T2 Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents in your pharmacy and asks you for advice.
When he was cleaning his teeth this morning, he noticed bleeding from his gums. He is taking no medicines and is otherwise healthy. What is the best course of action?
Advise the patient to stop brushing his teeth for 48 hours
Recommend the patient brush his teeth four times daily
Recommend the patient floss between his teeth
Tell the patient he needs to see a dentist urgently
Tell the patient he needs to see his GP

A

Flossing between the teeth can clean the area and help with bleeding gums

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2
Q

A 37-year-old woman has started a new medication which has been causing her nightmares and is disturbing her sleep. Her GP contacts you to discuss an alternative beta-blocker.
Which of the following beta-blockers is LESS likely to cause nightmares?
Labetolol
Nadolol
Oxprenolol
Propranolol
Timolol

A

The correct answer was Nadolol
She is less likely to experience nightmares with water soluble beta blockers as they are less likely to enter the brain, and may therefore cause less sleep disturbance and nightmares

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3
Q

Which of the following prescribers CANNOT request an emergency supply of a prescription-only medicine?

Community nurse prescriber

Dentist

Supplementary nurse prescriber

Swiss doctor

Vet

A

Vet

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4
Q

Who must have signed this order for it to be legally valid?

Chair of governors

Deputy head

Principal

Pupil’s parent

School nurse

A

Must be signed by principal or head teacher

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5
Q

In order to collect a prescription for someone else from a pharmacy, how old should the patient who is collecting it be?
10 years
12 years
16 years
18 years
There is no legal restriction, the pharmacist should exercise their professional judgement

A

No legal restriction - use professional judgement

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6
Q

You are teaching a trainee about medical terminology.
Which of the following terms describes ‘asbestos-like’ scales on the scalp?
Pityriasis alba
Pityriasis amiantacea
Pityriasis rosea
Pityriasis versicolor
Psoriasis

A

Pityriasis amiantacea describes ‘asbestos-like’ scales on the scalp.

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7
Q

You are running a workshop helping to educate pharmacy staff on the safe handling of medicines. You receive a question from an audience member regarding drugs which require caution in handling.
Which of the following drugs would you be able to use as an example of a drug which requires ‘caution in handling’?
Chloroquine
Famciclovir
Mebendazole
Pyrimethamine
Valganciclovir

A

Valganciclovir is a potential teratogen and carcinogen and caution is advised when handling the powder, reconstituted solution or broken tablets; if these come into contact with skin or mucosa, wash off immediately with water; avoid inhalation of powder.

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8
Q

A 22-year-old female who regularly comes to your pharmacy to collect her prescription for fluoxetine. Today she presents you her prescription with a new additional drug, phenelzine.
Which one of the following is the best course of action to take?

Dispense both medications and advise her to avoid eating foods rich in tyramine

Dispense both medications and advise her to take both of them on an empty stomach

Dispense both medications and advise her to take phenelzine after food

Dispense both medications and advise her to take them at least 4 hours apart

Do not dispense her medication and contact her prescriber to advise them of the serious adverse effects associated with this combination of drugs.

A

The combination of these two drugs may result in central serotonin syndrome which is characterised by changes in mental status, agitation, tachycardia and death - do not dispense together

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9
Q

A 55-year-old female patient has recently been suffering from acute migraine attacks which have not responded to paracetamol. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease.
Which of the following medications is the most suitable to treat her migraine?
Almotriptan
Aspirin and metoclopramide
Naratriptan
Rizatriptan
Sumatriptan

A

Aspirin and metoclopramide could be used to relieve the symptoms of a migraine: pain and vomiting, respectively. Serotonin 5HT1 agonists (i.e. the ‘triptans’) are contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

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10
Q

ou have a patient with diabetes. Some medicines may affect blood glucose levels.
Which one of the following medicines can increase blood glucose levels in a person with diabetes?

Diclofenac

Folic Acid

Methotrexate

Paracetamol

Prednisolone

A

Red

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11
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs has a maximum daily dose of 600 mg?
Dexketoprofen
Etodolac
Etoricoxib
Felbinac
Ibuprofen

A

Etodolac

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12
Q

A patient presents you with a dental prescription for metronidazole and wants to discuss the medication with you. He informs you it is the weekend and he wanted to have a few alcoholic drinks.
What is the reason that alcohol must be avoided when this patient is taking his course of metronidazole?
Alcohol reduces the efficacy of metronidazole
Alcohol renders the use of metronidazole ineffective
Alcohol should be avoided when taking any course of antibiotics
Metronidazole produces a disulfiram like reaction with alcohol
Metronidazole toxicity can occur with alcohol

A

Disulfiram like reaction

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13
Q

You receive a prescription for haloperidol 500 mcg tablets for one of your patients. Your PMR system flags that haloperidol is contraindicated for this patient.
Which one of the following medical conditions would mean that haloperidol is contraindicated for this patient?

Depression

Diabetes

Parkinson’s disease
Schizophrenia
Tuberculosis

A

Parkinsons may be precipitated by haloperidol

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14
Q

A patient comes in to your pharmacy wishing to buy some Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a commonly used NSAID medication to help relieve pain and inflammation, which can be bought GSL.
What is the maximum TOTAL daily dose of Ibuprofen in an adult when used as a GSL product?
1.2 g
1.6 g
2 g
2.2 g
2.4 g

A

Adults can take 200 mg-400 mg every FOUR hours if required, however, they must not exceed 1.2 g in 24 hours when taking over-the-counter. The BNF doses are much higher as they are usually prescription only and patient should be under the care of a physician.

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15
Q

Which of the following controlled drugs can be classified as a Schedule 4 Part II drug?
Diamorphine
Diazepam
Clenbuterol
LSD
Zopiclone

A

Clenbuterol

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16
Q

Fluconazole capsules are available to buy over the counter to help treat a certain self-limiting condition.
Which of the following would oral fluconazole be used for as an over-the-counter medication?
Aspergillosis
Onychomycosis
Tinea corporis
Tinea pedis
Vaginal candidiasis

A

Fluconazole may sold over the counter for the treatment of previously diagnosed vaginal thrush or vaginal candidiasis.

17
Q

You are dispensing a prescription which includes morphine. Morphine is a Schedule 2 controlled drug and is subject to strict regulations, including making records in the controlled drug register.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding entries in the controlled drug register?

A separate register is used for each class of drugs

Entries must be in chronological order

Entries must be made on day of the transaction or within the following five days

The register must not be kept for any other purpose

The register must not be removed from the premises at any time during use

A

When making an entry into the controlled drugs register the entry must be made on the day of transaction or the FOLLOWING DAY, no later

18
Q

A patient with bipolar disorder, treated with lithium, requires analgesia.
Which is the LEAST appropriate analgesic for this patient?
Codeine
Ibuprofen
Morphine
Paracetamol
Tramadol

A

A serious interaction between lithium and NSAIDs can occur leading to reduced excretion of lithium and subsequent toxicity. CNS side effects of opioid analgesics are not desired but the risk of toxicity is lower. The pharmacokinetic interaction is more important than the pharmacodynamic interactions.

19
Q

Miss S comes in to your pharmacy. She has bacterial conjunctivitis and is looking for something to help her treat it. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic which can be bought over the counter to treat acute bacterial conjunctivitis.
What is the maximum pack size of chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops which can be sold over the counter?
3 mL
5 mL
7 mL
10 mL
20 mL

20
Q

One of your patients has been prescribed Yasmin as an oral contraceptive. Oral contraception is a very commonly used reversible method of contraception, Many women rely on the pill to help prevent unwanted pregnancy and Yasmin is one of the commonly prescribed pills in the UK.
Which of the following is UNTRUE regarding Yasmin?
It can cause vaginal discharge
It contains drospirenone 3 mg
It contains ethinylestradiol 30 mcg
It is a monophasic 28-day preparation
It may cause sexual dysfunction

A

Yasmin is a monophonic 21 day prep not 28

21
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis presents with a myriad of symptoms, of which a very common presentation is pain and inflammation. You are treating a patient who is experiencing these symptoms.
Which of the following is licensed for pain and inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?
Domperidone
Esketamine
Febuxostat
Nabumetone
Naloxone

A

The only medication on this list licensed for pain and inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis is nabumetone.

22
Q

You are creating an antimicrobial prescribing policy for your trust.
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of linezolid in the treatment of infections caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

The BNF monograph is available here: https://bnf.nice.org.uk/drugs/linezolid/.

It does NOT have a role in the treatment of infections caused by MRSA

It is first line choice for all infections caused by MRSA

It is not active against Gram-negative organisms

It may be used for bronchiectasis caused by MRSA

It must be given with another antibacterial where infection involves Gram positive bacteria

A

The correct answer was It is not active against Gram-negative organisms
Linezolid, an oxazolidinone antibacterial, is active against Gram-positive bacteria including meticillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), and glycopeptide-resistant enterococci. Resistance to linezolid can develop with prolonged treatment or if the dose is less than that recommended. Linezolid is not active against common Gram-negative organisms; it must be given in combination with other antibacterials for mixed infections that also involve Gram-negative organisms

23
Q

You are updating your pharmacy SOPs with regards to the management and dispensing of pregabalin.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for pregabalin?
Dose on prescription
Drug formulation on prescription
Drug strength on prescription
Safe custody
Total quantity in words and figures on prescription

A

no safe custody

24
Q

A 21-year-old man who weighs 55 kg, is admitted to hospital seriously ill with diabetic ketoacidosis. He is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The doctor decides that the patient will be prescribed a ‘basal bolus regimen’.

The BNF treatment summary is available here: https://bnf.nice.org.uk/treatment-summaries/type-1-diabetes/
What is the most appropriate regimen for this patient?

Humalog (insulin lispro) three times daily plus Novorapid (insulin aspart) once daily
Actrapid (insulin soluble) three times daily plus Novomix 30 (insulin aspart) once daily
Novorapid (insulin aspart) three times daily plus Lantus (insulin glargine) once daily
Humalog Mix25 (insulin lispro) twice daily
Novorapid (insulin aspart) three times daily plus Actrapid (insulin soluble) once daily
A

Novorapid (insulin aspart) ads and Lantus (insulin glargine) once daily

25
A 75-year-old man is taking the following medicines: bisoprolol 2.5 mg once daily clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily lansoprazole 30 mg once daily metformin m/r 500 mg twice daily atorvastatin 20 mg once daily. He has type 2 diabetes and had a transient ischaemic attack last year. He is also currently being treated for a mild skin infection. He is due to have knee replacement surgery and will be prescribed dabigatran 150 mg once daily for prophylaxis of venous embolism. Which of his existing medicines may need to be stopped because dabigatran is started? Atorvastatin Bisoprolol Clarithromycin Lansoprazole Metformin
Clarithromycin increases the exposure to Dabigatran. Manufacturer advises monitor. As the patient is only being treated for a mild skin infection the best course of action is to stop the clarithromycin whilst undergoing treatment with dabigatran
26
A father comes into your pharmacy with his 2-year-old son. His son has a rash which extends from the face down to the chest. The rash is made up of small red-brown, slightly raised spots that join together into larger blotchy patches. He has a runny nose, conjunctivitis and has greyish-white spots with a red ring in the mouth. Which of the following childhood infections are these symptoms most likely to represent? Chicken pox Measles Meningitis Mumps Rubella
Measles
26
You receive a prescription for a schedule 3 CD in tablet form. Which of the following is a legally appropriate wording for the directions on the prescription? As directed As per chart Every day One PRN Weekly
One PRN - for a direction to be legal it must contain the number of doses to be taken/used
27
You have been working on a cytotoxic rotation within your trust and are required to learn the eight side effects of cytotoxic drugs. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of cytotoxic drugs? Alopecia Excessive bone marrow production Extravasation of intravenous drugs Hyperuricaemia Oral mucositis
Excessive bone marrow production is incorrect - cytotoxic drugs cause bone marrow suppression
28
Different medications require different prescription requirements. You are running a session for medical students regarding the legalities of prescription drugs. A student asks a question regarding the requirements of atenolol. Which of the following is NOT a prescription requirement for a non-electronic private prescription for atenolol 25 mg tablets? If repeatable, the number of times the supply can be dispensed Name and address of patient Prescribers address Prescribers signature in indelible ink Prescription dated within 3 months
The correct answer was Prescription dated within 3 months Atenolol is a standard POM. The prescription requirements for POMs state that the prescription must be within date to be dispensed. For standard POMs a prescription must be dated within 6 months to be supplied
29
A patient experiencing an epileptic seizure is brought into Accident and Emergency for treatment. What is the most appropriate treatment for patients to be prescribed for treatment of status epilepticus should they experience this in their day-to-day life? Clobazam tablets Clonazepam tablets Diazepam intravenously Diazepam rectally Midazolam buccally
The correct answer was Midazolam buccally Diazepam IV would be unusual for epilepsy with rectal diazepam being preferred as it is a safer and rapidly acting option. However, in day-to-day life this may be difficult to administer. Midazolam buccal would be the drug of choice in practice as it is also well absorbed. It is placed between the gum and the teeth along the side of the tongue and may be split so that a dose is given into each cheek to avoid accidental swallowing.
30
A patient is admitted with a upper GI bleed. Which agent is the most likely cause of the bleed in this patient? Alendronic acid Citalopram Clopidogrel Lansoprazole Ramipril
Clopidogrel has the highest risk of causing a GI bleed from the drugs listed