Test 1 Flashcards

(217 cards)

1
Q

Definition:

within genetic makeup

A

Inherited

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2
Q

Definition:
condition existing at birth and often before birth, or that develops during the first month of life (neonatal disease), regardless of causation eg. fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Congenital

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3
Q

Definition:

wear and tear eg. arthritis, osteoarthritis

A

Degenerative

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4
Q

Definition:

abnormal chemical reactions eg. diabetes

A

Metabolic

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5
Q

Definition:

caused from malnutrition anorexia

A

Nutritional deficiency

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6
Q

Definition:

mental health disorder

A

Psychogenic

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7
Q

Definition:

caused by an infectious agent eg. MRSA

A

Infectious

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8
Q

Definition:

caused with malfunction of immunity

A

Immunologic

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9
Q

Definition:

exposure to physical agents cause injury, eg. burn from fire

A

Physical agent

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10
Q

Definition:

neo means new, plastic means growth = cancer

A

Neoplastic

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11
Q

Definition:

caused by medical treatment, eg. side effects of medication

A

Iatrogenic

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12
Q

Definition:

unknown cause, eg. some forms of epilepsy

A

Idiopathic

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13
Q

quick onset, quick completion (either cure or death)

A

Acute

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14
Q

longterm, unknown cure

A

Chronic

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15
Q

Definition:

interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms

A

Latent period

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16
Q

Definition:
the interval between the receipt of infection and the onset of the consequent illness or the first symptoms of the illness;

A

Incubation period (may be called latent period)

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17
Q

Definition:

the time during which a disease process has begun but is not yet clinically manifest

A

Prodromal period (prodrome)

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18
Q

Definition:

when the disease is at it’s highest

A

Stage of manifest illness

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19
Q

Definition:

  1. Gradual return to health and strength after illness;
  2. The period needed for returning to health after illness
A

Convalescence

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20
Q

Definition:

A pathological condition resulting from a disease. eg. scar

A

Sequela

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21
Q

Definition:
A secondary disease, an accident, or a negative reaction occurring during the course of an illness and usually aggravating the illness.

A

Complication

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22
Q

Definition:

Not manifesting characteristic clinical symptoms

A

Subclinical

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23
Q

Definition:

To increase the severity, violence, or bitterness of; aggravate

A

Exacerbation

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24
Q

Definition:
1. Abatement or subsiding of the symptoms of a disease; 2. The period during which the symptoms of a disease abate or subside

A

Remission

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25
Definition: | having severe symptoms and a short course
acute phase
26
Definition: | a disease that is native to a local region
endemic disease
27
Definition: | disease is disseminated to many individuals at the same time
epidemic:
28
Definition: | epidemics that affect large geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide
pandemic
29
* cell caps that shorten when chromosome divides | * every time telomere shortens results in less capacity for cell to regain normal function
Telomeres
30
* in order to survive, a cell must adapt * adaptation is chronic * cells that have adapted maintain normal function
Cell Adaptation
31
* cells become smaller | * Eg. Cells in the muscles shrink from disuse
Cell atrophy
32
* cells enlarge * Eg. Muscle cells hypertrophy from exercise * Eg. Hypertension causing enlarged heart
Hyperplasia
33
* Varying sized cells in an orderly growth pattern * One type of cell is being replaced by another less functional cell * Capable of regeneration into normal cells * Eg. Healthy lung cells will be replaced by less functional cells in smoker’s lungs
Metaplasia:
34
* Nuclei are varying shapes and size * Cells do not follow normal pattern of growth * Considered pre-cancerous
Dysplasia
35
* cells have capacity to be injured * when assault on cell is too severe, cell becomes injured * injured cells cannot maintain normal function * mild injury with a healthy cell - may recover * severe injury with an unhealthy cell - may die
Cell Injury
36
after mild cell injury, cell may go back to normal function
reversibility
37
if cell injury is more severe, cell may die and will not return to normal function; cannot maintain homeostasis
irreversibility
38
•when cell is injured, sodium pump fails and causes sodium to come inside the cell causing cell to swell (Normally, ATP keeps sodium outside of cell & potassium inside the cell) * water accumulation within cell causes damage to mitochondria * all diseased cells begin with injury * after injury cells go through swelling
Hydropic Swelling
39
* ATP pump malfunction may cause faulty lysosomes resulting in foreign substance build up in cell * faulty metabolism with mitochondria damage causes substances to accumulate within the cell * Eg. Fatty liver is caused by chronic alcoholism causing lysosome failure to digest fat
Intracellular Accumulation
40
* Cells are physically destroyed * Extremes of temperature * Electrical injuries * Bumps, bruises, scrapes, abrasions, contusions
Physical and mechanical injury
41
* Chemicals can destroy a cell or alter the metabolism of cell * eg. lead poisoning in children can lead to neurological damage
Chemical injury
42
•most common form of cell injury •lack of blood and oxygen •cells that are ischemic are vulnerable, so if oxygen is not restored soon cells will die •once oxygen restoration is accomplished, reprofusion injury may occur ◦overflow of calcium disrupts mitochondria, free radical formation and inflamation ◦free radicals are unstable oxygen molecules
Ischemic Injury
43
Cell Death | irreversible natural cell death; necessary to make room for new cells
Apoptosis
44
Cell Death | irreversible premature cell death due to accidental injury
Necrosis
45
Which type of necrosis? * Tissue made by denatured protein * Gone through ischemia
Coagulative Necrosis
46
Which type of necrosis? * Occurs in areas where there is very little connective tissue, caused by ischemia, bacteria, toxins * Eg. Brain, absesses, cysts
Liquefactive Necrosis
47
Which type of necrosis? •Injured tissue secretes lipase which breaks down normal tissue
Fat Necrosis
48
Which type of necrosis? * Combination of liquifactive and coagualitive * Cheese-like * Typically found in lung tissue * Eg. TB
Caseous
49
Which type of necrosis? •Clinical term for necrosis ◦dry: form of coagulative necrosis, usually on an area with a lack of circulation, skin becomes dry and shrivelled, eg. on a foot ◦wet: commonly found on internal organs, eg. strangled hernia ◦gas: necrotic tissue has bubbles on it
Gangrene
50
Role of blood components •RBCs:
carry oxygen
51
Role of blood components •Platelets
blood clotting
52
Role of blood components •WBCs
protect from infection, play a huge role in inflammation (5000-10,000/mm3)
53
What does blood play a huge role in _______?
Protection
54
•Post-surgical what will be elevated?
WBC
55
•Infection can be detected through _______ ________
blood screening
56
Which cell are the first responders?
WBC - Neutrophils 60 – 70%
57
WBC - Neutrophils are made in the?
•Made in bone marrow
58
* Reproduced quickly * Quickly released during acute inflammatory response * Stay in bloodstream for 6 hours * Increase in neutrophils indicates infection
WBC - Neutrophils 60 – 70%
59
•Band cells are immature ______
Neutrophils
60
* 2nd line | * Antibodies
WBC - Lymphocytes 20 – 25%
61
* Circulate in the blood * Migrate into tissue and turn into macrophages * Have the ability to engulf large bacteria
WBC - Monocytes 3 – 8%
62
* Protective as well * Are particularily useful in parasitic infections * Release chemicals that will damage parasites
WBC - Eosinophils 2 – 4%
63
Which cells are the Mischief makers in asthma (shed their granules that release chemicals causing allergic reactions)
WBC - Eosinophils 2 – 4%
64
* Contain granules that release chemicals causing inflammation * Will be increased in a major trauma
WBC - Basophils 0.5 – 1 %
65
Inflammatory Response | How many stages to the inflammatory response?
3
66
Which stage? | Inflammatory mediators are released, blood vessels dilate, pores in blood vessels open up, fluid leaks into tissue
Stage 1
67
Which stage? WBCs destroy invading pathogens through phagocytosis
Stage 3
68
Which stage? WBCs leave blood vessels and enter into the tissue; diapedesis ◦margination: WBCs start sticking to the sides of blood vessels ◦chemotaxis: WBCs sliping out of the blood vessels after margination, and migrate to the site of injury
Stage 2
69
Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation * Erythema * Heat * Edema * Pain * Loss of function * Exudate: drainage of dead WBCs
Local: localized area around injury
70
Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation * Pyrexia (fever: interleukin 1 acts on hypothalamus to increase body temperature to fight infection * Fatigue * Anorexia * Leukocytosis: increased WBC count
Systemic: widespread throughout the body
71
Bacteria | Process by which bacteria divide
binary fission
72
Bacteria | How do bacteria cause infection?
colonizing
73
Bacteria | Bacteria will destruct if the_______ ____ ___ _____?
conditions are not right
74
Bacteria | Bacteria can live on __________ or ________?
•living or non-living media
75
Bacteria Characterized according to shape: round, berry-shaped spheres
◦cocci
76
Bacteria Characterized according to shape: rod-shaped, long and narrow
◦bacilli
77
Bacteria Characterized according to shape: spiral-form
◦spirochete
78
What is the protective coat that is critical to bacteria survival?
endospore
79
What is the test used to identify bacteria?
gram stain
80
Is Fungi Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?
Eukaryotic
81
Is a Virus Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?
Prokaryotic
82
Is a bacteria Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic?
Prokaryotic
83
disease caused by fungi
Mycoses
84
FUNGI •well-developed •eukaryotic •2 life cycles: trophozoite turns into a cyst when conditions are too extreme (too hot, or ingested) * microorganism that lives in water, plants, soil * eg. bever fever
Protozoa
85
``` FUNGI •parasites •eukaryotic •mouth that allows them to latch onto things •eg. flatworms, roundworms, tapeworms ```
Helminths (greek for worms)
86
* smallest of all the infectious agents * not living * cannot reproduce on their own * multiplies by cell invasion * cannot grow in non-living material * may have a long lifespan
VIRUSES
87
* purpose: cleans up old debris so that tissue cells ready can repair * 0-3 days
INFLAMMATION
88
* 0-10 days * increase cell proliferation on both sides of the wound * increase in collagen (to form a bridge between two tissues) * new basement membrane will form underneath healing ridge * angiogenes (is new blood vessels to supply new tissue)
granulation
89
* 3-30 days * wound starts to shrink and mould * tissue starts to become aligned properly
wound contraction
90
wounds healing by first intention
sutures or staples
91
wounds healing by second intention
leaving the wound open to heal from the bottom up, allows infection out
92
wounds healing by tertiary intention
wound left open until swelling subsides, after which wounds will be resutured
93
* new tissue replaces the old * looks and acts like new * some tissues have the ability to regenerate nicely * eg. skin
regeneration
94
* tissue will repair but won't look or act like it did before * eg. scar tissue
repair
95
when incision splits open
dehiscence
96
when incision splits apart and organs protrude
evisceration
97
What are the four processes of NOCICEPTION?
1. Transduction 2. Transmission | 3. Perception 4. Modulation
98
What are the two set of fibers?
``` A fibers (fast fibers) C fibers (slow fibers) ```
99
Which fiber is affected if it is a sharp shooting pain you feel first?
A Fibers (fast fibers)
100
Which fiber is affected if it is a dull aching pain that is long-lasting, eg. neuropathic pain
C fibers (slow fibers)
101
pain is alleviated by inhibiting substance P, what does is promote?
promotes endorphins and enkephalins
102
Definition the amount of pain a person can tolerate before the person becomes aware of the pain, the point at which a person becomes aware of the pain
Pain threshold
103
Definition | the amount of pain a person can bear before they seek relief
Pain tolerance
104
Definition | when person first becomes aware of the pain
Pain perception
105
Pain effects all body systems Describe how it effect the Respiratory
hurts too much to breathe •Actelectasis & pneumonia
106
Pain effects all body systems | Describe how it effect the Muskuloskeletal
hurts too much to move * Dvt * Cardiovascular: * High blood pressure
107
Pain effects all body systems | Describe how it effect the Endocrine
* Stress | * Cortisol
108
Pain effects all body systems | Describe how it effect the Immunity
•Cortisol decreases immunity
109
•Fast onset
Acute pain
110
* Long lasting pain * C fibers are working overtime * Has a different pathological response than acute pain * Physiological changes in pain pathway
Chronic Pain
111
What is the difference between acute/nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain?
* acute is meant to be protective | * neuropathic pain has abnormal processing
112
Type of Pain •Tissues deprived of oxygen •Lactic acid (biproduct of anaerobic) sets off neurotransmitters
Ischemic pain
113
Type of Pain | •Pain sensation that occurs outside of where the tissue damage is
Referred pain
114
Type of Pain | •Can be acute or chronic
Cancer pain
115
Type of Pain •Associated with chronic pain •Inflammation and nerve damage to actual nerve fibers •Characteristics ◦May not have high vitals ◦fatigue ◦Hyperalgesia: increased sensitivity to pain ◦Allodynia: pain is caused by something that doesn’t normally cause pain
Neuropathic pain
116
Type of Pain •pain where a missing limb used to be •very real and requires treatment
Phantom pain
117
•chronic pain is a stressor
Stress
118
secreted by adrenal medula; also called epinephrine
Adrenaline
119
how does epinephrine/Adrenaline effect our body?
* Increases heart rate and blood pressure, * dilate pupils, * contract skeletal muscle, * vasodilation to release blood for muscles * vasoconstriction around core and heart
120
What else does our body produce that helps epinephrine?
Cortisol
121
What does cortisol breakdown?
Protein
122
What does cortisol decrease?
muscle mass
123
Takes amino acids and burns them for energy and converts them into glucose (new glucose)
Gluconeogenesis
124
``` ◦Hyperglycemia *Hypertension •Decreased protein synthesis ◦decreases wound healing ◦immunosuppression •Decreases inflammatory response – poor wound healing •Redistribution of fat •Decreased blood flow to gastric mucosa – causing gastric ulcers ```
Effects or biological actions of cortisol
125
How many liters of water in the body?
42L
126
Who has a greater risk of dehydration? Why?
•Premature infants at greatest risk of dehydration because of a greater ratio of skin surface and kidneys cannot conserve water
127
What are the Two broad fluid compartments?
1. Intracellular (25 L) | 2. Extracellular (17 L)
128
Movement of Water | movement of water through cell membrane as a result of hydrostatic pressure
filtration
129
Movement of Water | moves water from blood vessels into interstitial space
hydrostatic pressure
130
Movement of Water | movement of water from an area of lesser concentration to one of more concentration
osmosis
131
Movement of Water | pressure that moves water from interstitial space into blood vessels
colloid osmotic pressure
132
What is the protein in blood?
albumin
133
Colloid osmotic pressure should equal ___________ ___________
hydrostatic pressure
134
measure of degree of concentration; number of particles per kilogram of solvent.
osmolality
135
measures the amount of substance in our blood
serum osmalality
136
SERUM OSMOLALITY IS ___ to ___
285-295
137
* Sudden weight loss * Lightheadedness, dizziness, or syncope upon standing * Sunken fontanel (infants) * Rapid, thready pulse * Low urine output (oliguria) * Decreased skin turgor * Absence of sweat and tears (infants) * Hard stools * Soft, sunken eyeballs * Thirst * Confusion, lethargy * Hypovolemic shock
Signs of dehydration
138
``` •Acites (fluid buildup in the abdomen) •Crackles on auscultation •Edema (swelling) - particularly hands, feet, and ankles •Difficulty breathing while lying down •High blood pressure •Irritated cough • Shortness of breath (dyspnea) ``` Strong, rapid pulse
Signs of hypovolemia
139
What is the best indicator for fluid status?
Urine output - norm: 30 ml/hr
140
* _______________ is when somebody has a collection of fluid in a place where it normally wouldn’t be * Excess water is accumulating in peritoneal space
Third Spacing
141
A collection of fluid in the pleural cavity resulting from a disease process, causing atelectassis
Pleural effusion
142
Tonicity Fluid that has the same particle concentration (osmolality) as normal body fluid, will not change size of cells.
Isotonic
143
Tonicity Fluid that has a higher particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes out of cells, causes water to come out of blood and the cells to shrink
Hypertonic
144
Tonicity Fluid that has a lower particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes into cells., causes water to become more watery and the cells to swell
Hypotonic
145
What is the norm for Sodium (Na+)
136 – 145 mmol/L
146
What are the two types of sodium imbalances?
Hypernatremia Hyponatremia
147
* too much sodium in the blood, caused by dehydration and eating too much salt * clinical manifestations: thirst, lethargy, confusion, seizures, death
Hypernatremia
148
* too little salt in the blood | * clinical manifestations: Muscle cramps, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, headache, lethargy, seizures, coma
Hyponatremia
149
What is the norm for Potassium (K+)
3.5 – 5.0 mmol/L
150
What are the two types of Potassium imbalances?
Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia
151
<3.5 mmol/L would be hypokalemia or hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
152
•Clinical manifestations: Skeletal muscle weakness, abdominal distention, paralytic ileus, cardiac arrhythmias
Hypokalemia < 3.5 mmol/L
153
•Clinical manifestations: Skeletal muscle weakness, paralysis, cardiac arrest
Hyperkalemia > 5.0 mmol/L
154
What would be the norm for Chloride (Cl)
98 – 106 mmol/L
155
Chloride provides indication of
acid – base and hydration status
156
Chloride is performed as part of "electrolyte testing, what electrolytes are tested?
◦Sodium ◦Potassium ◦Chloride
157
Blood has pH of?
7.35-7.45
158
Blood pH of < 7.35
acidose, excess hydrogen, blood is acidic
159
Blood pH of > 7.45
alkalosis
160
What is the norm for pCO2
35 – 45 Hg
161
Acid Base Balance Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal pH 7.36 pCO2 39 HCO3 24
Normal
162
Acid Base Balance Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal pH 7.32 pCO2 49 HCO3 23
Respiratory Acidosis
163
Acid Base Balance Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal pH 7.48 pCO2 39 HCO3 20
Metabolic Alkalosis
164
Acid Base Balance Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal pH 7.48 pCO2 30 HCO3 24
Respiratory Alkalosis
165
Acid Base Balance Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis, Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis or Normal pH 7.30 pCO2 38 HCO3 20
Metabolic Acidosis
166
PCO2 •Check pCO2 if pC02 _____ then cause is respiratory
Less than 35 or greater than 45
167
PCO2 | Check bicarbonate level if HCO3 is ______ then cause is metabolic
Less than 22 or greater than 26
168
* also known as immunoglobulins | * immunoglobulins fit like lock and key mechanism
B Lymphocytes (humoral immunity)
169
IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD
Types of Immunoglobins
170
antibody that responds in blood transfusions
IgM ( it likes blood "M mmmmm blood)
171
o accounts for most antibodies o respond to bacteria and viruses o disease/virus-specific o antibodies that mother passes on to infant
IgG (my momma "G ave" them to me)
172
o normally present in blood in small amounts | o elevated when allergic reaction present
IgE (give me a shot of "E pinephrine")
173
o antibodies found in body secretions (saliva and tears) | o born with them
IgA (I like my "A ntibodies").
174
* thought to participate in signal transduction across the B-cell membrane along with the B-cell receptors * unsure of role
IgD (because it's the "D umb" one haha)
175
T-LYMPHOCYTES ARE _______ MEDIATED IMMUNITY
CELL MEDIATED
176
IMMATURE T-CELLS MATURE INTO EITHER _________ T-CELL OR ______________ T-CELL
HELPER T-CELLS & CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS
177
WHICH MATURE T-CELL KILLS INVADER DIRECTLY?
MATURE CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS
178
WHICH MATURE T-CELL HELPS BUILD ANTIBODIES?
MATURE HELPER T-CELLS
179
How can an antigen can recognize antibodies or other types of cells?
CLUSTER DIFFERENTIATION
180
WHY DOES HIV ATTACK T-HELPER CELLS?
BECAUSE OF CD4 RECEPTORS
181
TYPES OF IMMUNITY
NATURAL & ARITIFICIAL
182
IMMUNITY WE GET FROM BEING NATURALLY EXPOSED TO A DISEASE
NATURAL IMMUNITY
183
TWO PARTS TO NATURAL IMMUNITY
ACTIVE & PASSIVE
184
ANTIBODIES MADE BASED ON EXPOSURE RESULTING IN IMMUNITY
ACTIVE NATURAL IMMUNITY
185
ANTIBODIES THAT INFANT RECEIVES FROM MOTHER, RESULTING IN IMMUNITY FOR FIRST 3 MONTHS OF LIFE
PASSIVE NATURAL IMMUNITY
186
DELIBERATE EXPOSURE TO AN ANTIGEN
ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY
187
TWO TYPES OF ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY
ACTIVE & PASSIVE
188
WHICH TYPE OF IMMUNITY? RECEIVING A VACCINE.
ACTIVE ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY
189
WHICH TYPE OF IMMUNITY? PERSON WHO HAS NOT BEEN PREVIOUSLY IMMUNIZED HAD BECOME EXPOSED, AND IS NOW RECEIVING IMMUNOGLOBINS (ImG) VIA INJECTION
PASSIVE ARTIFICIAL IMMUNITY
190
HIV IS PART OF WHICH FAMILY?
RETROVIRUS
191
HIV DESTROYS __________ CELLS WHICH MEANS NO ANTIBODIES ARE PRODUCED
T-HELPER CELLS
192
2 TYPES OF HIV VIRUS
HIV TYPE 1 | HIV TYPE 2
193
WHICH OF THE TWO TYPES OF HIV VIRUS IS MOST FAMILIAR TO US?
HIV TYPE 1
194
WHICH 3 ENZYMES AID IN THE DAMAGING PROCESS OF HIV
PROTEASE INTEGRASE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE
195
• uses glycoproteins to latch onto cell o fuses to cell o injects RNA into the cell o reverse transcriptase takes RNA and turns it into DNA o integrate takes DNA and puts it with DNA in the nucleus o protease takes DNA and rebuilds it into RNA (rebuilds another RNA virus)
HIV LIFECYCLE
196
HOW IS HIV CONTRACTED
Mode of Transmission • sexual contact • blood or blood products • mother to child transmission
197
HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION | 4 STAGES
1. INITIAL INFECTION 2. SEROCONVERSION 3. CLINICAL LATENCY 4. AIDS
198
WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION: o t helper cells are main targets (CD4 Molecules) o rapid replication following exposure
INITIAL INFECTION
199
WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION: o antibodies don't develop until 3 weeks to 6 months o might have general flu-like symptoms (lethargy, sore joints) as body trying to fight off infection
SEROCONVERSON
200
WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION: o symptoms disappear o virus is still active and producing o cytotoxic T cells are still working and trying to kill off virus o over time cytotoxic T cells are going to diminish o trying to destroy immune system at same time o lasts about 10 years
CLINICAL LATENCY
201
WHICH STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION: o CD count
AIDS
202
2 TESTS FOR HIV INFECTION
1. ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) TEST | 2. WESTERN BLOT TEST
203
WHICH TEST FOR HIV INFECTION? o looking for antibodies o possible false negatives if taken before antibodies are produced because of 3 weeks "window period"
ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) TEST
204
WHICH TEST FOR HIV INFECTION? o tested on HIV positive person o helps to measure the progression
WESTERN BLOT TEST
205
IMMUNE SYSTEM IS BEHAVING INAPPROPRIATELY... (LIKE AKRAM) - hehe
HYPERSENSITIVITY
206
THERE ARE _______ TYPES OF HYPERSENSITIVITY
FOUR
207
``` WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? • allergic reaction, asthma • histamines cause inflammation in the lungs resulting in: o SOB o bronchoconstriction o wheezing o increase in mucus production ```
TYPE 1 HYPERSENSITIVITY
208
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? • also known as o cytotoxic o tissue specific • antibodies (IgG & IgM) attack antigens on the surface of specific cells • eg. Graves disease, hemolytic anemia (incompatible blood transfusion)
TYPE 2 HYPERSENSITIVITY
209
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? • not tissue specific • damage all blood vessels in any and all tissue • destroys multiple tissues and organs at the same time • eg. lupus
TYPE 3 HYPERSENSITIVITY
210
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? • t cells are culprits • tissue specific
TYPE 4 HYPERSENSITIVITY
211
TYPES OF LUPUS
SYSTEMIC & DISCOID
212
WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS? • Autoimmune • Autoantibody production directed against nuclear antigens • Antigen-antibody complexes form entering basement membrane of capillaries resulting in inflammatory response
SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
213
WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS? | • Affects kidneys, heart, brain, lungs, skin, joints
SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
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WHICH TYPE OF LUPUS? | characteristic butterfly shaped rash on face because antigen-antibodies have attacked connective tissue in face
DISCOID LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
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* acute or insidious * arthralgia, fever, fatigue, joint deformities * malar rash, lattice like venular skin changes, alopecia * raynaud's phenomenon * glomerulonephritis renal failure * myocarditis CHF * pleuritis, pleural effusion
CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF LUPUS
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LUPUS OCCURS MORE GENERALLY IN _________ OF _____ TO _____ YEARS.
FEMALES 15 - 40YRS
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positive ANA test is usually present with positive anti-DNA (antibody to native DNA) and anti-Sm (antibody to Smith nuclear antigen)
TESTING FOR LUPUS