Technology in Investment - Chapter 9 Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

What is chapter 9

A

Managing business change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which persons should be appointed as the senor responsible owner (SRO)

A

A senior executive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What other name may the Senior Responsible Owner be given

A

Project sponsor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the SRO responsible for?

A

Ensuring a project of change meets its objectives and projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a software development lifecycle (SDLC)

A

A standardised process of developing information systems or applications through the completion of defined steps or phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the SDLC Recognize (3)

A

Further the project is from completion, the greater the risk
Costs are lower at the beginning of the project
Changes are easier to make at the start of a project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Standardized SDLC approaches - What is Terms of reference

A

The management decides what capabilities and objectives it wishes the new system to incorporate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Standardized SDLC approaches - What is Feasibility Study

A

This asks whether the concept of the new system is actually feasible to build & develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a waterfall model?

A

The process of dividing the process into a number of phases. The first of which is requirements gathering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the fountain model

A

Some phases of development overlap during the development process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 4 requirements of the requirements gathering stage that must be met for the waterfall model to enter the second stage.

A

The requirements have:

  1. Gathered from users
  2. Fully understood by designers
  3. Fully documented buy the design team
  4. Signed of by the users
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens when there is an issue in a phases in the Waterfall model

A

The solution is returned to the previous phase and the rework occurs before the next phase re-continues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four drawbacks to the waterfall method

A

Customers may change their requirements
Estimating timing and costs is difficult
Paper to model is hard
Division of labor is not always easy or feasible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the iterative/incremental model

A

Various parts of the system are developed at different times or rates, and are integrated as they are completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the agile model?

A

Minimizing risk by developing lots of small packages of software in short amounts of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is prototyping

A

Putting together a prototype to rigorously test and develop using customer feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the spiral model

A

Meant for larger & expensive projects. 4 prototypes and then an operational prototype is created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three drawbacks to the agile model

A

Lack of formal documentation
The solution may ‘Drift’ from the optimal solution
Face-to-Face communication can be difficult to implement on large projects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Agile software development is not usually recommended for what kind of projects…

A

Large scale
Inexperienced developers
Geographically dispersed teams
Mission critical systems
Time critical developments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For agile methodologies, what is the product (Or system) owner ?

A

Most senior role in he group and is responsible for representing the stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For agile methodologies, what is the scrum master (Or team lead) ?

A

Project manager esk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For agile methodologies, what is the Team members ?

A

Leg workers. Analysts/developers/testers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For agile methodologies, what is the Stakeholders ?

A

Users/customers of the products. Also the regulators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Rapid Application Development? (RAD)

A

A prototype is quickly constructed that looks like the end product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
What is User End Development?
Set of activities that allows individual, who are non-professional, developers to make their own changes to the system.
24
What is Synchronize and Stabilize
An SDLC which teams work in parallel on a individual application module
24
What does good PRINCE 2 Practice encourage?
Controlled start, middle & end Regular progress reviews Built in decision points Management of deviation from plan Good communication between stakeholdes
25
What is a temporary and one-time endeavor
Undertaken to create a unique product or service, which brings about beneficial change or added value
26
What is a set of inter-related and controlled activities?
Have start and finish dates and have a unique objective to conform specific requirements
27
What is appointed during PRINE 2 during the stage of, Setting up a project (SU)
A project brief
28
What does the Planning (PL) stage of PRINCE 2 advocate?
Product based planning
29
What other key process happens during the PRINCE 2 setting up of a project stage (SU)
The project board, sponsor and manager are appointed
30
What document does the Initiating a project (IP) stage of PRINCE 2 produce from the project brief?
The business case
31
What does the Directing a Project (DP) stage of PRINCE 2 do?
How the project board should manage the sub-processes and provide ad hoc direction on how the project should be closed down
32
What does the Managing Product Delivery (MP) of PRINCE 2 do?
The way the work package should be accepted, executed and delivered
33
What does the Controlling a Stage (CS) of PRINCE 2 do?
Controls the sub-processes of the project
34
What does the Managing stage boundaries (SB) of PRINCE 2 do?
If a stage goes outside of tolerance levels, how it is reported and how the plan, risk log and business case and amended..
35
How many PRINCE 2 qualifications are there?
2
36
What is the foundation examination for PRINCE 2?
That the principles and terminology have been understood. (Theory test effectively)
37
What does the Closing a Project (CP) of PRINCE 2 do?
Covers the end of the project and the post evaluation and re-allocation of resources
38
What is the practitioner examination for PRINCE 2
Can apply PRINCE 2 theory whilst managing a project (Practical test effectively)
39
What is the Project Management Institute (PMI)
Formed in 1999 and a global body for Project Management with over 600,000 members in 214 countries
40
How is the PMBOK divided?
Into two parts: Project Initiation & Exam Essentials
40
What is the PMBOK Guide
a standard and guideline handbook for project management
40
The guide recognizes 44 process that fall into 5 categories, what are they?
1. initiating 2. planning 3. executing 4. controlling and monitoring, and 5. closing.
41
What is the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
ISO’s purpose is to facilitate international trade by providing a single set of standards that people everywhere can recognise and respect
42
What is ISO 9000:2000
Quality Management systems - Fundamentals and vocabulary
43
What is ISO 9001
Quality management systems – requirements
44
What is ISO 9004
Quality management systems – guidelines for performance improvements
44
What are the three audit processes typically addressed through ISO standards
* Tell me what you do * Show me where it says that * Prove the results
45
Software defects are graded A-D, which is the most serious A or D?
A
46
What is the the meaning of a Grade A software defect?
Serious issue. No workarounds for the users
47
What is the the meaning of a Grade B software defect?
Important part is not working but the users can use the data in another way
48
What is the the meaning of a Grade C software defect?
Minor part is not working but the users can use the data in another way
49
What is the the meaning of a Grade D software defect?
Cosmetic error - A spelling mistake or UI error
50
What is unit testing?
Each unit is tested in isolation
51
What is intergration testing
Software cmponents are intergrated and testsed unti the system works
52
What is functional testing
Tests at any level to ensure the functionality is working
53
What is system testing
Tests a completely integrated system to verify that it meets its requirements.
54
What is volume/load testing
Tests software for a certain data volume
55
What is breakpoint testing?
Adding data until the system breaks
56
What is system integration testing
Verifies that a system is integrated to any external or third party systems defined in requirements
57
UAT - What is Alpha testing
Testing done by users inside the developers sit e
58
UAT - What is Beta testing
Comes after alpha testing and sent to testers outside of the organization.
59
What is regression testing
Testing against existing functionality in the system
60
What is code walkthrough?
A manual testing technique where program logic is traced using a small set of test cases
61
What is White box testing
The tester has access to the source code and can write specific code to the area of change
62
What is Black box testing
Only tests the system through the eyes of a user. I.e what they can see
63
What is Grey box testing
Combination of black and white testing. The tester does know the functionality and the code but does test in small test cases
64
Why is grey box testing different to black box testing?
Because the tester during grey box testing is understanding of the source code and the functionality being tested
65
What is Smoke, Sanity and Skim testing?
Examination of all basic components of a system
66
What is agile testing
Tests are written before the code is deployed
67
What is the handshake/rattle test
Proves that is possible to send and receive communications between two systems
68
What is disruptive innovation
When technology improves a product the market does not expect. Like the low-cost motor vechile by ford or The first PC by apple
69
Cloud computing - What is Software as a service (Saas)
IAAS + PAAS + All the application sofware
70
Cloud computing - What is Infrastructure as a service (Iaas)
Basic infrastructure like network, servers, storage & processing power
71
Cloud computing - What is Platform as a service (Paas)
IAAS + Operating system, security & backups
72
What is Vision systems analysis (AI)
computers are developed to understand and make sense of their surrounding environment(s) and then act based on a set of preprogrammed rules, eg, spy planes working autonomously to search for predefined structures (such as missiles),
73
What is Machine Learning (ML)
Machine learning is a discipline of AI that allows technology systems to automatically learn and improve from experience (a) Without being explicitly programmed programmed and (b) With minimal human interaction.
73
What is open finance (
Open finance is the term employed to describe the extension of open banking data-sharing principles to enable organisations to access customer data across a range of financial sectors (including savings and investments).
74
How is AI used in Asset Management
In high frequency trading (HFT)
75
What is distributed ledger
a database that is shared and synchronised across multiple sites, firms or geographies
76