Test 1: Blood, Heart, Circulation Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
Vitamen K is essential for what blood function
A
blood clotting
2
Q
Put the following events in order: platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, clot formation, vasoconstriction
A
vasoconstriction, platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, clot formation
3
Q
list the 3 types of granulocytes
A
neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil
4
Q
what is the function of a neutrophil
A
phagocytes, “first responders”, go after bacteria
5
Q
what is the function of a basophil
A
intensify inflammation and allergic reaction
6
Q
what chemicals do basophils release
A
histamine, heparin, leukotrienes, prostaglandins
7
Q
what is the function of an eosinophil
A
combat parasitic worms & release anti-inflammatory chemicals
8
Q
which is the most numerous type of granulocyte
A
neutrophil
9
Q
list the 2 types and 3 sub types of agranulocytes
A
monocyte, lymphocyte, B-lymphocyte, T-lymphocyte, Natural Killer
10
Q
what is the function of the monocyte
A
destroys invaders and damaged cells
11
Q
what is the function of the lymphocyte
A
produce antibodies and provide immunity
12
Q
what is the function of the B lymphocyte
A
attack bacteria and their toxins
13
Q
what is the function of the T lymphocyte
A
attacks viruses, fungi, cancer, transplanted cells and bacteria
14
Q
where do T lymphocytes come from
A
the thymus
15
Q
list the events of clot formation
A
vasospasm > vasoconstriction > platelet plug formation= (platelet adhesion > platelet aggregation > platelet plug formation)
16
Q
what ion within hemoglobin binds with oxygen
A
iron, FE++
17
Q
list the cells of erythropoiesis in order
A
hemocytoblast > proerythroblast > erythroblast > normoblast > reticulocyte > erythrocyte
18
Q
list the cells of leukopoiesis for monocytes in order
A
hemocytoblast > monoblast > promonocyte > monocyte
19
Q
list the cells of leukopoiesis for lymphocytes in order
A
hemocytoblast > lymphoblast > prolymphocyte > lymphocyte > B cell or T cell or Natural Killer
20
Q
list the cells of leukopoiesis for eosinophil in order
A
hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > eosinophilic > band cell > eosinophil
21
Q
list the cells of leukopoiesis for basophil in order
A
hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > basophilic myelocyte> band cell > basophil
22
Q
list the cells of leukopoiesis for neutrophil in order
A
hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > neutophilic myelocyte> band cell > neutrophil
23
Q
list the cells of platelet formation in order
A
hemocytoblast > megakaryoblast > promegakaryocyte > megakaryocyte- ruptures and produces cell fragments called platelets
24
Q
describe the structure of a RBC
A
biconcave flexible disc
25
what is the normal RBC count for males
4.7-6.1 million/mm3
26
what is the normal RBC count for females
4.2-5.4 million/mm3
27
what is the normal RBC count for children
4.6-4.8 million/mm3
28
how long do most RBC live
120 days
29
how many RBC are produced per second
2 million
30
what stimulates RBC production
erythropoietin
31
what stimulates WBC production
interlukins & colony stimulating factors
32
what stimulates platelet production
thrombopoietin
33
define platelet aggregation
the sticking of platelets to already present platelets
34
define platelet adhesion
initial sticking of platelets to the wound
35
what are the functions of blood
transport nutrients and waste, regulate pH and temp, protect from blood loss and foreign invasion
36
list the 4 ABO blood groups
A, B, AB, O
37
what antigen does type A blood have
A
38
what antibody does type A blood have
B
39
what antigen does type B blood have
B
40
what type of antibody does type B blood have
A
41
what type of antigen does type AB blood have
A & B
42
what type of antibodies does type AB blood have
none
43
what type of antigen does type O blood have
none
44
what type of antibodies does type O blood have
A & B
45
what types can receive blood from type A
A & AB
46
what types can receive blood from type B
B & AB
47
what types can receive blood from type AB
AB
48
what types can receive blood from type O
A, B, AB, & O
49
what blood type can type A receive
A & O
50
what blood type can type B receive
B & O
51
what blood type can type AB receive
A, B, AB & O
52
what blood type can type O receive
O
53
describe anemia
decreased ability to carry oxygen
54
what causes aplastic anemia
results from faulty bone marrow
55
describe pernicious anemia
decreased B12
56
what causes hemolytic anemia
RBC destruction usually from bacterial infections
57
what causes hemorrhagic anemia
results from blood loss
58
what are the results of iron deficiency anemia
results in microcytes-look like RBC but smaller
59
describe sickle-cell anemia
causes one globin chain to become rigid
60
describe thalassemia
Mediterranean version, resulting from absent or faulty globin chain
61
describe polycythemia
increased RBC count
62
describe primary polycythemia
result of a disease state
63
what can cause secondary polycythemia
natural response to exercise
64
describe leukopenia
decreased WBC count
65
describe leukocytosis
increased WBC count
66
describe infectious mononucleosis (mono)
infection of B cells caused by epstein-barr virus
67
describe leukemia
cancerous conditions involving WBC
68
describe thrombus
a clot in a healthy vessel
69
describe embolus
a thrombus that has broken free and entered circulation
70
describe embolism
an embolus that becomes trapped in another vessel
71
describe hemophilia
inability of blood to clot properly
72
describe thrombocytopenia
decreased platelet production
73
mast cells are similar to what WBC
basophil
74
plasma cells are derived from what WBC
B lymphocytes
75
macrophage are derived from what WBC
monocytes, once they enter tissue
76
Name the 3 layers of the heart from inside to outside
endocardium, myocardium, epicardium
77
what tissue type makes up the epicardium
connective tissue
78
what tissue type makes up the myocardium
cardiac muscle
79
what tissue type makes up the endocardium
simple squamous epithelium
80
will an increase in preload cause an increase or decrease in cardiac output
cardiac output would increase due to the increase in stroke volume
81
will an increase in contractility increase or decrease cardiac output
cardiac output would increase due to the increase in stroke volume
82
will an increase in afterload cause an increase or decrease in cardiac output
cardiac output would decrease due to the increase in blood pressure
83
Where is the SA node located
right atria
84
what is the function of the SA node
is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart
85
movement of what ion in which direction causes depolarization of autorhythmic cells
Ca++ moving in
86
movement of what ion in which direction causes depolarization of cardiac muscle cells
Na+ sodium moving in
87
movement of what ion in which direction causes repolarization of autorhythmic cells
K+ potassium moving out
88
movement of what ion in which direction causes repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
K+ potassium moving out
89
movement of what ions in which directions cause the plateau phase of cardiac muscle action potentials
Ca++ calcium in, K+ potassium out
90
what is the function of the AV node
serves as electrical connection between atria and ventricles
91
how long is the average delay caused by the AV node
0.1 seconds
92
name the 3 phases of the cardiac cycle in order
relaxation, ventricular filling, ventricular ejection
93
what major event occurs during relaxation in the cardiac cycle
ventricular diastole, closer of semilunar valves resulting in "dup" sound
94
what major event occurs during ventricular filling in the cardiac cycle
AV valves open, rapid ventricular filling, atrial systole, end diastolic volume
95
define end diastolic volume
volume of blood in the ventricle just prior to contraction
96
what major event occurs during ventricular systole in the cardiac cycle
closing of AV valves causing "lub" sound, opening of semilunar valves, ventricular ejection
97
which vessels empty into the right atrium
superior/inferior vena cava, coronary sinus
98
which vessels empty into the left atrium
4 pulmonary veins
99
what effect does epinephrine/norepinephrine have on heart rate
increases heart rate
100
what effect does acetylcholine (ACh) have on heart rate
decreases heart rate
101
what is the fossa ovalis
shallow depression found in right atrium, remnant of foreman ovale
102
what is the foreman ovale
a passage between the R/L atrium, used en uteruo to bipass the lungs
103
define cardiac output
total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute
104
define stroke volume
amount of blood ejected in one heartbeat
105
what is the function of the bundle of His
electrically connects atria & ventricles
106
what is the function of the bundle branches
carries impulses to the left and right ventricles
107
what is the function of the purkinje fibers
serve as the site of synapse between conduction system and ventricular myocardium
108
what effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the function of the SA node
increases SA node firing
109
what effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the function of the AV node
decreases AV node delay
110
what effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the function of the SA node
decreases SA node firing
111
what effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the function of the AV node
increases AV node delay
112
what effect does hypernatremia have on the heart and why
slows heart rate down by blocking Ca++ movement into SA node
113
what effect does hypercalcemia have on the heart and why
increases heart rate due to the increased amount of Ca++ moving in
114
what effect does hyperkalemia have on the heart and why
slows heart rate by inhibiting the repolarization of an action potential
115
what effect does hypercapnia have on the heart and why
increases heart rate in an attempt to release CO2 from the body
116
list the characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue
striated, branching, multinucleated
117
what is the defining characteristic of cardiac muscle tissue
intercalated discs
118
where in the nervous system is the cardiovascular center located
in the medula oblongata
119
what are the 3 components of the cardiovascular center
cardio acceleratory center, cardio inhibitory center, vasomotor center
120
describe the Starling law of the heart
"increase in stretch of cardiac muscle equals stronger contraction"
121
what nerves of the sympathetic nervous system innervate the SA node
cardio accelerator nerves
122
what nerves of the sympathetic nervous system innervate the AV node
cardio accelerator nerves
123
what nerve of the parasymphathetic nervous system innervates the SA/AV nodes
vagus nerve
124
what body conditions cause a sympathetic nervous system response
hypoxia, hypercapnia, acidosis, low BP
125
what body conditions cause a parasympathetic nervous system response
high BP
126
what does the P wave represent on an EKG
atrial depolarization
127
what does the QRS complex represent on an EKG
ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization
128
what does the T wave represent on an EKG
ventricular repolarization
129
what does an elevated S-T segment on an EKG represent
myocardial infarction
130
what part of the heart does the right coronary artery supply nutrients to
right atrium, marginal artery & posterior interventricular artery
131
what part of the heart does the marginal artery supply nutrients to
anterior and lateral portions of right ventricle
132
what part of the heart does the posterior interventricular artery supply nutrients to
posterior side of both ventricles
133
what part of the heart does the left coronary artery supply nutrients to
anterior interventricular artery, circumflex artery
134
what part of the heart does the anterior interventricular artery supply nutrients to
anterior side of both ventricles
135
what part of the heart does the circumflex artery supply nutrients to
left atrium and portion of left ventricle
136
what chemicals are detected by chemoreceptors in cardiovascular system
epinephrine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine
137
where are the 2 locations of chemoreceptors in the cardiovascular system
aortic arch & bifurcation of common carotid artery
138
what is detected by baroreceptors in the cardiovascular system
blood pressure
139
what is detected by propioceptors in the cardiovascular system
movement, body position
140
describe the papillary muscles
fingerlike projections of muscle within heart chambers
141
describe the chordae tendinae
connective tissue attached to papillary muscles and AV valves
142
what is the combined function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae
prevent backflow of blood into atria
143
describe the trabeculae carnae
the internal ridges inside the heart wall
144
what is the function of a postive inotropic agent
promote increased stroke volume, moves more Ca++ into cell
145
what is the function of a negative inotropic agent
promote decreased stroke volume, inhibits Ca++ moving into cell
146
inotropic agents affect the movement of what ion
Ca++
147
list the 4 heart valves
tricuspid valve, bicuspid valve, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve
148
what 2 structures does the tricuspid valve seperate
right atrium/right ventricle
149
what 2 structures does the pulmonary semilunar valve seperate
right ventricle/pulmonary trunk
150
what 2 structures does the bicuspid valve seperate
left atrium/left ventricle
151
what 2 structures does the aortic semilunar valve seperate
left ventricle/ascending aorta
152
what event causes the "lub" sound of the heart
closing of AV valves
153
what event causes the "dup" sound of the heart
closing of semilunar valves
154
define heart murmur
abnormal heart sounds
155
define valve stenosis
valve flaps become stiff and narrowed, restricting blood flow
156
define incompetent valve
valve fails to close, results in backflow of blood
157
define mitral valve prolapse
flaps of mitral valve become inverted
158
define arrhythmias
abnormal heart rate
159
define fibrillation
uncoordinated/quivering heartbeat
160
define heart block
inability of impulse to reach ventricles
161
define ischemia
decreased blood flow
162
define angina pectoralis
chest pain related to coronary problems
163
define endocarditis
inflammation of the endocardium
164
name the 3 types of capillaries
continuous capillary, fenestrated capillary, sinusoid
165
which type of capillary is the most common
continous capillary
166
where can continuous capillaries be found
skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, lungs
167
which capillary supplies most tissues
continuous capillary
168
which type of capillary is designed to move large volumes of substances
fenestrated capillary
169
where are fenestrated capillaries found
kidney, small intestine and brain
170
which type of capillary is designed to move large molecules ie blood cells or proteins
sinusoids
171
where are sinusoids found
spleen, liver and bone marrow
172
what is the purpose of bulk flow in the capillaries
allows for large amounts of ions and molecules to move within a fluid, allows for filtration and reabsorption
173
list the 3 pressures that affect bulk flow in the capillaries
NFP, CHP, BCOP
174
define NFP
net filtration pressure
175
define CHP
capillary hydrostatic pressure
176
define BCOP
blood colloid osmotic pressure
177
what causes NFP
the difference between forces favoring filtration and those opposing it
178
what causes CHP
blood pushing against the walls of the vessel
179
what causes BCOP
plasma proteins in the blood
180
does CHP favor reasorption or filtration
filtration
181
does BCOP favor reabsorption or filtration
reabsorption
182
which capillary pressure changes significantly from one end of the capillary to the other end
CHP, pressure created by heart beat
183
describe the structure of the elastic arteries
large in diameter, contain elastic fibers, have a thick tunica externa and tunica media
184
describe the structure of muscular arteries
contain extra smooth muscle
185
describe the structure of arterioles
small arteries
186
describe the structure of capillaries
have only tunica interna
187
describe the structure of venules
no valves in lumen
188
describe the structure of veins
have all 3 tunicas, tunica media is thin, large collapsed lumens, contain 1 way valves
189
describe the function of elastic arteries
carry blood away from the heart
190
describe the function of muscular arteries
distribute blood to different large areas of the body
191
describe the function of arterioles
responsible for blood supply to tissues
192
describe the function of capillaries
nutrient/waste exchange
193
describe the function of venules
facilitate blood flow back to heart
194
describe the function of veins
facilitate blood flow back to heart
195
by what process do most substances move across the capillary wall
diffusion
196
by what process do proteins move across the capillary wall
transcytosis (endocytosis on one side-exocytosis on the other side)
197
describe a metarteriole
a vessel that connects an arteriole to 10-100 capillaries (capillary bed)
