terms to know Flashcards

1
Q

the amount of a drug that enters central circulation and is able to cause an effect

A

bioavailability

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2
Q

administration of medication in a single dose (as opposed to an infusion)

A

bolus

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3
Q

for calculation purposes, this is the total amount of medication as packaged (total amount of a drug in the syringe, ampule, etc)

A

concentration

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4
Q

the drug amount intended for administration

A

dose

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5
Q

delivery of medication through the GI tract (oral, sublingual, rectal)

A

enteral

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6
Q

period of time required for concentration of drug in the body to be reduced by one half

A

half life

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7
Q

the amount of an ingested substance (in mg/kg) that kills 50% of a test sample

A

LD (lethal dose) 50

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8
Q

delivery of a medication outside of the GI tract (IV, IO, IM, SQ, intranasal)

A

parenteral

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9
Q

movement of a drug through the body, includes absorption, bioavailability, distribution, metabolism, excretion)

A

pharmacokinetics

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10
Q

the mechanism of action of a medication

A

pharmacodynamics

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11
Q

the range between minimum effective dose of a medication and the maximum safe dose. The narrower the therapeutic index, the more risk associated with the medication

A

therapeutic index

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12
Q

for calculation purposes, this is the total amount of fluid available as packaged (total amount of fluid in the syringe, ampule, etc)

A

volume

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13
Q

related to the sympathetic nervous system

A

adrenergic

*think adrenaline

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14
Q

unintended effect of a medication administration

A

adverse effect

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15
Q

medication that stimulated a specific response

A

agonist

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16
Q

medication that reduces pain

A

analgesic

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17
Q

medication that inhibits a specific action

A

antagonist

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18
Q

single dose of a medication, given all at once

A

bolus

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19
Q

related to the parasympathetic nervous system

A

cholinergic

*think acetylcholine

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20
Q

circumstance when a medication should not be used

A

contraindication

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21
Q

repeated administration of a medication that produces effects that are more pronounced than the first dose

A

cumulative effect

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22
Q

categorization of medications with similarities or uses

A

drug class

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23
Q

tremors, slurred speech, restlessness, muscle twitching, anxiety side effects

A

extra pyramidal

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24
Q

diminishing of a physiological or emotional response to a frequently repeated stimulus

A

habituation

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25
Q

undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system, including allergies and autoimmunity

A

hypersensitivity

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26
Q

solution that has a greater concentration of solutes on the outside of a cell when compared with the inside of a cell, causing fluid to move out of the cell

A

hypertonic solution

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27
Q

solution that has a lesser concentration of solutes on the outside of a cell when compared with the inside of a cell, causing fluid to move into the cell

A

hypotonic solution

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28
Q

circumstance when a medication should be considered

A

indication

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29
Q

sodium concentration same as intracellular fluid

A

isotonic solution

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30
Q

pharmacological effects of a medication

A

mechanism of action

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31
Q

interaction between two or more medications causing a response greater than the sum of of each individual medication

A

potentiation

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32
Q

resistant to treatment

A

refractory

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33
Q

any unwanted side effect of medication administration

A

side effect

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34
Q

desirable effects of medication administration

A

therapeutic effect

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35
Q

reduced response to a medication due to repeated use

A

tolerance

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36
Q

adverse or harmful side effects of medication administration

A

untoward effect

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37
Q

cellular processes that convert energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and then release waste products

A

cellular respiration

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38
Q

the passive part of breathing

A

exhalation

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39
Q

oxygen exchange between the lungs and circulatory system

A

external respiration

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40
Q

oxygen deficiency

A

hypoxia

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41
Q

the active part of breathing

A

inhalation

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42
Q

oxygen exchange between blood and the cells of the body

A

internal respiration

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43
Q

volume of gas inhaled or exhaled per minute

respiratory rate x tidal volume

A

minute ventilation

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44
Q

delivery of oxygen to the blood

A

oxygenation

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45
Q

the physical movement of moving air in and out of the lungs

A

ventilation

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46
Q

abdominal swelling

A

ascites

*consider liver disease, CHF, renal failure

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47
Q

bruising around the umbilicus

A

cullens sign

*consider intra-abdominal bleeding

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48
Q

a field conclusion of the patients problem based on the clinical presentation and the exclusion of other possible causes through considering the differential diagnosis

A

field impression

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49
Q

bruising over flank area

A

grey turners sign

*consider intra-abdominal bleeding

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50
Q

depression left by pressure of finger

A

pitting edema

*consider CHF or renal failure

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51
Q

measure or monitoring of exhaled CO2

A

capnography

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52
Q

area of necrosis or death

A

infarct

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53
Q

non-invasive measurement of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

A

pulse oximetry SpO2

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54
Q

non-invasive measurement of carbon monoxide saturation of hemoglobin

A

pulse CO-oximetry SpCO

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55
Q

non-invasive measurement of methemoglobin

A

SpMet

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56
Q

swelling of the lower layer of skin and underlying tissue. Swelling may occur in the face, tongue, larynx, abdomen, arms and legs. Often associated with urticaria

A

angioedema

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57
Q

early shock where the body still maintains adequate perfusion

A

compensated shock

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58
Q

later shock where the body can no longer maintain adequate perfusion

A

decompensated shock

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59
Q

severe bleeding, leading to death

A

exsanguination

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60
Q

bleeding

A

hemorrhage

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61
Q

stage of shock leading to inevitable death

A

irreversible shock

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62
Q

MAP

A

mean arterial pressure

*DBP+1/3 (SBP-DBP)

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63
Q

progressive failure of at least two organ systems

A

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

*MODS

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64
Q

hives

A

urticaria

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65
Q

resistance the left heart overcomes during contraction

A

afterload

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66
Q

a weakening in the wall of an artery

A

aneurysm

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67
Q

edema in the abdomen

A

ascites

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68
Q

enlargement of the heart, often due to hypertension

A

cardiac hypertrophy

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69
Q

volume of blood ejected by left ventricle in one minute

A

cardiac output

*stroke volume x heart rate

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70
Q

rate of cardiac contraction

A

chronotrope

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71
Q

speed of cardiac conduction velocity

A

dromotrope

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72
Q

an infection of the endocardium, usually involving the heart valves

A

endocarditis

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73
Q

percentage of blood ejected from a filled ventricle

A

ejection fraction

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74
Q

ventricles fail to respond to an impulse. On an ECG, the pacemaker spike will appear, but it will not be followed by a QRS complex

A

failure to capture

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75
Q

pacemaker malfunction that occurs when the pacemaker does not detect the patients myocardial depolarization. May be seen on an ECG tracing as a spike following a QRS complex too early

A

Failure to sense

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76
Q

force of cardiac contraction

A

inotrope

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77
Q

difficulty breathing while supine

A

orthopnea

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78
Q

acute onset of difficulty breathing at night, usually while sleeping

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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79
Q

inflammation of the pericardium

A

pericarditis

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80
Q

volume of fluid returning to the right heart

A

preload

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81
Q

variable angina caused by coronary artery spasms

A

prinzmetals angina

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82
Q

the more the heart is stretched (within limits), the greater the resulting force of contraction

A

starlings law

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83
Q

amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle during one contraction

A

stroke volume

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84
Q

non cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

*ARDS

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85
Q

right heart failure

A

cor pulmonale

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86
Q

coughing up blood

A

hemoptysis

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87
Q

uses an impedance valve to increase volume of air remaining in lungs at end of expiration to improve gas exchange

A

positive end-expiratory pressure

*PEEP

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88
Q

crackling under the skin upon palpation due to trapped air. Typically found in chest neck or face

A

subcutaneous emphysema

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89
Q

volume of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath

A

tidal volume

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90
Q

difficulty with coordinated movement

A

ataxia

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91
Q

arms and legs extended

posturing

A

decerebrate

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92
Q

arms flexed and legs extended

posturing

A

decorticate

*think drawing arms to core

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93
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

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94
Q

unilateral weakness

A

hemiparesis

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95
Q

unilateral paralysis

A

hemiplegia

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96
Q

involuntary eye movement

A

nystagmus

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97
Q

brain damage due to lack of vitamin B1

A

wernickes encephalopathy

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98
Q

deep rapid respirations

A

kussmaul respirations

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99
Q

excessive thirst

A

polydipsia

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100
Q

excessive hunger

A

polyphagia

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101
Q

excessive urination

A

polyuria

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102
Q

reactions that present like anaphylaxis but are not lgE-mediated

A

anaphylactoid reaction

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103
Q

life threatening allergic reaction.

unlike anaphylactoid reactions, this requires the patient to be sensitized, and mediated through lgE antibodies

A

anaphylaxis

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104
Q

immune cells produced by body to attack invading substances

A

antibodies

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105
Q

any substance that can produce an immune response

A

antigen

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106
Q

invading substance that can trigger an allergic or anaphylactic response

A

pathogen

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107
Q

immune response that occurs when an antigen comes into contact with the immune system for the first time

A

primary response

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108
Q

immune response that occurs after development of specific antibodies following primary response

A

secondary response

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109
Q

red, raised bumps across the body

A

hives/urticaria

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110
Q

inflammation of the coiled tube (epididymis) at the back of the testicle

A

epididymitis

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111
Q

blood in the stool

A

hematochezia

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112
Q

lacerated esophagus, usually due to vomiting

A

mallory-weiss syndrome

113
Q

dark, tarry stool

A

melena

114
Q

inflammation of one or both testicles

A

orchitis

115
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum

A

peritonitis

116
Q

pain felt somewhere other than where it originates

A

referred pain

117
Q

sharp localized pain

A

somatic pain

118
Q

twisting of a testicle

A

testicular torsion

119
Q

vague, diffuse, dull, cramp like pain

A

visceral pain

120
Q

dependence on a drug that may be physiological or psychological

A

addiction

121
Q

pupillary constriction

A

miosis

122
Q

pupillary dilation

A

mydriasis

123
Q

need for progressively increased amount of a drug to achieve desired effects

A

tolerance

124
Q

group of signs and symptoms for a specific group of toxins

stimulants, narcotics

A

toxidromes

125
Q

physiological or psychological effects of discontinuing an abused substance

A

withdrawal

126
Q

inadequate RBCs. can be chronic or acute. Can be caused by inadequate RBC production, destruction, hemorrhage, or dilution of RBCs

A

anemias

127
Q

immune system attacks bodys own tissues

A

autoimmune disease

128
Q

infectious disease commonly found among a particular group

A

endemic

129
Q

widespread occurrence of an infectious disease

A

epidemic

130
Q

RBCs. transports oxygen

A

erythrocytes

131
Q

WBCs. fights infection

A

leukocytes

132
Q

parasitic infestation of skin under hair on the head, body, or pubic area

A

lice

133
Q

tick borne illness causing fatigue and flu like symptoms

A

lyme disease

134
Q

disease prevalent over an entire country or world

A

pandemic

135
Q

fluid component of blood

A

plasma

136
Q

skin infestation with microscopic mites that burrow. spread by close contact with infected person

A

scabies

137
Q

platelets, bleeding control

A

thrombocytes

138
Q

inability to recognize objects or stimuli (not due to impaired sensory function)

A

agnosia

139
Q

loss of ability to express or understand speech

A

aphasia

140
Q

impaired motor activity (not due to impaired sensory function)

A

apraxia

141
Q

behavior considered abnormal enough that it requires intervention and alarms the patient or another person

A

behavioral emergency

142
Q

acute onset of disorganized thought, often due to correctable causes

A

delirium

143
Q

firmly held beliefs despite being contradicted by what is generally accepted as real or rational

A

delusions

144
Q

slow onset of cognitive deficits, usually irreversible

A

dementia

145
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

146
Q

sensory perceptions with no basis in reality, often “hearing voices”

A

hallucinations

147
Q

delusions of serious physical illness

A

hypochondriasis

148
Q

death due to obstruction of breathing, related to body position

A

positional asphyxia

149
Q

overindulgence in or dependence on an additive substance, especially alcohol or drugs

A

substance abuse

150
Q

membrane covering the eye and inside of eyelid

A

conjunctiva

151
Q

transparent anterior portion of the eyes

A

cornea

152
Q

inflammation of the epiglottis

A

epiglottitis

153
Q

nosebleed

A

epistaxis

154
Q

inflammation of the nose

A

rhinitis

155
Q

infection or inflammation of the sinuses

A

sinusitis

156
Q

inflammation of the tonsils

A

tonsillitis

157
Q

infection of the skin and soft tissue

A

cellulitis

158
Q

inflammation and infection of the fascia (connective tissue)

A

fasciitis

159
Q

tissue death, often causing black or blue discoloration

A

gangrene

160
Q

osteomyelitis

A

infection of the bone

161
Q

bone fracture caused by disease

A

pathological fracture

162
Q

bruise

A

contusion

163
Q

systemic complications of a crush injury

A

crush syndrome

164
Q

injury where bone is displaced from the joint

A

dislocation

165
Q

fractured ends move from their normal position

A

displaced fracture

166
Q

collection of blood beneath the skin

A

hematoma

167
Q

the bodys attempt to control bleeding

A

hemostasis

168
Q

bones remain aligned after a fracture

A

non-displaced fracture

169
Q

airtight dressing

A

occlusive dressing

170
Q

syndrome due to muscle necrosis and release of toxins into the bloodstream

A

rhabdomyolysis

171
Q

ligament injury

A

sprain

172
Q

muscle or tendon injury

A

strain

173
Q

the amount of skin involved in burn injury. expressed in percentages

A

BSA body surface area

174
Q

a burn around the full circumference of an area

A

circumferential burn

175
Q

leathery, inelastic skin due to full thickness burn injury

A

eschar

176
Q

unequal pupils

A

anisocoria

177
Q

inability to remember events that occurred after the injury

A

anterograde amnesia

178
Q

bruising to mastoid region (behind ears) indicative of possible basal skull fracture

A

battles sign

179
Q

abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea

A

biots respirations

180
Q

deep rapid respirations

without acetone breath found in kussmaul respirations

A

central neurologic hyperventilation

181
Q

CPP

A

central perfusion pressure

182
Q

increasing then decreasing tidal volume followed by a period of apnea pressure

A

cheyne-stokes respirations

183
Q

brain injury away from primary point of impact

A

contrecoup injury

184
Q

hypertension, bradycardia, altered respiratory pattern indicating increased ICP

A

cushings triad (triad)

185
Q

posturing with arms extended and toes pointed

A

decerebrate (extensor) posturing

186
Q

body extended and arms flexed

A

decorticate (flexor) posturing

*indicates brainstem injury

187
Q

bleeding between dura mater and skull

A

epidural hematoma

188
Q

bleeding within the brain

A

intracerebral hemorrhage

189
Q

pressure within the cranium

A

intracranial pressure (ICP)

190
Q

Le fort fracture progression

A
  1. slight instability to maxilla
  2. fracture of maxilla and nasal bones
  3. fracture of entire face (zygoma, nasal bone, maxilla)
191
Q

persistent penile erection

A

priapism

192
Q

bruising around both eyes

A

raccoons eyes

*possible indication of orbital fracture or basal skull fracture

193
Q

inability to remember events that occurred before the injury

A

retrograde amnesia

194
Q

bleeding beneath the dura matter, within the meninges (above the brain)

A

subdural hematoma

195
Q

open abdominal wound with protruding organs

A

evisceration

196
Q

segment of thorax moves independently due to three or more adjacent ribs fracturing in at least two places

A

flail chest

197
Q

vomiting blood

A

hematemesis

198
Q

blood in urine

A

hematuria

199
Q

coughing up blood

A

hemoptysis

200
Q

accumulation of blood within pleural space

A

hemothorax

201
Q

large penetrating thoracic trauma that allows air to enter pleural space

A

open pneumothorax

202
Q

accumulation of fluid in pericardial sac that compromises cardiac filling

A

pericardial tamponade

203
Q

tissue covering abdominal cavity, small bowel, and internal organs

A

peritoneum

204
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum

A

peritonitis

205
Q

bruise to lung tissue

A

pulmonary contusion

206
Q

drop in systolic pressure of at least 10mmHg during inspiration

A

pulsus paradoxus

207
Q

closed pulmonary injury where air leaks into pleural space

A

simple pneumothorax

208
Q

pneumothorax causing progressive build up of air within pleural space

A

tension pneumothorax

209
Q

severe compression of the chest that compromises blood flow

A

traumatic asphyxia

210
Q

an antiserum, also known as antivenom, containing antibodies against specific poisons especially those in the venom of snakes, spiders, and scorpions

A

antivenon

211
Q

injury caused by changes in pressure

A

barotrauma

212
Q

medical conditions resulting from changes in ambient pressure

A

dysbarism

213
Q

presence of medical problems

A

morbidity

214
Q

mortality

A

death

215
Q

alveolar substance that keeps alveoli open

A

surfactant

216
Q

generation of heat

A

thermogenesis

217
Q

loss of heat

A

thermolysis

218
Q

ringing in the ears

A

tinnitus

219
Q

prior to delivery

A

antepartum

220
Q

passage of a small amount of blood or blood tinged mucus near the end of pregnancy

A

bloody show

221
Q

sporadic uterine contractions that can occur prior to active labor

A

braxton hicks

222
Q

infection of the uterine lining

A

endometritis

223
Q

distance in cm from pubic symphysis to top of uterine fundus.

A

fundal height

*each cm = one week of gestation

224
Q

total number of pregnancies

A

gravida

225
Q

severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

226
Q

the first occurrence of menstruation

A

menarche

227
Q

unilateral lower quadrant abdominal pain that occurs midway through a menstrual cycle

A

mittelschmerz

228
Q

a woman who has had at least two pregnancies

A

muiltigravida

229
Q

a woman who has never given birth

A

nullipara

230
Q

total number of pregnancies reaching viable gestational age (live births and child births)

A

para

231
Q

after delivery

A

postpartum

232
Q

a woman who is pregnant for the first time

A

primigravida

233
Q

rupture of amniotic sac

A

ruptured membranes (ROM)

234
Q

cyanosis of the hands and feet due to poor perfusion

A

acrocyanosis

235
Q

time form conception to birth

A

gestation

236
Q

fecal matter in amniotic fluid from babys first bowel movement

A

meconium

237
Q

newborns from birth to one month old

A

neonate

238
Q

ductus arteriosus fails to close during embyonic development causing aortic blood flow into pulmonary artery

A

patent ductus arteriosus

239
Q

infant delivered prior to 37 weeks gestation

A

preterm

240
Q

telescoping of intestines into themselves. usually occurs in patients 6 months to 6 years. requires surgery

A

intussusception

241
Q

abnormal skin coloring due to vasoconstriction and poor circulation

A

mottling

242
Q

failure of caregiver to provide basic necessities

A

neglect

243
Q

small purple non blanching spots on skin

A

petechiae

244
Q

apnea

A

respiratory arrest

245
Q

increased rate and effort of breathing

A

respiratory distress

246
Q

inadequate oxygenation and ventilation

A

respiratory failure

247
Q

poor skin turgor indicating possible dehydration

A

tenting

248
Q

loss of ability to independently meet daily needs

A

functional impairment

249
Q

someone who is at least 65 years of age

A

geriatric

250
Q

the study of the effects of aging on humans

A

gerontology

251
Q

accidental urination or defecation

A

incontinence

252
Q

concurrent use of multiple medications

A

polypharmacy

253
Q

ability to perceive or sense movements and position of ones own body independent of vision

A

proprioception

254
Q

science of providing healthcare for extremely obese patients

A

bariatrics

255
Q

surgical opening between colon and abdominal wall to allow passage of feces while bypassing part of colon

A

colostomy

256
Q

CHF due to pulmonary hypertension

A

cor pulmonale

257
Q

surgical connection between an artery and vein for dialysis

A

fistula

258
Q

end of life care for the terminally ill

A

hospice

259
Q

removing visible contaminants from a surface

A

cleaning

260
Q

utilization of safe practices for vehicle operations in spite of surrounding conditions and actions of others

A

defensive driving

261
Q

use of a chemical to kill pathogens

A

disinfection

262
Q

emergency vehicle operators are expected to drive safely at all times and may be held to a higher standard than other drivers

A

due regard

263
Q

removal of all microbial contamination

A

sterilization

264
Q

uses data to anticipate demand for emergency services and adjusts staffing levels and staging locations accordingly

A

system status management

265
Q

contained incident, where injuries have already occurred prior to arrival of rescue personnel

A

closed incident

266
Q

takes place during early incident when patients are first encountered

A

primary triage

267
Q

monitors all on scene activities to prevent harmful conditions

A

safety officer

268
Q

ongoing triage completed throughout incident

A

secondary triage

269
Q

single individual has command of incident

A

singular command

270
Q

number of people or tasks that one individual can manage

A

span of control

271
Q

positioning of resources

A

staging

272
Q

sorting based on severity of incidents

A

triage

273
Q

multiple personnel from different jurisdictions share command

A

unified command

274
Q

poisonous substance produced by living organism

A

biotoxin

275
Q

CBRNE

A

chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, explosives

276
Q

nuclear weapon improvised from radioactive nuclear waste material and conventional explosives

A

dirty bomb

277
Q

movements of currents over a uniform obstruction

A

recirculating currents

278
Q

blistering chemical agent, such as mustard gas, lewisite, and phosgene oxime

A

vesicant