Tax_Reg_Review Deck_3 Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

When IRS issues a Preliminary Notice (30 day Letter) to the tax payer?

A

If an individual taxpayer rejects the IRS examiner’s findings in an audit of the taxpayer’s tax return, the IRS will issue the taxpayer a 30-day letter (preliminary notice) notifying the taxpayer of the right to appeal.

The taxpayer has 30 days to request an administrative appeals conference with the IRS Office of Appeals.

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2
Q

Which are the Courts of Original Jurisdiction for Tax cases?

A

The courts of original jurisdiction for tax cases, i.e., the courts in which
a taxpayer would first bring a lawsuit against the IRS, are -
A. The Tax Court,
B. The U.S. District Court, and
C. The U.S. Court of Federal Claims.

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3
Q

True or False:

The U.S. Court of Federal Claims has jurisdiction over most claims for money damages against the United States.

A

TRUE!

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4
Q

True or False:

The U.S. Tax Court is a specialized trial court, not an appellate court. It hears only Federal tax cases, not Federal tax and other Federal cases.

A

TRUE!

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5
Q

What is tax payer’s action upon receipt of Notice of Deficiency from IRS?

A

Upon receipt of a notice of deficiency from the IRS, the taxpayer has 90 days to pay the deficiency or file a petition with the Tax Court for a redetermination of the deficiency.

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6
Q

Small Cases Division of the US Tax Court -

A

A taxpayer can file a petition in the Small Cases Division if the amount in dispute does not exceed $50,000 for any one tax year.

A decision of the Small Cases Division of the U.S. Tax Court cannot be relied on as precedent in any other court. The decision only applies to that particular taxpayer in that particular case.

Decisions of Small Cases Division are NOT APPEALABLE by either parties.

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7
Q

Civil Fraud Penalties -

A

Maintaining false records and reporting fictitious transactions is adequate to demonstrate civil fraud, a willful and deliberate attempt to evade taxes.

Civil Penalties - at least 75% of the understatement of tax due to fraud.

Criminal penalties are also applied in Fraud cases.

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8
Q

What is Private Letter Ruling (PLR)?

A

The IRS issues a private letter ruling (PLR) in response to a taxpayer’s request for guidance on the tax treatment of a proposed transaction, typically one with significant tax consequences.

A private letter ruling can be relied on by the taxpayer to whom it is issued, but cannot be relied on as precedent by other taxpayers.

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9
Q

True or False:

Interest on a tax deficiency begins to accrue on the date the original tax was due, even if an extension of time to file was filed.

A

TRUE!

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10
Q

General or Majority rule for the liability of a CPA or Tax Preparer

A

The majority rule (the law followed in the majority of the states) is that accountants are liable to anyone in a class (such as potential lenders or investors) of third parties whom
the CPA knows will rely on the opinion of the financial statements.

The CPA is liable to all possible foreseeable users of the CPA’s opinion.

KEY POINT TO REMEMBER IN MCQ CHOICES:
NEVER SELECT ANSWER WITH FOLLOWING WORDS:
All, Always, Never, Only and Must - these are wrong choices.

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11
Q

Ultramares or Minority rule for the liability of a CPA or Tax Preparer

A

Ultramares limits the accountant’s liability for negligence to:
(i) parties in privity and
(ii) intended third party beneficiaries.

Parties who are merely “foreseen” cannot recover.

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12
Q

What is Scienter and how this can turn as best defense to an accountant (CPA)?

A

Scienter is a one of the elements of Fraud case which means “AN INTENT TO DECEIVE”.

A suit for common law fraud may succeed only if the accountant
acted with scienter (knew that the statement was wrong or recklessly disregarded the truth).

Proving LACK OF SCIENTER (No Intention to Deceive) and taken reasonable Due Care will work as Defense in a Fraud case.

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13
Q

Define Constructive Fraud

A

Constructive Fraud = GROSS NEGLIGENCE.
Reckless departure from standards of due care constitutes gross
negligence, which is also called constructive fraud.

A CPA who commits constructive fraud is liable to all plaintiffs, not just those with whom the CPA dealt or of whom the CPA knew.

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14
Q

What are five elements of Fraud?

A

The five elements are:
(i) misrepresentation of a material fact
(ii) scienter (which is an intent to deceive)
(iii) actual and justifiable reliance
(iv) intent to induce reliance; and
(v) damages

Proving the LACK OF SCEINTER (NO INTENTION TO DECEIVE) is a good defense for a CPA in Fraud suit.

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15
Q

What are the elements of Negligence a Plaintiff MUST SHOW / PROVE?

A

Elements of Negligence, the plaintiff MUST SHOW / PROVE:
1. the defendant owed a Duty of Care to the plaintiff
2. the defendant breached that duty by failing to act with due care
3. the breached caused plaintiff’s injury
4. Damages.

A defence for a CPA in negligence would be -

A defense that the negligence was not the proximate cause of plaintiff’s losses would be a valid defense, as the third element would not exist.

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16
Q

True or False:

Under the majority position an accountant is liable for negligence only to third parties whom the accountant knows or should foresee will be relying on the accountant’s work.

A

TRUE!

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17
Q

Difference between Constructive Fraud and Actual Fraud -

A

Constructive fraud does not require intent. Constructive fraud only
requires reckless disregard for truth or falsity.

Actual fraud, on the other hand, requires intent in making a material
misstatement, upon which the plaintiff justifiably relies (and that the
plaintiff suffers damages).

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18
Q

Exception situations when a CPA can share their workpapers without the client permission -

A

An accountant is prohibited from showing the workpapers to anyone without the client’s permission, EXCEPT:
1. Lawful subpoena
2. Prospective purchasers, as long as the prospective purchasers do not disclose the confidential information
3. Quality control panel.
4. AICPA/State Trial Board.
5. Court proceedings.
6. When GAAP requires disclosure of such information in the financial statements.

Workpapers are owned by Accountant or Tax Preparer.
Accountants can share workpapers to his/her Attorney in defense lawsuit against them.

19
Q

Dividend Received Deduction (DRD) for Corporations and it’s limitation :

A

The dividends-received deduction (DRD) is generally calculated as 50 percent of dividends received (where % holding of Corporation is less than 20%).

However, the deduction is limited to 50% × dividends-received deduction (DRD) modified taxable income.

DRD modified taxable income is calculated as taxable income before the dividends-received deduction, any NOL deduction, and capital loss carryback deduction

20
Q

True or False:

Business gifts are deductible up to a maximum deduction of $25 per recipient per year.

21
Q

True or False:

Alimony payments are deductible as Adjustment to Gross Income to arrive at Adjusted Gross Income (AGI).

A

TRUE!

Alimony payments are deductible to arrive at adjusted gross income (AGI) if the payments are made pursuant to a divorce settlement executed on or before December 31, 2018.

22
Q

A claim will not be discharged in a bankruptcy proceeding if it_______________

A

Arises from an extension of credit based upon false representations by the debtor to the creditor.

23
Q

When is the express warranty created with respect to a sale of goods?

A

An “express” warranty is created by the seller’s description of the goods which forms part of the basis of the bargain between the parties.

The “express” warranty does not require that the seller select goods knowing the buyer’s intended use.

24
Q

True or False:

A Non-compensated surety will be discharged from liability if the principal debtor and the creditor modify the terms of the contract in any way.

A

TRUE!

A Surety will be discharged from the liability if the creditor failed to notify the surety of a partial surrender of the principal debtor’s collateral.

25
Under the liquidation provisions of Chapter 7 of the federal Bankruptcy Code, what types of properties acquired by the debtor are included after the filing?
The bankruptcy estate includes property the debtor receives from a bequest, devise, inheritance, property settlement, divorce decree or beneficial interest in a life insurance policy or death benefit plan within 180 days after the filing of the petition. In addition, the estate includes any income generated by estate property (rents, interest and dividends) after the petition is filed. Earned income after the case commences is generally excluded. Alimony, Child Support and Social Security payments are NOT included.
26
True or False: Release of Collateral must be signed by the debtor under the Secured Transactions Article of the UCC.
FALSE! The security agreement must be signed or authenticated by the debtor. The Secured Transaction Article permits a creditor to release all or part of his rights to collateral described in a security agreement. A release of collateral must be signed by the creditor, not the debtor.
27
What type of mistake made allows for rescission of the contract?
Mutual mistake of material fact. If both parties in a contract are mistaken as to a material fact regarding the contract, the adversely affected party can avoid the contract.
28
Rule for gifted properties tax basis and relevant gains -
The general rule for the basis of an asset acquired by gift is a carryover of the donor’s basis. But there is an exception when the FMV at the date of gift is below the carryover basis When the tax-payer sells the gifted property for the greater than the roll over basis i.e. original price of the donor, the gain is the difference between the Sale Price and Rollover basis. When the taxpayer sells gifted property for Lower than FMV at the date of the gift, the loss is the FMV of the gift at the time of gift Less Sale Price.
29
True or False: Fraud in the inducement makes a contract voidable.
TRUE! If a person is defrauded into entering into a contract because its terms or the surrounding circumstances are not as represented (that is, fraud in the inducement), the contract is merely voidable.
30
Attributed of Limited Liability Companies (LLC) -
1. All Members (Owners) have Limited liability. 2. All Members may participate in management and control of the entity. 3. Unless otherwise agreed, LLC is dissolved upon the death, retirement, resignation, bankruptcy etc. of a Member.
31
What 90 days notice of deficiency explains to the tax-payer?
A statutory notice of deficiency, or 90-day letter, explains that the taxpayer has 90 days to either pay the deficiency or file a petition with the U.S. Tax Court.
32
What is the right of cumulative preferred stockholders of a corporation?
Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid, to future years. Cumulative preferred dividends are dividends that must be paid before any dividend can be paid to holders of non-preferred shares. The right to the dividend accumulates if it is not paid in a particular year
33
What type of liens general requires the lien-holders to give notice of legal action before selling the debtor's property?
Mechanic's Lien and Artisan Lien. Mechanic's lien arises from improvements made on real property. An artisan's lien arises from improvements made to personal property. Both require notice to the owner of the property in most states.
34
Accruable expense rule for an accrual basis tax payer -
An accruable expense is one is which the services have been received/performed but have not been paid for by the end of the reporting period. for example - A repair completed prior to year end but not invoiced.
35
True or False: A debtor must be Insolvent to file a Voluntary bankruptcy petition under Chapter 7.
FALSE! A debtor need not be insolvent to file a voluntary petition under Chapter 7. Additionally, there is no requirement of 3 creditors in a voluntary petition. An involuntary petition requires at least 3 creditors to file if the debtor has 12 or more creditors.
36
Involuntary bankruptcy petition under Chapter 7 -
An involuntary petition for bankruptcy can be filed if a debtor owes more than $18,600 in unsecured debt and is not paying its debts as they become due. When there are fewer than 12 unsecured creditors, any one creditor who is owed at least $18,600 (as adjusted for inflation) in unsecured debt or more may file an involuntary petition in bankruptcy.
37
True or False: A corporate veil of a closely held corporation is pierced when the corporation is thinly capitalized at the time of formation.
TRUE! The corporate veil of limited liability may be pierced and the personal assets of the shareholders may be reached to satisfy corporate obligations if the corporation was inadequately (thinly) capitalized at the time of its formation
38
The Social Security tax base is calculated on ____________
A. Employee's Gross Wages (with applicable limitation). B. Self Employed's person's net profit from self employment.
39
True or False: Punitive damages are available for intentional breaches of contract.
FALSE! Punitive damages ARE NOT available in a contract action, even if the breach was intentional
40
Attachment under Article 9 of the UCC applies primarily to the rights of _______
Parties to Secured Transactions. Attachment establishes a secured party's right to take possession of collateral from a debtor when there is a default on a secured transaction.
41
What are the requirements of Attachment under the Secured Transactions Article of the UCC?
Attachment requires - 1. The parties agree to create a security interest either by security agreement or the creditor's taking possession or control of the collateral. 2. Debtor must have rights in the collateral, and 3. Creditor must give value.
42
True or False: The death of an offeror prior to acceptance terminates the offer by operation of law without notice to the offeree.
TRUE!
43
Interest on Series EE savings bonds is tax-exempt when the following conditions are met -
I. Interest is used to pay for higher education of taxpayer, a spouse, or dependents. II. Eligible higher education expenses are reduced by tax-free scholarships III. The taxpayer is over age 24 when the bonds are issued IV. The bonds are acquired after 1989 V. The interest exclusion is subject to a phase-out