Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology 1 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition:

within genetic makeup

A

Inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition:
condition existing at birth and often before birth, or that develops during the first month of life (neonatal disease), regardless of causation eg. fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition:

wear and tear eg. arthritis, osteoarthritis

A

Degenerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition:

abnormal chemical reactions eg. diabetes

A

Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Definition:

caused from malnutrition anorexia

A

Nutritional deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition:

mental health disorder

A

Psychogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition:

caused by an infectious agent eg. MRSA

A

Infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition:

caused with malfunction of immunity

A

Immunologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition:

exposure to physical agents cause injury, eg. burn from fire

A

Physical agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition:

neo means new, plastic means growth = cancer

A

Neoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Definition:

caused by medical treatment, eg. side effects of medication

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition:

unknown cause, eg. some forms of epilepsy

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

quick onset, quick completion (either cure or death)

A

Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

longterm, unknown cure

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Definition:

interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms

A

Latent period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition:
the interval between the receipt of infection and the onset of the consequent illness or the first symptoms of the illness;

A

Incubation period (may be called latent period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Definition:

the time during which a disease process has begun but is not yet clinically manifest

A

Prodromal period (prodrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Definition:

when the disease is at it’s highest

A

Stage of manifest illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definition:

  1. Gradual return to health and strength after illness;
  2. The period needed for returning to health after illness
A

Convalescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Definition:

A pathological condition resulting from a disease. eg. scar

A

Sequela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Definition:
A secondary disease, an accident, or a negative reaction occurring during the course of an illness and usually aggravating the illness.

A

Complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definition:

Not manifesting characteristic clinical symptoms

A

Subclinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Definition:

To increase the severity, violence, or bitterness of; aggravate

A

Exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definition:
1. Abatement or subsiding of the symptoms of a disease; 2. The period during which the symptoms of a disease abate or subside

A

Remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition:

having severe symptoms and a short course

A

acute phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definition:

a disease that is native to a local region

A

endemic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Definition:

disease is disseminated to many individuals at the same time

A

epidemic:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definition:

epidemics that affect large geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • cell caps that shorten when chromosome divides

* every time telomere shortens results in less capacity for cell to regain normal function

A

Telomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  • in order to survive, a cell must adapt
  • adaptation is chronic
  • cells that have adapted maintain normal function
A

Cell Adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  • cells become smaller

* Eg. Cells in the muscles shrink from disuse

A

Cell atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • cells enlarge
  • Eg. Muscle cells hypertrophy from exercise
  • Eg. Hypertension causing enlarged heart
A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  • Varying sized cells in an orderly growth pattern
  • One type of cell is being replaced by another less functional cell
  • Capable of regeneration into normal cells
  • Eg. Healthy lung cells will be replaced by less functional cells in smoker’s lungs
A

Metaplasia:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  • Nuclei are varying shapes and size
  • Cells do not follow normal pattern of growth
  • Considered pre-cancerous
A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  • cells have capacity to be injured
  • when assault on cell is too severe, cell becomes injured
  • injured cells cannot maintain normal function
  • mild injury with a healthy cell - may recover
  • severe injury with an unhealthy cell - may die
A

Cell Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

after mild cell injury, cell may go back to normal function

A

reversibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

if cell injury is more severe, cell may die and will not return to normal function; cannot maintain homeostasis

A

irreversibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

•when cell is injured, sodium pump fails and causes sodium to come inside the cell causing cell to swell (Normally, ATP keeps sodium outside of cell & potassium inside the cell)

  • water accumulation within cell causes damage to mitochondria
  • all diseased cells begin with injury
  • after injury cells go through swelling
A

Hydropic Swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  • ATP pump malfunction may cause faulty lysosomes resulting in foreign substance build up in cell
  • faulty metabolism with mitochondria damage causes substances to accumulate within the cell
  • Eg. Fatty liver is caused by chronic alcoholism causing lysosome failure to digest fat
A

Intracellular Accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  • Cells are physically destroyed
  • Extremes of temperature
  • Electrical injuries
  • Bumps, bruises, scrapes, abrasions, contusions
A

Physical and mechanical injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  • Chemicals can destroy a cell or alter the metabolism of cell
  • eg. lead poisoning in children can lead to neurological damage
A

Chemical injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

•most common form of cell injury
•lack of blood and oxygen
•cells that are ischemic are vulnerable, so if oxygen is not restored soon cells will die
•once oxygen restoration is accomplished, reprofusion injury may occur
◦overflow of calcium disrupts mitochondria, free radical formation and inflamation
◦free radicals are unstable oxygen molecules

A

Ischemic Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cell Death

irreversible natural cell death; necessary to make room for new cells

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cell Death

irreversible premature cell death due to accidental injury

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which type of necrosis?

  • Tissue made by denatured protein
  • Gone through ischemia
A

Coagulative Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which type of necrosis?

  • Occurs in areas where there is very little connective tissue, caused by ischemia, bacteria, toxins
  • Eg. Brain, absesses, cysts
A

Liquefactive Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which type of necrosis?

•Injured tissue secretes lipase which breaks down normal tissue

A

Fat Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which type of necrosis?

  • Combination of liquifactive and coagualitive
  • Cheese-like
  • Typically found in lung tissue
  • Eg. TB
A

Caseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which type of necrosis?

•Clinical term for necrosis

◦dry: form of coagulative necrosis, usually on an area with a lack of circulation, skin becomes dry and shrivelled, eg. on a foot
◦wet: commonly found on internal organs, eg. strangled hernia
◦gas: necrotic tissue has bubbles on it

A

Gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Role of blood components

•RBCs:

A

carry oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Role of blood components

•Platelets

A

blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Role of blood components

•WBCs

A

protect from infection, play a huge role in inflammation (5000-10,000/mm3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does blood play a huge role in _______?

A

Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

•Post-surgical what will be elevated?

A

WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

•Infection can be detected through _______ ________

A

blood screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which cell are the first responders?

A

WBC - Neutrophils 60 – 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

WBC - Neutrophils are made in the?

A

•Made in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  • Reproduced quickly
  • Quickly released during acute inflammatory response
  • Stay in bloodstream for 6 hours
  • Increase in neutrophils indicates infection
A

WBC - Neutrophils 60 – 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

•Band cells are immature ______

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  • 2nd line

* Antibodies

A

WBC - Lymphocytes 20 – 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  • Circulate in the blood
  • Migrate into tissue and turn into macrophages
  • Have the ability to engulf large bacteria
A

WBC - Monocytes 3 – 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  • Protective as well
  • Are particularily useful in parasitic infections
  • Release chemicals that will damage parasites
A

WBC - Eosinophils 2 – 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which cells are the Mischief makers in asthma (shed their granules that release chemicals causing allergic reactions)

A

WBC - Eosinophils 2 – 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  • Contain granules that release chemicals causing inflammation
  • Will be increased in a major trauma
A

WBC - Basophils 0.5 – 1 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Inflammatory Response

How many stages to the inflammatory response?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which stage?

Inflammatory mediators are released, blood vessels dilate, pores in blood vessels open up, fluid leaks into tissue

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which stage?

WBCs destroy invading pathogens through phagocytosis

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which stage?

WBCs leave blood vessels and enter into the tissue; diapedesis
◦margination: WBCs start sticking to the sides of blood vessels
◦chemotaxis: WBCs sliping out of the blood vessels after margination, and migrate to the site of injury

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation

  • Erythema
  • Heat
  • Edema
  • Pain
  • Loss of function
  • Exudate: drainage of dead WBCs
A

Local: localized area around injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation

  • Pyrexia (fever: interleukin 1 acts on hypothalamus to increase body temperature to fight infection
  • Fatigue
  • Anorexia
  • Leukocytosis: increased WBC count
A

Systemic: widespread throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bacteria

Process by which bacteria divide

A

binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Bacteria

How do bacteria cause infection?

A

colonizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Bacteria

Bacteria will destruct if the_______ ____ ___ _____?

A

conditions are not right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Bacteria

Bacteria can live on __________ or ________?

A

•living or non-living media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bacteria
Characterized according to shape:

round, berry-shaped spheres

A

◦cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Bacteria
Characterized according to shape:

rod-shaped, long and narrow

A

◦bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bacteria
Characterized according to shape:

spiral-form

A

◦spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the protective coat that is critical to bacteria survival?

A

endospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the test used to identify bacteria?

A

gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Is Fungi Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Is a Virus Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?

A

Prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Is a bacteria Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?

A

Prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

disease caused by fungi

A

Mycoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

FUNGI
•well-developed
•eukaryotic
•2 life cycles: trophozoite turns into a cyst when conditions are too extreme (too hot, or ingested)

  • microorganism that lives in water, plants, soil
  • eg. bever fever
A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q 
FUNGI
•parasites
•eukaryotic
•mouth that allows them to latch onto things
•eg. flatworms, roundworms, tapeworms
A

Helminths (greek for worms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  • smallest of all the infectious agents
  • not living
  • cannot reproduce on their own
  • multiplies by cell invasion
  • cannot grow in non-living material
  • may have a long lifespan
A

VIRUSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  • purpose: cleans up old debris so that tissue cells ready can repair
  • 0-3 days
A

INFLAMMATION

88
Q
  • 0-10 days
  • increase cell proliferation on both sides of the wound
  • increase in collagen (to form a bridge between two tissues)
  • new basement membrane will form underneath healing ridge
  • angiogenes (is new blood vessels to supply new tissue)
A

granulation

89
Q
  • 3-30 days
  • wound starts to shrink and mould
  • tissue starts to become aligned properly
A

wound contraction

90
Q

wounds healing by first intention

A

sutures or staples

91
Q

wounds healing by second intention

A

leaving the wound open to heal from the bottom up, allows infection out

92
Q

wounds healing by tertiary intention

A

wound left open until swelling subsides, after which wounds will be resutured

93
Q
  • new tissue replaces the old
  • looks and acts like new
  • some tissues have the ability to regenerate nicely
  • eg. skin
A

regeneration

94
Q
  • tissue will repair but won’t look or act like it did before
  • eg. scar tissue
A

repair

95
Q

when incision splits open

A

dehiscence

96
Q

when incision splits apart and organs protrude

A

evisceration

97
Q

What are the four processes of NOCICEPTION?

A
  1. Transduction 2. Transmission

3. Perception 4. Modulation

98
Q

What are the two set of fibers?

A 
A fibers (fast fibers)
C fibers (slow fibers)
99
Q

Which fiber is affected if it is a sharp shooting pain you feel first?

A

A Fibers (fast fibers)

100
Q

Which fiber is affected if it is a dull aching pain that is long-lasting, eg. neuropathic pain

A

C fibers (slow fibers)

101
Q

pain is alleviated by inhibiting substance P, what does is promote?

A

promotes endorphins and enkephalins

102
Q

Definition

the amount of pain a person can tolerate before the person becomes aware of the pain, the point at which a person becomes aware of the pain

A

Pain threshold

103
Q

Definition

the amount of pain a person can bear before they seek relief

A

Pain tolerance

104
Q

Definition

when person first becomes aware of the pain

A

Pain perception

105
Q

Pain effects all body systems

Describe how it effect the Respiratory

A

hurts too much to breathe

•Actelectasis & pneumonia

106
Q

Pain effects all body systems

Describe how it effect the Muskuloskeletal

A

hurts too much to move

  • Dvt
  • Cardiovascular:
  • High blood pressure
107
Q

Pain effects all body systems

Describe how it effect the Endocrine

A
  • Stress

* Cortisol

108
Q

Pain effects all body systems

Describe how it effect the Immunity

A

•Cortisol decreases immunity

109
Q

•Fast onset

A

Acute pain

110
Q
  • Long lasting pain
  • C fibers are working overtime
  • Has a different pathological response than acute pain
  • Physiological changes in pain pathway
A

Chronic Pain

111
Q

What is the difference between acute/nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain?

A
  • acute is meant to be protective

* neuropathic pain has abnormal processing

112
Q

Type of Pain
•Tissues deprived of oxygen
•Lactic acid (biproduct of anaerobic) sets off neurotransmitters

A

Ischemic pain

113
Q

Type of Pain

•Pain sensation that occurs outside of where the tissue damage is

A

Referred pain

114
Q

Type of Pain

•Can be acute or chronic

A

Cancer pain

115
Q

Type of Pain
•Associated with chronic pain
•Inflammation and nerve damage to actual nerve fibers
•Characteristics
◦May not have high vitals
◦fatigue
◦Hyperalgesia: increased sensitivity to pain
◦Allodynia: pain is caused by something that doesn’t normally cause pain

A

Neuropathic pain

116
Q

Type of Pain
•pain where a missing limb used to be
•very real and requires treatment

A

Phantom pain

117
Q

•chronic pain is a stressor

A

Stress

118
Q

secreted by adrenal medula; also called epinephrine

A

Adrenaline

119
Q

how does epinephrine/Adrenaline effect our body?

A
  • Increases heart rate and blood pressure,
  • dilate pupils,
  • contract skeletal muscle,
  • vasodilation to release blood for muscles
  • vasoconstriction around core and heart
120
Q

What else does our body produce that helps epinephrine?

A

Cortisol

121
Q

What does cortisol breakdown?

A

Protein

122
Q

What does cortisol decrease?

A

muscle mass

123
Q

Takes amino acids and burns them for energy and converts them into glucose (new glucose)

A

Gluconeogenesis

124
Q 
◦Hyperglycemia
*Hypertension
•Decreased protein synthesis
◦decreases wound healing
◦immunosuppression
•Decreases inflammatory response – poor wound healing
•Redistribution of fat
•Decreased blood flow to gastric mucosa – causing gastric ulcers
A

Effects or biological actions of cortisol

125
Q

How many liters of water in the body?

A

42L

126
Q

Who has a greater risk of dehydration? Why?

A

•Premature infants at greatest risk of dehydration because of a greater ratio of skin surface and kidneys cannot conserve water

127
Q

What are the Two broad fluid compartments?

A
  1. Intracellular (25 L)

2. Extracellular (17 L)

128
Q

Movement of Water

movement of water through cell membrane as a result of hydrostatic pressure

A

filtration

129
Q

Movement of Water

moves water from blood vessels into interstitial space

A

hydrostatic pressure

130
Q

Movement of Water

movement of water from an area of lesser concentration to one of more concentration

A

osmosis

131
Q

Movement of Water

pressure that moves water from interstitial space into blood vessels

A

colloid osmotic pressure

132
Q

What is the protein in blood?

A

albumin

133
Q

Colloid osmotic pressure should equal ___________ ___________

A

hydrostatic pressure

134
Q

measure of degree of concentration; number of particles per kilogram of solvent.

A

osmolality

135
Q

measures the amount of substance in our blood

A

serum osmalality

136
Q

SERUM OSMOLALITY IS ___ to ___

A

285-295

137
Q
  • Sudden weight loss
  • Lightheadedness, dizziness, or syncope upon standing
  • Sunken fontanel (infants)
  • Rapid, thready pulse
  • Low urine output (oliguria)
  • Decreased skin turgor
  • Absence of sweat and tears (infants)
  • Hard stools
  • Soft, sunken eyeballs
  • Thirst
  • Confusion, lethargy
  • Hypovolemic shock
A

Signs of dehydration

138
Q 
•Acites (fluid buildup in the abdomen)
•Crackles on auscultation
•Edema (swelling) - particularly hands, feet, and ankles
•Difficulty breathing while lying down
•High blood pressure
•Irritated cough
•
Shortness of breath (dyspnea)

Strong, rapid pulse

A

Signs of hypovolemia

139
Q

What is the best indicator for fluid status?

A

Urine output - norm: 30 ml/hr

140
Q
  • _______________ is when somebody has a collection of fluid in a place where it normally wouldn’t be
  • Excess water is accumulating in peritoneal space
A

Third Spacing

141
Q

A collection of fluid in the pleural cavity resulting from a disease process, causing atelectassis

A

Pleural effusion

142
Q

Tonicity

Fluid that has the same particle concentration (osmolality) as normal body fluid, will not change size of cells.

A

Isotonic

143
Q

Tonicity

Fluid that has a higher particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes out of cells, causes water to come out of blood and the cells to shrink

A

Hypertonic

144
Q

Tonicity

Fluid that has a lower particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes into cells., causes water to become more watery and the cells to swell

A

Hypotonic

145
Q

What is the norm for Sodium (Na+)

A

136 – 145 mmol/L

146
Q

What are the two types of sodium imbalances?

A

Hypernatremia

Hyponatremia

147
Q
  • too much sodium in the blood, caused by dehydration and eating too much salt
  • clinical manifestations: thirst, lethargy, confusion, seizures, death
A

Hypernatremia

148
Q
  • too little salt in the blood

* clinical manifestations: Muscle cramps, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, headache, lethargy, seizures, coma

A

Hyponatremia

149
Q

What is the norm for Potassium (K+)

A

3.5 – 5.0 mmol/L

150
Q

What are the two types of Potassium imbalances?

A

Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia

151
Q

<3.5 mmol/L would be hypokalemia or hyperkalemia

A

Hypokalemia

152
Q

•Clinical manifestations: Skeletal muscle weakness, abdominal distention, paralytic ileus, cardiac arrhythmias

A

Hypokalemia < 3.5 mmol/L

153
Q

•Clinical manifestations: Skeletal muscle weakness, paralysis, cardiac arrest

A

Hyperkalemia > 5.0 mmol/L

154
Q

What would be the norm for Chloride (Cl)

A

98 – 106 mmol/L

155
Q

Chloride provides indication of

A

acid – base and hydration status

156
Q

Chloride is performed as part of “electrolyte testing, what electrolytes are tested?

A

◦Sodium
◦Potassium
◦Chloride

157
Q

Blood has pH of?

A

7.35-7.45

158
Q

Blood pH of < 7.35

A

acidose, excess hydrogen, blood is acidic

159
Q

Blood pH of > 7.45

A

alkalosis

160
Q

What is the norm for pCO2

A

35 – 45 Hg

161
Q

Acid Base Balance
Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal

pH 7.36 pCO2 39 HCO3 24

A

Normal

162
Q

Acid Base Balance
Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal

pH 7.32 pCO2 49 HCO3 23

A

Respiratory Acidosis

163
Q

Acid Base Balance
Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal

pH 7.48 pCO2 39 HCO3 20

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

164
Q

Acid Base Balance
Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal

pH 7.48 pCO2 30 HCO3 24

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

165
Q

Acid Base Balance
Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal

pH 7.30 pCO2 38 HCO3 20

A

Metabolic Acidosis

166
Q

PCO2

•Check pCO2 if pC02 _____ then cause is respiratory

A

Less than 35 or greater than 45

167
Q

PCO2

Check bicarbonate level if HCO3 is ______ then cause is metabolic

A

Less than 22 or greater than 26

168
Q
  • also known as immunoglobulins

* immunoglobulins fit like lock and key mechanism

A

B Lymphocytes (humoral immunity)

169
Q

IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD

A

Types of Immunoglobins

170
Q

antibody that responds in blood transfusions

A

IgM ( it likes blood “M mmmmm blood)

171
Q

o accounts for most antibodies
o respond to bacteria and viruses
o disease/virus-specific
o antibodies that mother passes on to infant

A

IgG (my momma “G ave” them to me)

172
Q

o normally present in blood in small amounts

o elevated when allergic reaction present

A

IgE (give me a shot of “E pinephrine”)

173
Q

o antibodies found in body secretions (saliva and tears)

o born with them

A

IgA (I like my “A ntibodies”).

174
Q
  • thought to participate in signal transduction across the B-cell membrane along with the B-cell receptors
  • unsure of role
A

IgD (because it’s the “D umb” one haha)

175
Q

T-LYMPHOCYTES ARE _______ MEDIATED IMMUNITY

A

CELL MEDIATED

176
Q

IMMATURE T-CELLS MATURE INTO EITHER _________ T-CELL OR ______________ T-CELL

A

HELPER T-CELLS & CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS

177
Q

WHICH MATURE T-CELL KILLS INVADER DIRECTLY?

A

MATURE CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS

178
Q

WHICH MATURE T-CELL HELPS BUILD ANTIBODIES?

A

MATURE HELPER T-CELLS

179
Q

How can an antigen can recognize antibodies or other types of cells?

A

CLUSTER DIFFERENTIATION

180
Q

WHY DOES HIV ATTACK T-HELPER CELLS?

A

BECAUSE OF CD4 RECEPTORS

181
Q

TYPES OF IMMUNITY

A

NATURAL & ARITIFICIAL

182
Q

IMMUNITY WE GET FROM BEING NATURALLY EXPOSED TO A DISEASE

A

NATURAL IMMUNITY

183
Q

TWO PARTS TO NATURAL IMMUNITY

A

ACTIVE & PASSIVE

184
Q

ANTIBODIES MADE BASED ON EXPOSURE RESULTING IN IMMUNITY

A

ACTIVE NATURAL IMMUNITY

185
Q

ANTIBODIES THAT INFANT RECEIVES FROM MOTHER, RESULTING IN IMMUNITY FOR FIRST 3 MONTHS OF LIFE

A

PASSIVE NATURAL IMMUNITY

186
Q

DELIBERATE EXPOSURE TO AN ANTIGEN

A

ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY

187
Q

TWO TYPES OF ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY

A

ACTIVE & PASSIVE

188
Q

WHICH TYPE OF IMMUNITY?

RECEIVING A VACCINE.

A

ACTIVE ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY

189
Q

WHICH TYPE OF IMMUNITY?

PERSON WHO HAS NOT BEEN PREVIOUSLY IMMUNIZED HAD BECOME EXPOSED, AND IS NOW RECEIVING IMMUNOGLOBINS (ImG) VIA INJECTION

A

PASSIVE ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY

190
Q

HIV IS PART OF WHICH FAMILY?

A

RETROVIRUS

191
Q

HIV DESTROYS __________ CELLS WHICH MEANS NO ANTIBODIES ARE PRODUCED

A

T-HELPER CELLS

192
Q

2 TYPES OF HIV VIRUS

A

HIV TYPE 1

HIV TYPE 2

193
Q

WHICH OF THE TWO TYPES OF HIV VIRUS IS MOST FAMILIAR TO US?

A

HIV TYPE 1

194
Q

WHICH 3 ENZYMES AID IN THE DAMAGING PROCESS OF HIV

A

PROTEASE
INTEGRASE
REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE

195
Q

• uses glycoproteins to latch onto cell
o fuses to cell
o injects RNA into the cell
o reverse transcriptase takes RNA and turns it into DNA
o integrate takes DNA and puts it with DNA in the nucleus
o protease takes DNA and rebuilds it into RNA (rebuilds another RNA virus)

A

HIV LIFECYCLE

196
Q

HOW IS HIV CONTRACTED

A

Mode of Transmission
• sexual contact
• blood or blood products
• mother to child transmission

197
Q

HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION

4 STAGES

A
  1. INITIAL INFECTION
  2. SEROCONVERSION
  3. CLINICAL LATENCY
  4. AIDS
198
Q

WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION:
o t helper cells are main targets (CD4 Molecules)
o rapid replication following exposure

A

INITIAL INFECTION

199
Q

WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION:
o antibodies don’t develop until 3 weeks to 6 months
o might have general flu-like symptoms (lethargy, sore joints) as body trying to fight off infection

A

SEROCONVERSON

200
Q

WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION:
o symptoms disappear
o virus is still active and producing
o cytotoxic T cells are still working and trying to kill off virus
o over time cytotoxic T cells are going to diminish
o trying to destroy immune system at same time
o lasts about 10 years

A

CLINICAL LATENCY

201
Q

WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION:

o CD count

A

AIDS

202
Q

2 TESTS FOR HIV INFECTION

A
  1. ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) TEST

2. WESTERN BLOT TEST

203
Q

WHICH TEST FOR HIV INFECTION?
o looking for antibodies
o possible false negatives if taken before antibodies are produced because of 3 weeks “window period”

A

ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) TEST

204
Q

WHICH TEST FOR HIV INFECTION?
o tested on HIV positive person
o helps to measure the progression

A

WESTERN BLOT TEST

205
Q

IMMUNE SYSTEM IS BEHAVING INAPPROPRIATELY…

(LIKE AKRAM) - hehe

A

HYPERSENSITIVITY

206
Q

THERE ARE _______ TYPES OF HYPERSENSITIVITY

A

FOUR

207
Q 
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY?
•	allergic reaction, asthma
•	histamines cause inflammation in the lungs resulting in:	
o	SOB
o	bronchoconstriction
o	wheezing
o	increase in mucus production
A

TYPE 1 HYPERSENSITIVITY

208
Q

WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY?
• also known as
o cytotoxic
o tissue specific
• antibodies (IgG & IgM) attack antigens on the surface of specific cells
• eg. Graves disease, hemolytic anemia (incompatible blood transfusion)

A

TYPE 2 HYPERSENSITIVITY

209
Q

WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY?
• not tissue specific
• damage all blood vessels in any and all tissue
• destroys multiple tissues and organs at the same time
• eg. lupus

A

TYPE 3 HYPERSENSITIVITY

210
Q

WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY?
• t cells are culprits
• tissue specific

A

TYPE 4 HYPERSENSITIVITY

211
Q

TYPES OF LUPUS

A

SYSTEMIC & DISCOID

212
Q

WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS?
• Autoimmune
• Autoantibody production directed against nuclear antigens
• Antigen-antibody complexes form entering basement membrane of capillaries resulting in inflammatory response

A

SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS

213
Q

WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS?

• Affects kidneys, heart, brain, lungs, skin, joints

A

SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS

214
Q

WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS?

characteristic butterfly shaped rash on face because antigen-antibodies have attacked connective tissue in face

A

DISCOID LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS

215
Q
  • acute or insidious
  • arthralgia, fever, fatigue, joint deformities
  • malar rash, lattice like venular skin changes, alopecia
  • raynaud’s phenomenon
  • glomerulonephritis renal failure
  • myocarditis CHF
  • pleuritis, pleural effusion
A

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF LUPUS

216
Q

LUPUS OCCURS MORE GENERALLY IN _________ OF _____ TO _____ YEARS.

A

FEMALES 15 - 40YRS

217
Q

positive ANA test is usually present with positive anti-DNA (antibody to native DNA) and anti-Sm (antibody to Smith nuclear antigen)

A

TESTING FOR LUPUS

Pathophysiology 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions