Tech Quiz

Question 1

Definition TORA?

Answer 1

T\O run available. ( the length of runway available as suitable for the ground run of a t/o).

Question 2

Definition TODR?

Answer 2

T/O distance required.

Question 3

2. When flying from AKL to Perth on a great circle, what happens to heading? Does it slowly increase or decrease?

Answer 3

Heading will increase as great Circle is concave to equator on Mercator chart

Question 4

3. When flying from AKL to Perth on a great circle, is it a straight or curved line on a Lamberts chart?

Answer 4

Great circles are straight lines on Lamberts charts (in fact very slightly curved towards parallel of origin)

Question 5

4. With a constant IAS, what happens to Mach # and TAS during a climb?

Answer 5

Mach # and TAS will increase

Question 6

5. What is the temp at 39,000 ft in ISA?

Answer 6

From 36,090 feet temperature is constant at -56.5°C

Question 7

6. How do you work out the local speed of sound? What is LSS at sea level at ISA conditions?

Answer 7

LSS = 38.94√Temperature (where temperature is in Kelvin)

At sea level = √ (273+15) = 660.83 knots

Question 8

7. When flying EAST are the days longer or shorter?

Answer 8

Shorter as earth is rotating towards East

Question 9

8. What is MCRIT?

Answer 9

MCRIT is the critical Mach number. This is the speed at which the airflow over certain parts of the airframe (most likely the point of maximum camber of the aerofoil) reaches M1.0. MCRIT is increased through slimness and through the use of sweepback.

Question 10

9. Which part of a swept wing stalls first?

Answer 10

A raw swept wing will stall at the tips first. The total airflow over the swept wing includes a span wise vector. The flow of air outwards along the wing causes the boundary layer on a swept wing to drift outwards towards the tips resulting in an undesirably thick boundary layer in the region of the tips. The retardation of the air by the boundary layer is one of the major causes of the stall. A thick boundary layer will encourage the stall. The boundary layer is thicker at the wingtips therefore the tip is likely to stall before the root.

When a tapered wing is also swept, the tip stalling trend is enhanced by the span wise airflow towards the tip, particularly at low speed and high lift hence the need to avoid a grossly large taper ratio.

The degree of this trend is modified by the varying use of built-in wing twist; span wise aerofoil variation, vortex generators, in the gear/flap configuration, and leading edge and trailing edge devices. Reducing sweepback using crescent shaped wings may be a possibility

Question 11

10. Does a jet have a critical engine?

Answer 11

On a jet there is no critical engine in a nil wind situation. Its VMCA in the flight manual is a fixed speed and does not change with the effects of a crosswind (during certification VMCA tests are conducted in zero wind and no nose-wheel steering)

In a crosswind situation the preferred engine to lose would be the outboard downwind engine as the crosswind will aid in directional control opposing the yaw caused by the failed engine (due to weather cocking action of the cross wind against the vertical stabiliser). This effect will be exactly the same on the reverse side Thus on a 4 engine aircraft taking off with wind from right to left the No4 engine (right hand outboard) would be the critical engine (reference: Stanley Stewart – Flying the Big Jets)

In the cruise the outboard engines in a 4 engined aircraft are considered to be the critical engines

Question 12

11. How do you stop Dutch roll?

Answer 12

A yaw damper will prevent Dutch roll but if this fails use aileron.

A yaw damper is a gyro system sensitive to changes in yaw which feeds a signal into the rudder which then applies rudder to oppose the yaw. With this device, a Dutch roll will not develop because the yaw which triggers it all off is not allowed to develop. It applies the rudder in the correct direction and in the correct amount, thus preventing the slip starting or building up and stopping all rolling tendency Apart from the swept wing, the basic cause of Dutch rolling tendency is lack of effective fin and rudder area.

Question 13

12. What happens to TOD point with increased weight? Or … In a descent at a constant speed of 300 kts (which is > Vmin drag) the glide angle will be (shallower / steeper) at a higher weight?

Answer 13

TOD will be closer to point of origin in order to reduce angle of descent (forward component of weight greater at higher weights)

Question 14

13. What effect does an aft C of G have on range?

Answer 14

For maximum range it would be best to load it with an aft CoG as this would require an upward force from the tailplane (or less of a downward force required from the tailplane) which acts in the same direction as lift and hence opposes some of the aircraft’s weight. Less lift from the mainplanes means less drag therefore less thrust is required, less thrust means reduced fuel flow and hence more range can be obtained for the amount of fuel on board.

Question 15

14. How many satellites are required for RAIM detection? Number of satellites required for RAIM detection AND exclusion?

Answer 15

RAIM is a software algorithm that is available in some GPS receivers which gives an indication if the position solution given by the GPS receiver is OK to use.
It is OK to use if the position solutions (latitude, longitude and altitude), worked out from any four of at least five or more GPS satellites, all fall within a pre-defined tolerance. If the solution falls outside this tolerance then a RAIM warning is given which is indicated on the receiver. This means that the accuracy of the position on the receiver can not be guaranteed at that point in time and so it is advisable not to use the GPS for navigation until this warning disappears.
The RAIM availability (or ability of a GPS receiver to provide a RAIM warning) is dependent on the number of satellites available or in view by the GPS receiver. Remembering we need a minimum of five satellites to provide a RAIM warning.
For RAIM detection and exclusion 6 satellites required.
So, if there are less than this number at any point in time at some location then this is identified as a ‘RAIM hole’ (or RAIM unavailability).
It is basically a function of the geometry of the GPS satellites overhead of the receiver. Additionally, some satellites may have been taken out for ‘maintenance’ by the owners of the GPS constellation - the U.S. Department of Defence (DoD). GPS NOTAMS or Notice Advisories to Navstar Users (NANUs as they are called) are disseminated by the DoD prior to any planned GPS satellite outage.
Baro-aiding may be used to improve RAIM availability since the additional altitude information provided by baro-aiding effectively acts as an additional satellite. Baro-aiding will be made mandatory for IFR GPS use and will be included in New Zealand Civil Aviation Rules Part 91.
IMPORTANT NOTE: GPS receivers that also provide RAIM prediction do not take into account GPS satellites which have been taken out of service for maintenance by the United States Department of Defence. Their RAIM predictions may not be accurate therefore. The RAIM Prediction Service takes both the satellite geometry and maintenance outages into account giving more accurate predictions.
The RAIM Prediction Service provides RAIM outage information for aerodromes with a published GPS approach and some additional aerodromes as a check of RAIM coverage.
RAIM outage data is computed once per day (at 1400 UTC) or when a satellite outage NOTAM has been received. The computation is for the following 72 hour period

Question 16

Definition V1?

Answer 16

The speed on which from a balanced field takeoff it is possible to either reject the takeoff and stop within the available stopping distance or to continue after engine failure and clear a screen height of 35 feet at the end of the surface available. In effect V1 is a “go speed”.

Question 17

Definition VMCA?

Answer 17

VMCA is the minimum airspeed at which, when sudden and complete failure of the critical engine occurs at that speed, at 50feet (takeoff flap and max power on live engine, failed engine not feathered) it is possible to recover the airplane and maintain it in straight flight at that speed, either with zero yaw or with an angle of bank not in excess of 5°. Must be greater than or equal to 1.2VS (with undercarriage retracted and flaps in takeoff position)

Question 18

Definition V2?

Answer 18

V2 is the take-off safety speed or initial target climb speed. It is the speed to be attained at or before 35’ following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients are achieved and hence obstacles are cleared by the required margins.

Question 19

Definition VMCG?

Answer 19

VMCG is the minimum speed on the ground during the take off run, at which it is possible to recover control of the aircraft with the use of primary aerodynamic controls and the takeoff can be continued safely, when the critical engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with the remaining engines at takeoff thrust. Usually VMCG is higher than VMCA as cannot use 5° bank.

Question 20

Definition VA?

Answer 20

VA is the design manoeuvring speed, the maximum speed at which application of full available rudder, aileron or elevator will not overstress the aircraft.

Question 21

Abbreviations, FG, BR, VA?

Answer 21

FG = Fog
BR = Mist (Brume)
VA = Volcanic Ash

Question 22

Abbreviations

Answer 22

GR = Hail (GS = Small hail)
SN = Snow
SQ = Squall
TS = Thunderstorm
SG = Snow grains

Question 23

Abbreviations, GR, SN, SQ, TS, SG?

Answer 23

GR = Hail (GS = Small hail)
SN = Snow
SQ = Squall
TS = Thunderstorm
SG = Snow grains

Question 24

Abbreviations PRFG, PL, MIFG, FU, BCFG?

Answer 24

PRFG = Partial Fog (covering part of aerodrome)
PL = Ice pellets
MIFG = shallow fog
FU = smoke
BCFG = fog patches

Question 25

17. What is a katabatic wind?

Answer 25

A katabatic wind is a down-slope wind that develops as air cools in contact with cold ground and slips down the side of the hill

Question 26

18. Describe the parameters of CAVOK? General.

Answer 26

* Visibility better than 10km * no cloud below 5’000 AGL or below minimum sector altitude whichever is the higher * no CB’s, precipitation, drifting fog, dust devils etc

Question 27

19. What are Dangerous Goods (DGs) classes?

Answer 27

``` Class Type Includes 1 Explosives. Ammunition, explosives, fireworks 2 Gases. Aerosols, lighter refills, sparklet bulbs 3 Flammable liquids. Paint, paint thinners 4 Flammable solids. Calcium carbide 5 Oxidisers. Catalysts, pool chlorine 6 Toxic. Agricultural chemicals 7 Radioactive. ``` ``` 8 Corrosives. Caustic cleaners 9 Miscellaneous. Mercury, motor vehicles ```

Question 28

20. Centreline lighting becomes alternating red/white at what distance to the end of the runway? Centreline lighting becomes Red how much distance remains?

Answer 28

Lighting will be coded to show white from the threshold to a point 914m from the runway end; alternating red and white from 914m to 300m from end; and red between 300m and runway end.

Question 29

What is a sector 1 entry to a holding pattern?

Answer 29

Parallel entry = Sector 1 Turn onto outbound heading and fly to DME limiting outbound distance then turn onto holding side to intercept inbound heading.

Question 30

What is a sector 2 entry to holding pattern?

Answer 30

Offset entry = Sector 2 Having reached fix aircraft is turned to fly track of 30° from reciprocal of inbound track (on side of pattern). Fly outbound for appropriate distance or time, then turned to intercept inbound track.

Question 31

What is sector 3 entry to holding pattern?

Answer 31

Sector 3 = direct.

Question 32

What times are used for holds above and below FL140?

Answer 32

Standard leg 1 minute below FL140 or 1 ½ minutes above FL140 Pilot may allow for wind if timed legs otherwise DME always limiting distance Speeds

Question 33

Max hold speed 14000ft and below, standard and turbulent?

Answer 33

230kts unless 1st segment of approach is above 230kts. (170kts cat b.) Turbulent 280kts (170kts.catB)

Question 34

Max hold speeds 14000ft to 20000ft? Normal turbulent

Answer 34

240kts | Turbulent =lessor of 240kts or m.80

Question 35

Max hold speeds 20000ft -34000ft? Normal and turbulent

Answer 35

265kts. | Turbulent =lessor of 265kts and m.80

Question 36

Max hold above 34000ft? Normal turbulent

Answer 36

M.83 for both.

Question 37

22. Hydroplaning speed of rotating wheel 100psi?

Answer 37

Theoretical minimum hydroplaning speeds = 9 x √tyre pressure | So 90 knots

Question 38

How do you work out headwind and crosswind?

Answer 38

Headwind component = surface wind x cos Ө | Crosswind component = surface wind x sin Ө

Question 39

24. Flying Wellington to Chathams ETP of 1hr 50min, you are 10min ahead of flight plan (tail wind) what effect on ETP? Will it be closer to Wellington or Chathams?

Answer 39

Closer to Wellington

Question 40

25. What does sweepback do for stability and critical mach

Answer 40

• The primary purpose of sweepback is to increase the value of MCRIT for a given aircraft. Since only the component of the relative airflow across the wing which is parallel with the chord line can be considered as producing/creating lift, only the vector speed of this chordwise component is significant when considering MCRIT. In effect, the wing is persuaded to believe that it is flying slower than it really is; this means that the airspeed can be increased before the effective chordwise component becomes sonic and thus the critical Mach # is raised. This is why a high speed a/c has a swept wing. As the thickness/chord ratio defines the amount of acceleration imposed on the upper surface stream it follows that the thinner the wing, the lower the acceleration, and the higher will be the airspeed before, for this reason alone, the upper flow becomes sonic. This is why a high speed a/c has a thin swept wing. : • Lateral stability (about the longitudinal axis) is reduced. If a straight wing aircraft is yawing it also rolls; this tendency is increased in a swept wing aircraft because the effective spans on both wings are altered. With yaw, both values of V and CL are increased on the outer wing and reduced on the inner wing posing a very marked tendency to roll the aircraft. • Longitudinal stability (about the lateral axis) is also reduced due to the effects of mach tuck

Question 41

26. Dihedral provides what stability about what axis? Why do we use dihedral?

Answer 41

Dihedral is the angle between the mainplanes (or tailplane) and the horizontal. If the planes are inclined upwards towards the wingtips this is positive and is called dihedral, if downwards this is negative and called anhedral. Anhedral is used for dynamic stability. Dihedral is an aid to lateral stability (about the aircraft longitudinal axis).

Question 42

27. Static vent blocked effect on altimeter in climb (over read/under read)?

Answer 42

Altimeter will read at altitude where it became blocked as it only reads static pressure – therefore under-read.

Question 43

28. At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?

Answer 43

With reference to Part 91 Pressurised Aircraft when cabin exceeds 10,000ft • Crew supplemental oxygen to be used • Crew supplemental and portable oxygen to be used if away from station Pressurised aircraft between FL350-410 • 1 pilot at controls must be wearing mask whenever cabin is above FL130 • Or if 2 pilots at controls must have access to masks in 5 seconds Pressurised aircraft above FL410 • I pilot at controls wearing mask at all times Pressurised aircraft in event of pressurisation failure • Unless aircraft can descend below FL140 in 4 minutes then supplemental oxygen for each passenger to be used whenever cabin is above FL140 Unpressurised Aircraft • When above FL130 continuous oxygen for pax and crew • Between 10,000 and FL130 for more than 30 minutes continuous oxygen for crew and supplemental for passengers

Question 44

29. At 36000 ft and wanting to climb, the SAT is -42. What ISA chart would you refer to for climb performance? ISA -5, ISA, ISA+5, ISA+10, ISA+15, ISA+20 etc...

Answer 44

ISA @ 36,000 = -56.5 so ISA +15

Question 45

30. Definition of ISA ( be specific i.e. units and 3 decimal places )

Answer 45

Pressure 1013.25 hpa reducing by 1 Hpa per 27 feet Temperature 15°celcius Density 1.225 kg/m3 Temperature Lapse Rate is 1.98°C per 1000’ up to 36 090’ then –56.5°C Gravity 9.82 m/s2

Question 46

31. In ISA conditions what is the temperature at FL 390.

Answer 46

Above 36,090 feet temperature is -56.5°C

Question 47

Above 36,090 feet temperature is -56.5°C

Answer 47

See charts

Question 48

33. WX Radar return shows steep gradient and hollow centre to the cloud in front of you. What does this indicate?

Answer 48

This is indicative of a storm cell – where there is a very sharp change from light to heavy rain. A sharp shear zone is defined as a radar return showing less than three miles between a contoured hollow or “hole” and an area of no returns. To avoid severe turbulence avoid areas showing a sharp shear zone by at least 5nm.

Question 49

34. Definitions of Tempo & Inter.

Answer 49

TEMPO Changes are expected to last for a period of less than an hour and sufficiently infrequently foir the prevailing conditions to remain as reported. INTER Intermittent changes are expected to last for a period of less than 30 minutes and take place sufficiently infrequently for the prevailing conditions to remain unchanged

Question 50

35. Which part and stage of a thunderstorm will have the most ice and turbulence?

Answer 50

Icing – worst at point just above the freezing level from 0° to -10°c Turbulence – worst ahead of and below CB

Question 51

36. Advection / sea fog?

Answer 51

Advection fog occurs when a warm moist air mass moves over a progressively colder surface. Moist air masses move pole wards over progressively colder waters – resulting in sea fog and most commonly occurs in the warm sectors of depressions. Maybe widespread and persistent even in moderate winds.

Question 52

37. If two aircraft are approaching each other head on and are 225 nm apart at 0000 UTC, what time will they pass if aircraft 1 is doing 420 kts and aircraft 2 is doing 480 kts?

Answer 52

Closing speed is 900 knots: 225/900 = 0.25 = 15 minutes = 0015UTC

Question 53

38. TAS 120kts, Tailwind 60 kts (a-b), Fuel burn 100 kgs/hr. If the aircraft burns 100 kgs in a journey from a-b what will it burn from b-a.

Answer 53

A-B = 1 hour @ GS 180 knots = 180 nm. GS for return = 60 knots = 3 hours = 300kg

Question 54

39. Burn 8kg/nm. Range with a ton of gas?

Answer 54

Specific range | = 125 nm

Question 55

41. What is a Balanced Field Length

Answer 55

A balanced field exists when the TODA (take off distance available) = ASDA (accelerate stop distance available) i.e. when the clearway is also the end of the stopway.

Question 56

40. Calculation of max range given TAS, WC and fuel flow

Answer 56

Make up a calculation

Question 57

42. What is the definition of the second segment?

Answer 57

The second segment is from gear retraction to level acceleration altitude, which is normally a minimum of 400’ above the takeoff surface. In this segment the gear is retracted, the flaps are in the takeoff position and the aircraft is set in takeoff power. The speed is equal to V2 (initial climb out speed) and the required minimum gross gradient of climb, in a two engined aircraft, is 2.4%. The net flight path gradient is the gross flight path gradient reduced by 0.8%, i.e. 1.6%. Conditions: • Landing gear is retracted • The flaps are still in the takeoff position • The speed is V2 • The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4% • The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6%; and • Takeoff power is still set.

Question 58

43. In what situation is MCRIT at its lowest value

Answer 58

When the aircraft is at high altitude – as cold temperature means that LSS is lower than at sea level

Question 59

44. If climbing at constant Mach No. What happens to TAS and LSS?

Answer 59

LSS will decrease with a decrease in temperature so at a constant Mach number the TAS will decrease in the climb

Question 60

45. What happens to MCRIT with decrease in weight?

Answer 60

A decrease in weight will increase MCRIT due to reduced angle of attack required

Question 61

46. How would an aircraft reach MCRIT for the lowest TAS?

Answer 61

When LSS is at its lowest value; i.e. for any range of options the highest and coldest option

Question 62

47. Effect of flap on drag

Answer 62

An increase in flap setting increases lift and drag

Question 63

48. Effect of flap on angle of attack at the point of stall

Answer 63

The use of flap increases the CL of the wing by increasing the camber, therefore a higher angle of attack can be reached before the stall when compared with a flapless wing. Flap increases the angle of attack at the stall.

Question 64

49. Boundary layer does what as airflow goes from laminar to turbulent?

Answer 64

The boundary layer thickens in depth and produces more drag and less lift

Question 65

50. Reason for all-moving tailplane?

Answer 65

* Requirement of a large C of G range (large weight changes). * Need to cover a large speed range * Need to cope with large trim changes due to wing loading and trailing edge high lift devices without limiting the amount of elevator remaining. * Need to reduce trim drag.

Question 66

51. What assists longitudinal stability? (Fin, Tailplane or dihedral)

Answer 66

Tailplane

Question 67

52. To correct for a nose heavy aircraft with a variable incidence tailplane, the angle of incidence would ___________ and the leading edge would __________?

Answer 67

To balance this a downwards force, or a reduction in upwards force is required from the tailplane therefore the angle of incidence would decrease (maybe even negative) and the leading edge would lower

Question 68

53. In a roll to the right which spoiler extends and which aileron goes down?

Answer 68

Right spoiler extends and left aileron goes down.

Question 69

54. What is the definition of Part 121?

Answer 69

Part 121 is to prescribe the operating requirements for air operations of aeroplanes that have a passenger seating configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or a payload capacity of more than 3410 kg, carried out by the holder of an Airline Air Operator Certificate issued under Part 119 of the Rules

Question 70

55. Instrument rating currency requirement?

Answer 70

Every 12 months IFR renewal check 6 hours of instrument time every 3 months, 2 of which must be instrument flight time (including approach of each type – precision / non precision)

Question 71

56. Documents required on an international flight?

Answer 71

121.855 Documents to be carried (a) Each holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that the following documents are carried on each individual air operation— (1) details of the operational flight plan; and (2) NOTAM and aeronautical information service briefing documentation appropriate to the operation; and (3) meteorological information appropriate to the operation; and (4) the load manifest; and (5) notification of dangerous goods; and (6) copies of the relevant flight guide charts and plates; and (7) in the case of a regular air transport service, a route guide covering each route flown and alternate aerodromes that may be used. (b) The holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that separate copies of the documents referred to in paragraph (a)(7) are available for each pilot performing flight crew duties on the flight. * C of A * AFM * Aircraft Registration * Flight Crew Licences * Valid Maintenance. Release * Load Sheet * Flight records * List of Crew & Passengers * Cargo bills of lading and manifests * List of disposable stores and spare parts * Route Guide (if scheduled) * Flight Plan * Met information * Flight Guide * Dangerous goods notification

Question 72

57. How far out can an ETA be before you must tell ATC?

Answer 72

2 minutes (part 91.412)

Question 73

58. When can you descend below MDA on circling approach?

Answer 73

When cloud base and visibility permit and the approach and landing can be made using normal manoeuvres

Question 74

59. If you go IMC circling downwind? Do you execute the MAP for the “Active” runway or “approach” runway?

Answer 74

Execute the missed approach procedure for the approach that you were on It is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome where the pilot will establish the aircraft on the missed approach track. Different patterns will be required to establish the aircraft on the prescribed missed approach course depending on its position at the time that visual reference is lost.

Question 75

61. Explain ETOPS 10 lines or less with respect to part 121

Answer 75

* ETOPS stands for Extended Range Twin Engine Operations and is the term used to govern regulations and procedures pertinent to twin engine commercial aircraft operating on extended global or domestic routes with poor off track alternates. The basic premise regarding this topic is related to the concept of redundancy and failures of the powerplant/hull. The basis of ETOPS is the improved engine reliability shown by new age aircraft. * The rules state that any aircraft with two engines must be capable of flying to an adequate airport where it can land safely within 90 minutes at normal cruise speed or 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed (in still air conditions). It the aircraft can not comply with the above regulation – it is then required to become an ETOPS rated aircraft. * With an ETOPS rating, this rule is extended up to 90mins, 120mins, 138mins and 180mins * Individual aircraft must be specifically authorised. As new aircraft are introduced to the fleet a proving period is implemented at 120 min before a higher classification is considered. * Air New Zealand currently operates B737 on 120min ETOPs and B767 on 180 min ETOPs. However when suitable alternates exist for 120 min ETOPS it may be advantageous to operate to this criteria as opposed to 180 min. These advantages are in the area of MEL dispatch and minimum fuel reserves to be carried. * The ETOPS times stipulated simply determine the single engine time in still air from which an aircraft must remain from a suitable alternate.

Question 76

62. If you are under ATC speed control, how close to the assigned airspeed must you fly?

Answer 76

10kts

Question 77

63. If the marker beacons are NOTAM U/S for an ILS; what minima can you go to?

Answer 77

To ILS minima as long as alternate fix altitudes are nominated on the IAC or NOTAM and are used for altitude checks. NZ60!!!! Erroneous Glideslope

Question 78

64. What errors does the mach meter NOT suffer from?

Answer 78

Compressibility and density

Question 79

65. What happens to the altimeter if increase baro scale.

Answer 79

As the altimeter will sense a greater differential the hands will go up

Question 80

66. When will TCAS II not give an RA

Answer 80

An RA - Resolution Advisory depicted by a solid red square is provided when another transponder equipped aircraft is within 15 - 35 sec’s. Avoidance action is required.

Question 81

67. If GPS satellites orbit the earth every 12 hours, how does a GPS receiver know where to look when first turned on?

Answer 81

The GPS database carries an “Almanac” of satellite positions and any changes are transmitted to the GPS receiver by means of Service messages

Question 82

68. Regulation of AC voltage

Answer 82

Through use of a CSD (Constant Speed Drive)

Question 83

69. How do you control AC current?

Answer 83

Through a Generator Control Unit (GCU)

Question 84

70. Why do we heat fuel?

Answer 84

To prevent fuel freezing due to low ambient temperatures

Question 85

Definition TODA?

Answer 85

T/O distance available. ( includes the t/o run plus the length of clear way).

Question 86

What does extending the flaps from 5 to 15 do to V1?

Answer 86

Decreases V1

Question 87

What is the purpose of winglets?

Answer 87

To reduce induced drag, reducing wingtip vortices. | Raked wing tips are more efficient in long range a/c.

Question 88

How do vortex generators effect the boundary layer?

Answer 88

By creating a turbulent boundary layer that resists separation, low speed high angle of attack.

Question 89

What assists lateral stability?

Answer 89

Wing dihedral.

Question 90

What happens to angle/rod with increase of weight?

Answer 90

More weight = less angle so greater TOD point.

Question 91

What happens to ETP with wind?

Answer 91

Moves into wind.

Question 92

What is an error from the route source of the static system called?

Answer 92

Position error.

Question 93

If gps satellites orbit earth every 12hrs how does the GPS receiver know where to look when first turned on?

Answer 93

It keeps almanac data stored.

Question 94

What does the TREND section of the TAF mean?

Answer 94

Valid for 2hrs and supersedes TAF.

Question 95

When an A320 lines up and rolls from an intermediate intersection after a B767 rolls from full length. What is wake separation required?

Answer 95

3mins.

Question 96

What is full scale deflection on an ILS?

Answer 96

5degrees 2.5 either side.

Question 97

What is the aqua planing speed of tire at 200psi?

Answer 97

127kts

Question 98

Temps 10deg due point 5deg what is the cloud height?

Answer 98

2000ft | Temp difference divided by 2.5 times 1000 so.....5/2.5=2x1000=2000ft

Question 99

Main purpose of ground spoilers?

Answer 99

All spoilers extend at maximum angle and main purpose is to dump lift which increases weight on wheels making braking capability more effective.

Question 100

Inverter converts?

Answer 100

DC into AC. Just remember TR units on 737 power DC components.

Question 101

The effect of headwind on max range and max angle of climb?

Answer 101

Range will decrease | Angle will increase.

Question 102

What causes induced drag?

Answer 102

Lift, induced drag increases as angle of attack increases.

Question 103

When are inboard ailerons used?

Answer 103

All time so.

Question 104

ISA -15, on an ILS what will altimeter read on glideslope?

Answer 104

The formula I use is that the error will be 4ft per 1000ft for every degree Celsius deviation from ISA.

Question 105

Purpose of an accumulator?

Answer 105

An accumulator enables a hydraulic system to cope with extremes of demand using a less powerful pump, to respond more quickly to a temporary demand, and to smooth out pulsations. It is a type of energy storage device.

Question 106

What happens to the altimeter in a grounded a/c with the passage of a cold front?

Answer 106

Prior to passing of front = decreasing steadily At front = lowest then rapid increase After front = steadily increasing. Temp goes from warm to cooling suddenly to Cooling steadily p

Question 107

What happens to the altimeter in a grounded a/c with the passage of a warm front?

Answer 107

Prior to front decreases steadily At front levels off After front slight rise followed by decrease. Temp will go from cool to warming suddenly to warming still then levelling off.

Question 108

Static port blocks at FL320 then start a climb what happen to the ASI?

Answer 108

ASI will under read. Due to static pressure high than should be. Altimeter and VSI will show no change due to blocked static pressure.

Question 109

The bypass air in a high bypass jet engine is used for?

Answer 109

Thrust and engine cooling/ noise reduction.

Question 110

1. 27000-16000 at 800'/min 256kts. Want to level off at 6nm prior to vor, where is TOD

Answer 110

65nm

Question 111

How do you calculate density altitude?

Answer 111

density altitude = pressure altitude + [120 x (OAT - ISA Temp)]