 1 or more permanent molars and/or incisors associated with childhood illness between 0-3, problems during birth and illness during pregnancy. It is a chronological defect.

300
Q

How do hypoplastic teeth appear in comparison to hypomineralised/calcified?

A

Hypoplastic teeth have good quality enamel but there isn’t enough of it resulting in deficiencies which can be felt as pits and grooves, the enamel is thin and has a yellow appearance.
Hypomatured then onto hypocalcified teeth are of poor quality giving them white/yellow/brown flecks that crumbles and is quite soft and has high sensitivity.

301
Q

What 2 systems are involved in calcium regulation?

A

Parathyroid gland and vitamin D metabolism.

302
Q

What are the most common issues with enamel hypoplasia?

A

Compromised aesthetics, sensitivity, caries, TSL.

303
Q

Why does enamel hypoplasia lead to secondary caries?

A

As the enamel has less resin tags making it an unfavourable etch pattern which means restorations are more prone to leakage. It is commonly prefered to use resin modified GIC as this bonds to both enamel and dentine.

304
Q

What clinical features are dentine defects associated with?

A

Rapid tooth surface loss and crown fractures as the enamel has little support from the underlying dentine.

305
Q

How does regional odontoplasia appear?

A

Incorrect formation of all dental hard tissues meaning the teeth are less likely to erupt. This is seen clinically as one quadrant missing all/most teeth.

306
Q

What are Epstein’s pearls?

A

Small and white/grey newborn cyst that develop on the midline of the palate from the epithelial inclusions in the line of fusion of the palatine process.

307
Q

What are Bohn’s nodules?

A

Small and white/grey newborn cyst that develop on the alveolar ridge from the cell rests of Serres undergoing cystic change. They tend to self-rupture and do not require excision.

308
Q

What is partial ankyloglossia?

A

Also known as tied tongue, it is when there is a short lingual frenum attachment to the floor of the mouth. If effecting speech or feeding should be intervened.

309
Q

What are symptoms of chronic odontogenic infection?

A

Pyrexia, redness, swelling, distressed. You need to be careful with children as they dehydrate very quickly.

310
Q

What is the presentation of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

Fiery red gingiva, painful stomatitis, bleeding/crusting of the lips, pyrexia, excess salivation and submandibular lymphadenopathy.

311
Q

Where do lesions appear for herpangina and what causes this?

A

On the fauces and soft palate, caused by coxsackie virus.

312
Q

How does hand foot and mouth present?

A

Sore throat, high temperature, ulcers in mouth, lesions on hand and feet and no appetite.

313
Q

What causes erythema multiforme and how does it present?

A

It is caused by systemic infection, drugs or food.
It presents with target lesions, widespread ulceration, blood crusted lips, pyrexia, sore throat, desquamative gingivitis.
Stephen Johnsen syndrome is severe erythema multiforme.

314
Q

What is an eruption cyst?

A

A superficial dentigerous cyst that appears 2 weeks prior to eruption that is blue-ish and fluctuant.

315
Q

What is Sturge-Weber syndrome associated with?

A

Haemangiomas of the face and oral cavity, mental retardation, contralateral focal seizures and calcification of the meninges.

316
Q

What is an epulis/fibrous epulis?

A

It’s a hyperplastic growth due to minor chronic insult found on the gingiva.

317
Q

What is a giant cell epulis?

A

Found interdentally on anterior teeth around the gingival margin, it is a hyperplastic growth characterised by its maroon, purple discoloration due to being filled with blood.

318
Q

What is periodontitis?

A

The progressive and irreversible loss of clinical attachment due to the destruction of the PDL and surrounding bone.

319
Q

What is modified BPE?

A

Age 7-11 (only 6s and 1s recorded up to score 2), age 11+ (only 6s and 1s however can score 4*).

320
Q

Why is there no critical pH for erosion?

A

Erosion depends upon saturation of the solution within the relevant solids.

321
Q

How does acid exposure effect enamel?

A

Leads to softening of the surface enamel, increased roughness giving the appearance of etched enamel, rapid bulk loss of tissue with the underlying tissue left starting to demineralise, soft/demineralised enamel is at higher risk from other forces leading to tissue loss.

322
Q

What is the histopathology of erosion?

A

Softening of enamel, partial material loss with softening of underlying tissue, significant loss of surface through physical forces.

323
Q

What is GORD and what are its symptoms?

A

Backflow of gastric acid into the oesophagus, characterised by heart burn, bad taste, erosion and dysphagia. It can be caused by liver disease, GI disease, respiratory disease and neuromuscular disease. Patients who are obese, heavy drinkers, pregnant or have a high fat diet are at higher risk.

324
Q

What are early signs of erosion?

A

Loss of surface edges of teeth, teeth become shiny and smooth, incisal edges become more translucent.

325
Q

What are later signs of erosion?

A

Incisors: thinning and chipping of incisal edge, chamfer margins, teeth become darker due to underlying dentine shining through.
Molars: proud restorations and cupping of occlusal surfaces. As time goes on teeth become more sensitive due to exposed underlying dentine.

326
Q

What is Gillick competence?

A

Children under 16 can consent for treatment if they can understand what is going on by proving they have capacity.

327
Q

What anatomical features should you look for when going to construct a partial denture?

A

High frenal attachments, tori, and pronounced undercuts.

328
Q

What is muco-static vs muco-compressive?

A

Muco-static is an impression that doesn’t displace the mucosa therefore good for recording the tissue in a non-functional state, often used for flabby ridges.
Muco-compressive is an impression that records the mucosa in its functional state as it causes displacement of the mucosa.

329
Q

What does a special tray allow?

A

Even distribution of the material to get a better recording of all tissues.

330
Q

When is primary registration required?

A

Its used when we cannot hand articulate so in patients with free end saddles, one edentulous arch, insufficient occlusal contact and patients with a non-reproducible bite.

331
Q

Why do we articulate models?

A

To assess interocclusal space, plan for rest seats and assess occlusion.

332
Q

What is ICP/CO?

A

ICP is the intercuspal contact position and is the relationship between the maxilla and mandible when the teeth are in maximum intercuspation.
Centric occlusion is the lower jaws position when this occurs.

333
Q

What is centric relation?

A

Centric relation is the most reproducible position, it is the position of the teeth when the condyle is in the most anterior, superior position in the glenoid fossa, most relaxed muscular position independent of teeth position.

334
Q

What is RCP?

A

Retruded contact position, this is the point in which as you bite down your teeth first touch, ideally it should be equal to ICP however this is not always the case.

335
Q

How do we alter teeth for secondary impressions?

A

Add guideplanes, rest seats and bulbosities to allow for undercuts. This can be done by crowns or direct restorations.

335
Q

How can you record centric relation?

A

Tongue retrusion method, temporalis muscle check, bimanual palpation.

335
Q

What is the point of a direct retainer?

A

Maintain position of teeth, allow for retention and stability and clasp assembly and attachment.

336
Q

What is the point of a minor connector?

A

Connects the major connector to all other parts of the denture and provides stability (bracing).

337
Q

What is the role of the major connector?

A

connects one side of the denture to the other and provides support and stability to remaining teeth.

338
Q

What is reciprocation and what is bracing?

A

Reciprocation is resistance to horizontal forces on abutment teeth caused by clasps.
Bracing is resistance to horizontal forces on saddles caused by oral mucosa.

339
Q

Why do we survey models?

A

To identify a path of insertion, local undercuts for retention and that need to be blocked, aid in assessment of restorations and placement of clasps.

340
Q

What do guideplanes do?

A

They can be either natural or artificial and they increase frictional contact between teeth and denture therefore increasing retention due to increased resistance on removal.

341
Q

What is the aim of your path of insertion, what does this then help in?

A

To achieve as many parallel guide planes as possible to improve retention and aesthetics due to lack of black triangles.

342
Q

What do rest seats do?

A

Direct occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth, maintains occlusal relationship, provide indirect retention, prevents trauma to gingiva, prevents food packing and stops orthodontic movement of teeth.

343
Q

How thick is the spacer is special trays?

A

3mm

344
Q

What is the tray handle angle for upper special trays and then lower?

A

45 degrees upper and 10 degrees lower.

345
Q

How can we stabilise mobile teeth when taking an impression?

A

Use flowable to stick together, wire, silicone/wax in embrasures, modified technique of trimming tray back and taking open impression of mobile area.

346
Q

How should patients’ clean dentures, what instructions should you be giving?

A

Depending upon if acrylic or metal, rinse after every meal with debris removed with soap and toothbrush, taken out at night, can use Milton for 20 mins with acrylic and sterident for 10 mins with acrylic store in water overnight.

347
Q

What risk factors can lead to denture stomatitis?

A

Poor denture hygiene, immunocompromised, uncontrolled diabetes, iron deficiency.

348
Q

What is freeway space, why is it required?

A

OVD-RVD allows for space for talking and the tongue and allows for complete relaxation of muscles at rest.

349
Q

How can we check labial fullness?

A

Look at naso-labial angle, tension in philtrum or by using an alma gauge (6-9mm from incisive papilla).

350
Q

What can increased freeway space lead to?

A

Overclosed patient, angular cheilitis and excess drooling, cheek biting, poor aesthetics.

351
Q

What can decreased freeway space lead to?

A

Overopen patient, TMJ issues, instability, clicking teeth, trauma, appearance.

352
Q

What does functional sulcus depth mean?

A

The measurement from gingival margin to floor of mouth when tongue is raised. For a lingual bar this should be 8mm.

353
Q

In what order is vertical jaw relation carried - what is checked?

A

Upper rim: labial fullness, incisal show, ala-tragal and inter-pupillary, midline, RVD measure.
Lower rim: labial fullness then OVD measured and trimmed to get FWS = 2-4mm.

354
Q

What is balanced occlusion?

A

Stable, simultaneous contacts of teeth in centric relation with smooth bilateral gliding contact to any eccentric position, within normal range, to minimise tipping and/or rotation of denture bases.

355
Q

What patients is flabby ridge often seen in and how does it present?

A

Patients with one arch edentulous and a traumatic bite on the alveolar ridge of the opposing arch.

356
Q

What is a leaf fibroma?

A

Fibrous overgrowth usually caused by trauma to the palate for instance by a denture.

357
Q

How, when taking secondary impressions can we alter trays for flabby ridge?

A

We can cut out the area of flabby ridge off the denture and take this impression separately using light body silicone. Open tray impression technique.

358
Q

What is the definition of a Class 1 occlusion?

A

The tip of the lower incisor occludes with the cingulum of the upper incisor.

359
Q

What is the definition of a Class 2 div 1 occlusion?

A

The tip of the lower incisor occludes above the cingulum of the upper incisor with proclined/averagely inclined upper incisors.

360
Q

What is the definition of a Class 2 div 2 occlusion?

A

The tip of the lower incisor occludes above the cingulum of the upper incisor with retroclined upper incisors

361
Q

What is the definition of a Class 3 occlusion?

A

The tip of the lower incisor occludes below the cingulum of the lower incisor.

362
Q

What are some features of the primary dentition?

A

Anthropoid spaces, ovoid arch form, flush terminal plane, proclined uppers with increased overbite.

363
Q

What dental anomalies may arise in Class 1 occlusion?

A

Crowding, scissorbite, crossbite, displacement, missing teeth, spacing, open bites, bimaxillary proclination, cysts.

364
Q

What is bimaxillary proclination?

A

Proclination of upper and lower labial segments due to soft tissues, prone to relapse.

365
Q

What is mild, moderate and severe crowding?

A

Mild is 0-4mm, moderate is 4-7mm, severe 8+mm.

366
Q

Why may spacing occur and what are the options for spacing?

A

Small teeth, large jaws, hypodontia.
Spaces can be either closed or opened with then prosthesis placed.

367
Q

What is displacement?

A

When the difference from RCP to ICP is >1mm.

368
Q

What is a buccal crossbite and how is it managed?

A

When the maxillary molar occlude lingually to the mandibular molar, is managed usually with a URA with midline expansion.

Ortho tut: When the buccal cusps of the lower teeth occlude buccal to the buccal cusps of the upper teeth.

369
Q

What is a scissorbite, what can a local scissorbite be caused by?

A

When buccal cusps on lower teeth occlude lingually to the lingual cusps of upper molars.
Local problem often retated to local crowding. Digit sucking habits.

370
Q

What are the general feature of a class 2 div 1?

A

Usually skeletal class 2, average vertical height, usually symmetrical. Incompetent lips with low lip line. Increased overjet and overbite with buccal segments normally class 2, increased risk of trauma.

371
Q

How do we treat a class 2 div 1?

A

Functional appliance with or without fixed appiances?

372
Q

How do we treat a class 2 div 1?

A

Use forces generated by orofacial soft tissues in order to move the teeth, the forces are generated from the soft tissues being stretched. They work by 3 ways: dentoalveolar (the stretched tissues apply force to the teeth which move via tipping), skeletal (growth of the mandible and restraint of maxilla), soft tissues (theory).

373
Q

What are the general features of a class 2 div 2?

A

Skeletal class 2, reduced vertical dimension, well developed chin, competent lips, high lower lip line, strap like upper lip, bimaxillary retroclination, decreased overjet, increased overbite, premolar scissor bite.

374
Q

How do we treat a class 2 div 2?

A

The aim is to correct the interincisal angle. First patient is converted to class 2 div 1 using either a URA or a fixed appliance and then treated the same. Can be treated using just fixed appliances.

375
Q

When is the peak growing range for girls and boys?

A

Girls: 10-12, boy 12-14

376
Q

What does a functional appliance correct?

A

Anterio-posterior tooth movement

377
Q

What is dento-alveolar compensation?

A

When the soft tissues produce a class 1 incisor relationship when the skeletal class is 2 or 3.

378
Q

What is transposition?

A

Abnormality in tooth position (usually with 3s when they swap order).

379
Q

What is an anterior open bite and what can cause it?

A

No contact or vertical overlap of the lower incisors by the upper incisor when the mandible is in occlusion. Can be caused by increased lower face height, tongue-thrusting and digit sucking.

380
Q

What is mandibular displacement associated with?

A

Unilateral buccal crossbite.

381
Q

What ANB angles indicate skeletal class 1/2/3?

A

Class 1 is 2-4 degrees
Class 2 >4 degrees
Class 3 <2 degrees

382
Q

Where should the resting height of the lower lip be?

A

Lower lip should usually cover incisal edge of upper 1&2s to control upper incisor position.

383
Q

Why should class 2 div 1 patient be treated (from dental health point of view)?

A

Trauma

384
Q

How do upper removable appliances work and when are they indicated?

A

They work by simple tipping movements which can then cause retroclination so used to increase overjet and mild skeletal class 2.

385
Q

What is a functional appliance?

A

A removable appliance used in growing patients.

386
Q

How does a functional appliance reduce an overbite?

A

Has an anterior block which allows for overeruption of posterior teeth leading to the bite open back up.

387
Q

How do you monitor treatment progress with a URA/functional?/How can you tell if the patient has been wearing it?

A

Are they wearing to appointment, how is their speech, are there signs of wear, overjet should reduce by 1mm a month, lateral open bite may appear.

388
Q

How do we often treat class 2 div 2 patients?

A

Just fixed appliances of by converting to a div 1 using URA and then going from there.

389
Q

Why are fixed appliances often the only treatment for class 2 div 2?

A

Torque control of upper incisors to allow correction of the inter-incisal angle.

390
Q

Why do we treat class 3 patients later rather than whilst growing?

A

As from 11 to end of growth patients grow 2mm more class 3, treating a patient who has already grown reduces the amount of uncertainty.

391
Q

What is the definition of Class 1/2/3 molar relationship?

A

Class 1 (mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar occludes with buccal groove of lower first molar)
Class 2 (mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar occludes anterior to buccal groove)
Class 3 (mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar occludes posterior to buccal groove of lower first molar).

392
Q

How do we treat a mild, moderate and then sever class 3?

A

Mild is treated using a URA.
Moderate with fixed appliances to procline upper and retrocline lowers.
Severe (ANB <-1) treated with orthognathic surgery.

393
Q

When does a patient qualify for orthodontic treatment on the NHS?

A

IOTN 3 with aesthetic component of 6, IOTN 4 and IOTN5.

394
Q

How does a GDP support an orthodontic patient?

A

Know when to refer and what to look out for in these patients, continue to give regular oral hygiene advice, be able to fix minor orthodontic emergencies.

395
Q

What is anchorage?

A

The resistance to the reactive forces to the intended tooth-moving forces.

396
Q

What are different sources of anchorage?

A

Intra-maxillary, inter-maxillary, mucosa, implants, headgear.

397
Q

How do we assess a patients IOTN classification?

A

MOCDO: missing, overjet, crossbite, displacement of contact points, overbite.

398
Q

How does infra-occlusion occur? Classification?

A

Usually caused by insufficient building of the alveolar process and is more common in the mandible.
Can be categorised as slight (1mm below occlusal plane), moderate (occlusal surface level with contact point of adjacent teeth), severe (occlusal surface level or below the gingival margin of adjacent teeth).

399
Q

When are interceptive extractions considered?

A

These are extractions which aim to minimise or eliminate the severity of the developing malocclusion. Considered to guide the eruption of permanent successor, to encourage space closure in hypodontia, preserve symmetry.

400
Q

What is balancing extraction?

A

Extraction of tooth on opposite side of the same arch to allow for centre line discrepancies.

401
Q

What is a compensating extraction?

A

Extraction of tooth in opposing arch on the same side to maintain molar relationships.

402
Q

Tooth position is dictated by forces from what?

A

An equilibrium of forces derived from periodontal tissue, orofacial tissue, post treatment facial growth and occlusion.

403
Q

What is the neutral zone?

A

When the lips, cheeks and tongue are in balance with occlusion. Where the forces exerted by the tongue are balanced with those opposing from the lips and cheeks.

404
Q

What is the ideal/stable inter-incisal angle?

A

Ideal is 135 degrees, over 150 degrees in unstable and prone to relapse.

405
Q

What occlusal factors can aid in stability following orthodontic treatment?

A

The more intercuspation the more stable the occlusion, adequate overbite and correct inter-incisal angle.

406
Q

What type of bone growth occurs in the jaw?

A

Replacement of cartilage and periosteal activity at surface and sutures.

407
Q

What are risk factors for ectopic canines?

A

Not palpable at age 10, C’s not mobile, eruption of contralateral >6 months, peg shaped laterals, class 2 div 2, family history, missing laterals.

408
Q

What should you check on a radiograph regarding ectopic 3s?

A

Presence, position, pathology.

409
Q

What are treatment options for ectopic canines?

A

Accept and monitor, extract C’s and monitor, open exposure, closed exposure.

410
Q

What materials is used in open exposure of canines?

A

Copac

411
Q

What are some possible clues for supernumeraries?

A

Non-mobile primary teeth, eruption >6 months, diastema, extra teeth.

412
Q

what are some possible clues for hypodontia?

A

Peg shaped, missing contralateral.

413
Q

What are some possible things to look out for regarding change in shape of size of teeth?

A

Slow eruption, small primaries.

414
Q

What is restoratively driven implant placement?

A

This is where the implant is placed in the best position of the implant to be supported not for the bone.

415
Q

What is McGill’s consensus?

A

2 implants can support a lower overdenture and 4 can support an upper due to the thickness of the bone.

416
Q

What are contraindications for placement of implants?

A

IV bisphosphonates, radiotherapy, allergy to titanium.

417
Q

What are patient factors that should be taken into place when placing implants?

A

Oral hygiene, attendance, periodontitis, smoking, stress.

418
Q

What is thick gingiva biotype?

A

Well keratinised with low scalloping, less likely to recede and better at hiding the implant.

419
Q

What is thin gingiva biotype?

A

Low keratin, more translucent and high scalloping.

420
Q

What is fremitus?

A

Vibration of the tooth on occlusion due to occlusal trauma.

421
Q

What are the 3 dimensions assessed when placing implants?

A

Mesio-distal, bucco-lingual and apico-coronal.

422
Q

When may implant placement be delayed?

A

When patient doesn’t have the money, if the patient is under 18, if currently contraindicated to place (chemotherapy, recent MI).

423
Q

What is meant by an atraumatic extraction?

A

Use of luxator and piezo-surgery units but no flap raised, no bucco-lingual expansion and avoiding bone removal or teeth sectioning.

424
Q

What is peri-implant mucositits?

A

Inflammatory disease affecting the soft tissues around the implant which is reversible.

Bleeding on gentle probing with some erythema/suppuration but no increase in probing depths.

425
Q

What is peri-implantitis?

A

Inflammatory disease affecting the hard and soft tissues, resulting in attachment loss around the implant. Fusobacterium and spirochetes.

426
Q

What are the options for replacing a lost tooth?

A

RRB, conventional bridge, removable partial denture, implant.

427
Q

What are some intra-op complications for implants?

A

Haemorrhage, pain, difficulties opening, time taken for procedure, lack of implant stability.

428
Q

What are some post-op complications following implant placement?

A

Haemorrhage, pain, bruising, infection, swelling, paraesthesia, dysthesia, infection, wound disherence.

429
Q

Why would a bone graft be required for an implant and what are the 3 types?

A

To replace bone lost to ensure sufficient levels of bone to house an implant of sufficient size and length and to be strong enough to take forces of mastication.
Allograft, autograft, xenograft.

430
Q

What needs to occur before a prosthesis can be placed on an implant?
How long does it take for maxilla and mandible.

A

Osseointegration, this taken 4 months in the maxilla and 3 months in the mandible.

431
Q

What can occlusal overload of an implant lead to and why can’t they carry as much occlusal forces?

A

There is no PDL, so forces are transmitted directly through the implant to the bone. It can lead to screw loosening, prosthesis fracturing and bone loss.

432
Q

Why are peri-implant tissues more prone to infection?

A

No PDL meaning there is no protective features of the vasculature and nerve - detect excessive pressure and infection. There is also no interface between the implant and the gingiva, so the protective cuff is weaker and more prone to infection.

433
Q

What are the signs of peri-implant mucositis?

A

Bleeding on probing, erythema, suppuration and swelling.

434
Q

What are the signs of perimplantitis?

A

Bone loss,, increase in probing depths, bleeding/suppuration on probing.

435
Q

What are the signs of peri-implant health?

A

No inflammation, no bleeding, no bone loss.

436
Q

What are some biomechanical problems that can occur post implant placement?

A

Loss of access hole restoration, screw loosening, decementation of crown from abutment.

437
Q

What are some biomechanical problems that can occur post implant placement?

A

Resistance against horizontal forces.

438
Q

What is retention?

A

Resistance against vertical forces.

439
Q

What is support?

A

Resistance to occlusally driven forces.

440
Q

What are some signs of non-accidental injury?

A

Story changes with time, teller and injury.
Multiple injuries, delayed presentation, age of child, bruising to non-bony areas.

441
Q

Why do we take 2 radiographs in trauma patients?

A

To assess for root fractures.

442
Q

When would you carry out a pulp cap following trauma?

A

Pinpoint exposure, less than 24 hours, clean environment.

443
Q

When would you carry out a Cvek pulpotomy following trauma?

A

Large exposure happening more than 24 hours ago or in dirty environment.

444
Q

What are some properties of calcium hydroxide?

A

Antimicrobial dissolves necrotic pulp and induces tissue response.

445
Q

When would autologous transplant be considered? (extracting tooth and replanting somewhere else)

A

If in a growing child with open apex as pulp can revascularise.

446
Q

What are the treatment aims of luxation injuries?

A

Minimise PDL damage, maintain pulp vitality and prevent inflammatory resorption.

447
Q

Why do you surgically reposition a mature apex, severe intrusion?

A

As pulp necrosis is guaranteed so you want to be able to access it and place calcium hydroxide to prevent resorption asap.

448
Q

What are the 2 options for extirpation following avulsion and how long do you leave them for before shaping and obturating?

A

Non setting calcium hydroxide for 1 week or Ledermix for 6 weeks.

449
Q

What is the % survival for open apex avulsion injury?

A

30%

450
Q

When is replacement resorption more likely?

A

When there is greater damage to PDL, the degree of displacement and when extra-oral dry time is longer.

451
Q

What are general post-op instructions following trauma?

A
  • Soft diet for 10 days
  • 0.12% chlorhexidine mouthrinse twice a day to the area
  • Brush with soft toothbrush
  • Take pain relief
  • Advise the post-op complications
452
Q

What type of injury causes most damage to the permanent successor?

A

Intrusive luxation.

453
Q

When should you treat trauma in primary teeth?

A

If there is mobility, changes in occlusion or pain.