Test 0 Flashcards
- Alexander needs to set up two public-facing web servers and ensure that an attacker cannot access its intranet if those servers are compromised. Which of the following should he use?
a) EAP
B) DMZ
C) VNC
D) VPN
B. DMZ
Explanation
OBJ-4.1: A DMZ or demilitarized zone is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing (public-facing) services to an untrusted, usually larger, network such as the Internet. A DMZ is a type of screen subnet. A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a protocol for wireless networks that expands the authentication methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), a protocol often used when connecting a computer to the internet. Virtual Network Computing is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol to remotely control another computer by transmitting the keyboard and mouse input from one computer to another, relaying the graphical-screen updates, over a network. Since Alexander wants to install two public-facing web servers on his network, he should place them in the DMZ.
- A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of?
A) COMPLIANCE ENFORCEMENT
B) SEPERAT PUBLIC/ PRIVATE NETWORKING
C) PERFORMANCE OPTIMIZATION
D) HONEYNET IMPLEMENTATION
C. PERFORMANCE OPTIMIZATION
Explanation
OBJ-4.1: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. A honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.
- Dion Training has just purchased a new domain name and needs to indicate which DNS server is the definitive information source for the domain. Which type of DNS record should be created?
A) AAAA
B) A
C) MX
D) SOA
D. SOA
Explanation
OBJ-1.6: A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic.
- You have been asked to select the best WAN connection for a new network at Dion Training. The company has stated that they must have a guaranteed throughput rate on their Internet connection at all times. Based on this requirement, what type of WAN connection should you recommend?
A) CABLE BROADBAND
B) DSL
C) DIAL-UP
D) T-1
D. T-1
Explanation
OBJ-1.2: A T-1 connection provides a guaranteed 1.544 Mbps of throughput. Dial-up, DSL, and cable broadband do not provide a guaranteed throughput rate. Instead, these services provide a variable throughput rate based on network conditions and demand in the area of your business.
- You run the command ipconfig on your laptop and see that you have been assigned an IP address of 169.254.0.56. Which category of IPv4 address is this?
A) APIPA
B) PRIVATE
C) PUBLIC
D) STATIC
A. APIPA
Explanation
OBJ-1.4: APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing and is a feature of Windows operating systems. When a client computer is configured to use automatic addressing (DHCP), APIPA assigns a class B IP address from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 to the client if the DHCP server is unavailable. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A public IP address is the outward-facing (public-facing) IP address assigned to a client. A private IP address lets a router correctly direct traffic within its network and allows devices within a network to communicate with one another, but private IP addresses cannot be used to route traffic across the internet.
- What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
A) MULTICAST
B) PUBLIC
C) BROADCAST
D) LOOPBACK
D. LOOPBACK
Explanation
OBJ-1.4: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.
- What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at 10.10.10.200/25?
A) 10.10.10.128
B) 10.10.10.254
C) 10.10.10.127
D) 10.10.10.255
D. 10.10.10.255
Explanation
OBJ-1.4: In classless subnets using variable-length subnet mask (VLSM), the broadcast address is the last IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /25, so each subnet will contain 128 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 10.10.10.200, the broadcast address will be 10.10.10.255.
- Mathan has just purchased a domain name and created an A record to bind his domain name to an IP address. Which of the following tools should he use to verify the record was created properly?
A) ARP
B) TCPDUMP
C) IPCONFIG
D) DIG
D. DIG
Explanation
OBJ-5.3: The dig command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The arp command is used to view and modify the local address resolution protocol (ARP) cache of a device, which contains recently resolved MAC addresses of IP hosts on the network. The tcpdump tool is a text-based packet capture and analysis tool that can capture packets and display the contents of a packet capture (pcap) file. The ipconfig command is used on Windows devices to display the current TCP/IP network configuration and refresh the DHCP and DNS settings on a given host.
- Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
A) ON-DEMAND
B) METERED SERVICES
C) RAPID ELASTICITY
D) RESOURCE POOLING
C. RAPID ELASTICITY
Explanation
OBJ-1.8: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
- A network technician wants to centrally manage the switches and segment the switches into separate broadcast domains. The Dion Training network is currently using VLAN 1 for all of its devices and uses a single private IP address range with a 24-bit mask. Their supervisor wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all of the switches must share VLAN information. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements?
A) CONFIGURE VLSM FOR THE IP ADDRESS RANGE
B) CONFIGURE STP AND 802.1Q ON THE INTER-SWITCH CONNECTIONS WITH NATIVE VLAN 100
C) CONFIGURE VTP AND 802.1X ON ALL INTER-SWITCH CONNECTIONS WITH NATIVE VLAN 100
D) CONFIGURE STP AND 802.1W ON THE INTER-SWITCH CONNECTIONS WITH NATIVE VLAN 100
E) CONFIGURE VTP AND 802.1Q ON THE INTER-SWITCH CONNECTIONS WITH NATIVE VLAN 100
E. CONFIGURE VTP AND 802.1Q ON THE INTER-SWITCH CONNECTIONS WITH NATIVE VLAN 100
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The 801.q standard is used to define VLAN tagging (or port tagging) for Ethernet frames and the accompanying procedures to be used by bridges and switches in handling such frames. Traffic should be properly tagged when combined over a single trunk port to ensure they are not sent to the wrong VLAN by mistake. If VLAN tagging is not enabled, all of the VLAN traffic will be sent to the native or default VLAN, VLAN 1. By default, VLAN 1 is enabled and all unused ports are assigned to it. VLSM stands for Variable Length Subnet Mask where the subnet design uses more than one mask in the same network which means more than one mask is used for different subnets of a single class A, B, or C network. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast storms that result from them. STP is defined in the IEEE 802.1d standard and Rapid Reconfiguration of Spanning Tree is defined in the IEEE 802.1w standard. The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server.
- You have been assigned to assist with deploying a new web-based application to your company’s intranet. After installing the application, it was identified that the database server is becoming overloaded by the number of requests that the users create. The team lead has proposed adding a device between the web server and the database server to alleviate the issue. Which of the following is being implemented by adding this new device?
A) CONDUCT CONTENT FILTERING AND NETWORK ANALYSIS
B) IMPLEMENT LOAD BALANCING AND PROVIDE HIGH AVAILABILITY
C) IMPLEMENT CLUSTERING AND NIC TEAMING ON THE DATABASE SERVER
D) CONDUCT PORT SNIFFING AND PROTOCOL ANALYSIS
B. IMPLEMENT LOAD BALANCING AND PROVIDE HIGH AVAILABILITY
Explanation
OBJ-3.3: The device being added is most likely a load balancer. Adding this device will allow the delivery team to install a series of database servers to handle the requests by dividing the incoming requests among the various servers. NIC teaming would be an action that occurs on the database server itself. It is not a separate device. The other options are focused on troubleshooting efforts, not increasing the database server’s capability or availability.
- A client reports that half of the office is unable to access a shared printer on the network. Which of the following should the network technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A) NETWORK DIAGRAMS
B) DATA BACKUPS
C) BASELINE INFORMATION
D) VENDOR DOCUMENTATION
A) NETWORK DIAGRAMS
Explanation
OBJ-3.2: Network diagram is a visual representation of a computer network. Understanding all the connections is a fundamental step in network troubleshooting. A baseline is a process for studying the network at regular intervals to ensure that the network is working as designed. This baseline information can be used for anticipating future problems, as well as planning for future growth. Data backups are a copy of the data on your system that you use for recovery in case your original data is lost or corrupted. Vendor documentation is a group of documents supplied by the manufacturer that document the proper usage and configuration of a network device.
- You need to connect your laptop to a router in order to add a static route. What type of cable would you use to connect to the router’s console port?
A) STRAIGHT-THROUGH
B) RG-6
C) CROSSOVER
D) ROLLOVER
D) ROLLOVER
Explanation
OBJ-5.2: Typically, a router or switch’s console port is connected using a rollover cable, which has an RS-232 (DB-9) port on one side and an RJ-45 on the other. A rollover or console cable is a type of null-modem cable that is used to connect a computer terminal to a router’s console port. An RG-6 cable is a coaxial cable used to connect to a cable modem or television. An Ethernet crossover cable is a network cable used to connect two Ethernet network devices directly, such as two computers without a switch or router in between. A straight-through cable is a type of twisted pair cable that is used in local area networks to connect a computer to a network switch.
- Dion Training wants to purchase an email marketing solution to better communicate with their students. A promising new startup has a new offering to provide access to their product from a central location rather than requiring Dion Training to host the product on their internal network. Dion Training wants to ensure that their sensitive corporate information is not accessible by any startup’s other clients. Which type of cloud server should Dion Training look to purchase to meet these needs?
A) HYBRID IAAS
B) PUBLIC SAAS
C) COMMUNITY IAAS
D) PRIVATE SAAS
D) PRIVATE SAAS
Explanation
OBJ-1.8: SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model whereby a service provider provides a software service and makes the service available to customers over the Internet. Examples of SaaS solutions include Microsoft Office 365, Microsoft Exchange Online, and Google Docs. Because of the concerns with sensitive corporate information being processed by the SaaS, Dion Training should ensure a Private SaaS is chosen. A private cloud is a particular model of cloud computing that involves a distinct and secure cloud-based environment in which only the specified client (Dion Training in this case) can operate. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third-party and hosted internally or externally. A hybrid cloud uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
- Which of the following provides a standard nomenclature for describing security-related software flaws?
A) VPC
B) SIEM
C) CVE
D) SOX
C) CVE
Explanation
OBJ-4.1: Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is an element of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) that provides a standard nomenclature for describing security flaws or vulnerabilities. A SIEM is a solution that provides a real-time or near-real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications. A VPC is a private network segment made available to a single cloud consumer on a public cloud. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) dictates requirements for storing and retaining documents relating to an organization’s financial and business operations, including the type of documents stored and their retention periods.
- Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow your company’s employees to use the service while preventing anyone else from accessing it. What type of cloud model would you recommend to ensure the contents are best secured from those outside your company?
A) COMMUNITY CLOUD
B) PRIVATE CLOUD
C) HYBRID CLOUD
D) PUBLIC CLOUD
B) PRIVATE CLOUD
Explanation
OBJ-1.8: A private cloud service would be the best recommendation to protect and secure the services from those outside the company from accessing its contents. The private cloud is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. Private cloud computing gives businesses many of the benefits of a public cloud including self-service, scalability, and elasticity with the additional control and customization available from dedicated resources over a computing infrastructure hosted on-premises. Private clouds also deliver a higher level of security and privacy through both company firewalls and internal hosting to ensure operations and sensitive data are not accessible to third-party providers. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.
- Which of the following levels would an alert condition generate?
A) 2
B) 0
C) 3
D) 1
D) 1
Explanation
OBJ-3.1: The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system’s primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.
- Which of the following protocols are designed to avoid loops on a Layer 2 network?
A) 802.1D
B) 802.1Q
C) OSPF
D) RIPv2
A) 802.1D
Explanation
OBJ-2.3: The Spanning Tree Protocol is part of the 802.1d standard and avoids loops in the switching network (layer 2). The 802.1q standard is used to define virtual LANs (VLANs) on an ethernet network. RIPv2 is a layer 3 distance-vector protocol for local and wide-area networks, and does not prevent or avoid loops by default. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a layer 3 link-state routing protocol that was developed for IP networks and is based on the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm. OSPF does not avoid or prevent loops by default. Instead, RIP and OSPF both rely on split horizon and route poisoning to avoid layer 3 loops.
- Your company has purchased a new office building down the street for its executive suites. You have been asked to choose the BEST encryption for AP1, AP2, and AP3 to establish a wireless connection inside the main building for visitors to use. Your boss has stated that the main building’s internal wireless network is only going to be used by visitors and should not require the visitors to set up any special configuration on their devices to connect. Which of the following is the BEST encryption to use from the options below to meet your manager’s requirements for the new visitors’ Wireless Network?
A) WPA
B) WEP
C) WPA-CCMP
D)WPA2-TKIP
E) OPEN
E) OPEN
Explanation
OBJ-5.4: Since your manager has required that the visitors not be required to configure anything on their devices to connect, the only option you can choose is Open. This option presents no security for the visitor’s wireless network, but it also requires no setup on the user’s devices. All of the other options would require a pre-shared key and set up to allow the visitor to use the network. This wireless network should act as a guest network, be segmented from your corporate network, and only allow the visitors to access the internet directly using this network.
- Which of the following policies or plans would dictate how an organization would respond to an unplanned outage of their primary internet connection?
A) INCIDENT RESPONSE PLAN
B) BUSINESS CONTINUITY PLAN
C) SYSTEM LIFE CYCLE PLAN
D) DISASTER RECOVERY PLAN
B) BUSINESS CONTINUITY PLAN
Explanation
OBJ-3.2: A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned service disruption. A business continuity plan is more comprehensive than a disaster recovery plan and contains contingencies for business processes, assets, human capital and business partners, and essentially every other aspect of the business that might be affected. A disaster recovery plan is a documented, structured approach that documents how an organization can quickly resume work after an unplanned incident. These unplanned incidents include things like natural disasters, power outages, cyber attacks, and other disruptive events. An incident response plan contains a set of instructions to help our network and system administrators detect, respond to, and recover from network security incidents. These types of plans address issues like cybercrime, data loss, and service outages that threaten daily work. System life cycle plans, also known as life cycle planning, describe the approach to maintaining an asset from creation to disposal. In the information technology world, we normally have a 5-phase lifecycle that is used for all of our systems and networks: Planning, Design, Transition, Operations, and Retirement.
- Which of the following policies or plans would dictate the complexity requirements for a wireless network’s shared secret key?
A) REMOTE ACCESS POLICY
B) ACCEPTABLE USE POLICY
C) PASSWORD POLICY
D) DATA LOSS PREVENTION POLICY
C) PASSWORD POLICY
Explanation
OBJ-3.2: A password policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict how the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. A data loss prevention policy is a document that defines how organizations can share and protect data. It guides how data can be used in decision-making without it being exposed to anyone who should not have access to it. The goal of a data loss prevention policy is to minimize accidental or malicious data loss. A remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network.
- Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?
A) JITTER
B) BANDWIDTH
C) LATENCY
D) THROUGHPUT
A) JITTER
Explanation
OBJ-3.2: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.
- Which of the following policies or plans would dictate which type of virtual private network connections will be authorized for use by an organization’s employees?
A) PASSWORD POLICY
B) ACCEPTABLE USE POLICY
C) DATA LOSS PREVENTION POLICY
D) REMOTE ACCESS POLICY
D) REMOTE ACCESS POLICY
Explanation
OBJ-3.2: A remote access policy is a document which outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network. A password policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. A data loss prevention policy is a document that defines how organizations can share and protect data. It guides how data can be used in decision-making without it being exposed to anyone who should not have access to it. The goal of a data loss prevention policy is to minimize accidental or malicious data loss.
- Your company has decided to begin moving some of its data into the cloud. Currently, your company’s network consists of both on-premise storage and some cloud-based storage. Which of the following types of clouds is your company currently using?
A) COMMUNITY
B) PUBLIC
C) PRIVATE
D) HYBRID
D) HYBRID
Explanation
OBJ-1.8: A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third-party and hosted internally or externally. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public.