Test 1

Question 0

Who does Katie love?

Answer 0

Charlie boy

Question 1

Which cells would be deficient if staph infections are recurrent?

Answer 1

PMNs

Question 2

Which cells would be deficient if fungal and mycobacterial infections are recurrent?

Answer 2

T cells

Question 3

Excess allergic reaction is dominated by th1 or 2?

Answer 3

2

Question 4

Delayed hypersensitivity is th1 or 2?

Answer 4

1

Question 5

What cytokines are necessary for memory T cells?

Answer 5

IL-7 and IL-15

Question 6

What is the difference between central and effector memory T cells?

Answer 6

Central reside in periphery and are second wave response after effectors quickly renter inflamed tissue; produce L-selectin and CCR7 (not on effector)

Question 7

Why do you get big lymph nodes wi a FAS-FASL defect?

Answer 7

Can’t kill effector T cells so they build up in nodes

Question 8

What are three ways effector memory T cells are controlled?

Answer 8

Activation induced cell death (prolonged intracellular signaling leads to apoptosis), Cytokine withdrawal (IL-2 decreases due to decreased antigen, T cell can’t sustain activation and dies), and T cell exhaustion (continuous Ag exposure leads to metabolic burnout)

Question 9

What does failure of the CD40 or CD40L lead to?

Answer 9

Hyper IgM syndrome and increased pyogenic infections

Question 10

What are the co receptors for CD4 involved in HIV entry?

Answer 10

CCR5 for macros and dendritic cells, CXCR4 for T cells

Question 11

What does seroconversion mean?

Answer 11

Quantitative estimate of levels of Abs in a host pre and post vaccination

Question 12

Which route of vaccine administration gives the strongest response?

Answer 12

Subcutaneous; iv yields non-responsiveness and intranasal yields allergy

Question 13

Describe the two polio vaccines.

Answer 13

Sabin is a live form given orally and elicits IgA reaction in gut, and sheds virus particles randomly so can lead to inadvertent vaccination; Salk is killed, gives IgG response and is less protective but used now

Question 14

3 types of viral vaccines.

Answer 14

Attenuated, inactivated, and subunit vaccines

Question 15

Issues with subunit vaccines?

Answer 15

Weak T cell response

Question 16

Issues with inactivated viral vaccines?

Answer 16

Epitopes can be destroyed, and no CTLS response b/c seen as extracellular pathogen

Question 17

What is the main functional mechanism of polysaccharide vaccines?

Answer 17

Forces class switching and T cell activation when B cell uptakes polysaccharide and toxoid

Question 18

How do vector vaccines work?

Answer 18

Engineered to express foreign antigens, introduced to host, prime immune system; issues getting a sufficient secondary response though

Question 19

3 plans for malaria vaccine?

Answer 19

Pre-erythrocytic (prevent entry into liver cells, kill infected liver cells), blood stage (protect from rapid replication in blood), transmission blocking (prevent maturation of parasite in mosquito vector)

Question 20

What roles do IFN and TNF play in tumor immune response?

Answer 20

TNF destroys cells, IFN’s upregulate mhc1 in hopes of increased cytotoxic killing

Question 21

What is a tumor associated antigen?

Answer 21

Normal host proteins expressed abnormally either in place, time, or amount

Question 22

What are tumor specific antigens?

Answer 22

Actual, tumor antigens that are more immunogenic

Question 23

What are oncofetal antigens and two examples?

Answer 23

Normally only found in fetal development but expressed during cancer, carcinoembryonic antigen (colon, stomach, pancreas, breast cancers) and alpha-fetoprotein (normal in yolk sac and hepatocellular carcinoma and germline cancers)

Question 24

How do point mutations influence antigen presentation?

Answer 24

Either mutation allows new protein to bind to MHC or create a new epitope for T cell binding

Question 25

Which immune cells are most responsible for tumor killing?

Answer 25

CD8+ T cells ( so MHC1 is very important)

Question 26

What mechanisms do rumors use to escape immune response?

Answer 26

Downregulate MHC, FAS counterattack, produce immunosuppressive agents (TGF-beta), loss of antigenic molecules, induction of tumor specific tolerance, no costimulatory molecules

Question 27

How does HTLV-1 cause cancer?

Answer 27

Produces Tax protein that is an IL-2 mimic inducing a T cell malignancy, which is rare

Question 28

What is multiple myeloma?

Answer 28

Disease of plasma cells resulting in monoclonal Ig production

Question 29

What is ring vaccination?

Answer 29

Vaccinate people closest to case then expand out to contacts of the contacts

Question 30

What is c reactive protein?

Answer 30

Acute phase protein involved in opsonization, complement activation, and is upregulates by IL-1, TNF, and IL-6

Question 31

Mechanism of type 1 IFNs?

Answer 31

Upregulate mhc1, IL-12 receptors, pushing towards antiviral state, inhibits viral replication, and sequesters lymphocytes in LN's to enhance activation

Question 32

What cells are PMN's?

Answer 32

Neutrophils, eosinophils, mast cells, and basophils

Question 33

What is the function of MyD88 dependent pathway for TLR's?

Answer 33

Makes IL-1 and 6 and upregulates costim molecules, via activation of NFkB

Question 34

What are C-type lectin receptors?

Answer 34

Innate receptor found on phagocytes, group one recognizes mannose and leads to phagocytosis, group 2 recognizes asialoglycoproteins and leads to production of proinflammatory molecules

Question 35

What are two cytoplasmic PRR's?

Answer 35

Nod-like receptors which activate cytokines and caspases, and RIG-1-like-helicase which recognizes ds and ssRNA and activates antiviral responses

Question 36

What two Ab types are involved in neutralization?

Answer 36

IgG and IgA

Question 37

Three functions of the Fc region in the immune response?

Answer 37

Promotes phagocytosis of opsonized targets, synergizes with complement, and promote ADCC of opsonized targets

Question 38

Which regions on the Abs determine Ag binding?

Answer 38

CDR's, three in each variable region

Question 39

What directs VDJ recombination?

Answer 39

RSS sequences and the 12/23 rule

Question 40

How is Artemis involved in recombination?

Answer 40

Opens hairpins after rag cuts

Question 41

What molecules induce junctional diversity?

Answer 41

TdT and PolX, TdT in just heavy chain, PolX in both

Question 42

Which are is most affected by junctional diversity?

Answer 42

CDR3 region b/c contains most sections of rearrangement

Question 43

How is IgM and IgD determined? Also secreted versus membrane form?

Answer 43

Alternative mRNA splicing

Question 44

What is idiotypic determinant?

Answer 44

Conformational variation in the variable region

Question 45

How are intraepithelial lymphocytes different from normal lymphos?

Answer 45

Limited TCR variability, so recognize limited set of classical MHC molecules, most don't recirculate and instead stay where they are, induce class switch to IgA, moderate immune response to food antigen

Question 46

Why are class 1 MHC alleles more polymorphic than class 2?

Answer 46

Beta chain for class 1 is invariant so have to get all variability from polymorphism of alpha chain

Question 47

What is linkage disequilibrium?

Answer 47

Alleles inherited together at higher frequency than if random assortment b/c closer together on chromosome

Question 48

What is the difference between anchor residues and central peptide residues?

Answer 48

Anchor point down into the MHC and central point up into the TCR

Question 49

How many MHC must bind specific antigen in APC to stimulate response?

Answer 49

50-100

Question 50

What are M cells?

Answer 50

Part of peyers patch in intestine, w/o villi, constantly samples antigen from lumen and transcytoses Ag to intraepithelial lymphocytes

Question 51

What is the difference between natural and induced intraepithelial lymphocytes?

Answer 51

Natural are stress reactive (gamma delta) to non classical MHC and induced are alpha beta

Question 52

What two things are required for T cell maturation?

Answer 52

Ag binding and IL-2

Question 53

What is the difference in response when a B cell undergoing tolerance induction recognizes a cell surface Ag vs a soluble Ag?

Answer 53

Soluble leads to anergy and cell surface leads to death, or receptor editing in immature cells b/c RAG genes still expressed

Question 54

How do anergic B cells differ from normal mature B cells?

Answer 54

Anergic B cells lose expression of IgM and it gets retained in the cytoplasm

Question 55

What is necessary to get a response from B cells in the absence of T cell stimulation?

Answer 55

Co stimulation by recognition of innate pattern recognition receptors like TLR 4 or CD14; OR multivalent binding by Ag with repeating epitopes; lead to low SHM or CSR b/c no T cell help

Question 56

Which two B cell lymphomas are CD5 positive?

Answer 56

CLL and mantle cell lymphoma

Question 57

Which two B cell lymphomas are CD38 positive?

Answer 57

Multiple myeloma and waldenstroms

Question 58

What distinguishes CLL from mantle cell lymphoma?

Answer 58

CLL is CD23+ and MCL is not

Question 59

What type of hypersensitivity is atopic eczema?

Answer 59

Type 1

Question 60

What two tests would indicate a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

Answer 60

RIST and RAST

Question 61

What is farmers lung?

Answer 61

Type 3 hypersens. reaction, IgG response to mold spores makes complexes that cause inflammation in lung