Test 1 Grobe Flashcards
(107 cards)
1
Q
The main canopy of the parachute consists of how many gores (panels)?
A
24
2
Q
Once the ripcord is pulled, how is the pilot chute deployed?
A
Spring Force
3
Q
What is the minimum bailout altitude (approximate feet above the ground), at 90 knots?
A
200
32-60 knots/ 262 feet
60-176 knots/ 197 feet
Min opening alt for vertical fall: 410 feet
4
Q
If you were pulling down on the No. 2 suspension line (located on the right-hand side), what would the parachute do?
A
Turn Right
5
Q
When preparing to land, steer canopy ____________ at 100-150 feet above the ground.
A
into the wind
6
Q
What is the aircraft’s maximum cruise altitude?
A
25,000ft
7
Q
Minimum battery voltage for engine start is __________.
A
24 Volts
8
Q
If a popped circuit breaker (CB) is discovered during flight, the pilot should _____________.
A
reset the CB only once if the associated system is necessary for flight.
9
Q
Which of the following is displayed on the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) with red flags and an aural annunciation that repeats until the condition goes away or is acknowledged by the pilot?
A
Warnings
10
Q
The aircraft airspeed is limited to ___________ KIAS. Exceeding this speed will trigger the visual and aural OVERSPEED WARNING.
A
238
11
Q
Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the fuel collector tank located in the wing tank.
A
NOT: Located in the right wing tank
A. Has a capacity of 37lbs
B. Filled by two jet pumps.
D. Provides uninterrupted fuel to the engine during negative-G maneuvers for one minute.
12
Q
For normal operations the fuel selector switch is set to the ___________ position.
A
LEFT
13
Q
The condition lever controls all of the following except:
A
NOT: Gas producer speed (N1)
A. Fuel Shutoff valve (engine stop or starting)
B. Propeller speed (N2) between 82%-104%
D. Propeller feathering
14
Q
The yellow range on the engine power lever is___________.
A
limited to ground operations only
15
Q
The aircraft hydraulic system operates which of the following systems?
A
Landing gear
16
Q
The two hydraulic emergency accumulators provide emergency _____________.
A
landing gear extension
17
Q
Landing gear speed limits must be observed during all phases of flight. Maximum landing gear operation while in flight is ________KIAS.
A
Max landing gear extending speed is 182 KIAS
Max landing gear retracting speed 137 KIAS
18
Q
What is the power source for the wing flaps?
A
Battery Bus
19
Q
The Elevator and aileron control surfaces are mechanically actuated via push-pull rods. The rudder is actuated by ________________.
A
Conventional cable controls
20
Q
Pulling the BLEED knob out will _____________ flow of hot air into the cockpit.
A
Increase
21
Q
A(n) _____________ must be used for cooling the cockpit below the OAT.
A
A/C compressor
22
Q
The most effective way to use the aircraft fire extinguishers is to ___________
A
create a fully developed extinguishing cloud.
23
Q
The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) LED stays lit for __________ when armed before extinguishing, if serviceable.
A
one second
24
Q
The flight data recorder (FDR) starts recording when the ________________ is powered.
A
Battery Bus
25
The ________________ located on each instrument panel can be used to mark any data for later analysis during debrief.
MARK EVENT Button
26
____________ fully integrates monitoring and display of engine and electrical parameters, trim indications, oxygen indications, as well as warnings and cautions.
EICAS
27
The integrated warning system has three categories of annunciation. __________ consist of red flags and repeated aural annunciations until condition leaves or it is acknowledged.
Warnings
28
What is the reduction of PWR from bleed air?
approximately 2%
29
Which of the following is NOT a form of parasite drag?
NOT PARASITE: Induced Drag
PARASITE DRAG three types:
Form drag
Skin Friction
Interference drag
30
Why is the top of an airplane's wing curved?
To create an area of low pressure above the wing
31
The _______ is a theoretical point where all the aircraft's weight is considered to be concentrated.
Center of gravity
32
An aircraft with its center of gravity at the aft limit will exhibit all of these performance characteristics except:
CORRECT: Highest Stall Speed
Will exhibit:
Be Less stable; tendency to nose up
Highest cruise speed
Be less controllable
33
What is the purpose of the dihedral of a wing?
Create a stabilizing moment.
34
The initial tendency of the aircraft to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed is called ____________.
Positive Static Stability
35
Which is NOT a purpose of a high lift device?
Important for high-speed characteristics of aircraft
36
Which method is most often used to increase the coefficient of lift?
Increase camber of airfoil
37
The only condition that can cause a stall is an excessive _________.
Angle of attack
38
A method of stall progression from the root section to the wingtip where the wing consists of both a cambered and symmetrical airfoil is called _____________.
Aerodynamic twist
39
______________ should be used during takeoff when obstacle clearance is a primary concern. The most altitude is gained for the horizontal distance covered.
Vx Best angle of climb speed
40
When airspeed is held constant, a larger __________ will result in a smaller turn radius and greater turn rate.
Angle of bank
41
Ground effect reduces or cancels out the downwash and _______________ behind the wing during takeoff and landing near the runway surface. This causes lifting surfaces to become more effective.
Wingtip vortexes
42
Takeoff distance is directly _________ to takeoff velocity squared.
proportional
43
A _____________ propeller setting obtains maximum power for takeoff.
Low pitch, High RPM
44
The function of the propeller governor is to:
Control the blade angle to maintain a constant propeller RPM.
45
Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival (ETA) through ____________ after ETA.
one hour
46
When there are intermittent weather conditions, ____________ weather will apply.
Predominant.
47
Maximum airspeed at which this aircraft is certified to operate is ___________ KIAS.
238 KIAS
48
Takeoff power is the maximum power rating, and is limited to a maximum of _________________ minutes operation. Use of this rating should be limited to normal takeoff operations and emergency situations.
5 minutes
49
________________ is the point at which the entire weight of a body may be considered as concentrated, so that if supported at this point, the body would remain in equilibrium in any position.
Center of gravity
50
Who must the aviator contact prior to entering a movement area?
Air traffic control tower.
51
What sign is always collocated with the surface painted runway holding position markings? It is also referred to as the airport "stop sign"
Runway holding position
52
Which airport sign is black with yellow inscription and no border?
Location sign
53
What action do you take if you see a flashing white light signal coming from the tower while taxiing?
Return to starting point on airport
54
You have been cleared to "line up and wait" on the runway. After a brief period, you notice a flashing red signal light coming from the tower. You cannot contact tower on the radio. What are your actions?
Taxi clear of the runway in use
55
Aircraft and vehicles on ____________ are not necessarily talking to the tower so take precautions in these areas.
non-movement areas
56
An aviator should request _______________ instructions from ATC when unsure of the taxi route on an unfamiliar airport.
progressive taxi.
57
Which of the following is not a major contributing factor to runway incursions?
CORRECT:
Failure to activate aircraft lighting while taxiing
ARE major contributing factor:
-Lack of airport familiarity
-Failure to comply with ATC instructions
-Nonconformance with standard operating procedures
58
_________________ may be in effect during simultaneous takeoff and landing operations
LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations)
59
USA aviators ________________ participate in LAHSOs
Do not
60
What is the primary instrument when conducting an instrument scan?
ADI lead indicator
61
A common error when trimming the aircraft is what?
Correct: ALL ABOVE
-Failure to understand the cause of trim changes
-Improper adjustment of seat and rudder pedals
-Confusion as to the operation of trim devices
62
The primary objective when recovering from an unusual attitude is to what?
Safely recover the aircraft to straight and level flight
63
True or False: Homing to a station does not incorporate wind drift correction.
True
64
A standard holding pattern consists of:
B and D are correct:
Right Turns
1-minute inbound legs at or below 14,000 ft
65
For Army C-12 multi-engine training, what is the minimum altitude allowed for a complete engine shutdown?
4000 ft AGL
66
On a VFR night flight, what is the required fuel reserve after flying to your destination and alternate if required?
45 minutes
67
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember while having an alcohol concentration of _________________in a blood or breath specimen.
.04 or greater
68
When two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, which aircraft has the right of way?
The aircraft to the other's right
69
What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed below 10,000 feet MSL
250 Knots
70
What is the minimum safe altitude allowed to fly over a congested area?
At least 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 2000 feet of the aircraft
71
What would be an appropriate altitude for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 270?
6500 feet
West is Even
72
IAW TC 3-04.14.2, METAR is a scheduled observation taken between ___________ minutes past the hour (hourly observation)
55-59
73
Pilots planning a flight under IFR are primarily interested in ceiling and visibility conditions at point of departure, destination, possible alternates, and _______________.
the weather he/she will encounter
73
Prevailing Visibility is the greatest horizontal visibility equaled or exceeded throughout at least half the horizon circle which need not necessarily be continuous.
True
74
DD Form 175-1 block information can be found in what two publications?
TC 3-04.5, TC 3-04.14.2
75
ASOS/AWSS transmissions on a discrete VHF radio frequency are engineered to be receivable to a maximum of ______ NM from the ASOS/AWSS site and a maximum altitude of ___________ feet AGL.
25, 10,000
76
AWOS information is transmitted over a discrete radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID. The system transmits a 20 to 30 second weather message each minute. The messages are updated each minute and are receivable within ______NM of the AWOS site, at or above ________.
25, 3000' AGL
77
Some AWOS locations will be augmented by certified observers who will provide weather and obstruction to visibility information in the remarks of the report when the reported visibility is less than 3 miles.
True
78
TAF Change Indicator Becoming (BECMG) group is for civil use only.
False
79
For decoding significant weather codes in a METAR report an aviator would use the Weather Table in what publicaiton?
FIH
80
In a TAF Temporary (TEMPO) group only changing weather conditions are included.
True
81
The standard normal atmospheric pressure at sea level at a standard air temp of 15C is 1013.2 millibars,29.92 inches of mercury, or __________ PSI
14.7
82
What atmospheric layer is closest to the earths surface?
Troposphere
83
The international classifications of clouds identifies four major cloud groups. They are: high clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and ______________.
Clouds with vertical development
84
When air near the surface of the earth flows over obstructions (bluffs, hills, mountains, buildings), the normal horizontal flow is disturbed. This is an example of ______________ cause.
Mechanical
85
Low level wind shear is not commonly associated with:
Calm winds
86
Which air mass is hot, dry, and unstable. Due to the absence of water vapor, this type of air mass produces few showers.
Continental tropical cT
87
________ ___________ are classified according to the regions where they originate
Air masses
88
In the polar region environment, ____________ is considered the worst flight hazard encountered.
Depth perception
89
The four factors that control cT weather climate are: 1. Pressure pattern and wind flow 2. Orientation, height, and extent of coastal mountain ranges 3. Altitude of the continental area and 4. ____________________
Rate of evaporation from the surrounding ocean surface
90
The boundary layer between two types of air masses is known as a __________
Front
91
There are four types of fronts that are named according to the temperature of the advancing air relative to the temperature of the air it is replacing. Which of the following is not a type of front?
NOT: Squal
Warm
Cold
Stationary
92
Hail may be carried up to ______ miles downwind from the storm core.
20
93
A thunderstorm makes its way through three distinct stages before dissipating. Which of the follwoing is not a thunderstorm stage:
NOT: Initial/ Preliminary
Cumulus
Mature
Dissipating
94
There are four degrees of intensity when describing turbulence that all pilots must know. They are light, moderate, __________, and extreme
severe
95
What type of icing can be expected in the temperature range 0 to -10.
Clear
96
Which of following is NOT part of the visual inspection for the preflight Exterior Check?
Parking brake and checklist
97
Which of the following is NOT part of the BEFORE Exterior Check?
Nose Section
98
During normal takeoff, set TQ to approximately ______% before brake release.
50
99
While performing the RUN UP (Prop OVERSPEED GVNR CHECK), the Power Lever is used to set the N2 speed at _________RPM
1800-1850
100
For takeoff you should observe TORQUE + TOT Limitation (111%+810). 115% TQ is limited to ______ seconds. Check N2 RPM between ___________
10; 1900-2130
101
After takeoff, call Flaps UP above _____ KIAS
90
102
The maximum angle-of bank (AoB) while conducting steep turns is _______ degrees.
60
103
While performing a slow flight maneuver, stabilize and maintain the airspeed at ________ +5/-0 KTS.
Vref
104
The power lever must not be retarded below flight idle at speeds greater than _______ KIAS during landing roll.
80
105
Symptoms during approach to a 1g stall are summarized as follows:
* Below________ KIAS the aircraft becomes less reponsive to control inputs
* Audio stall warning a ________ KIAS above stalling speed.
* Airframe and elevator buffeting starts KIAS above stalling speed and intensifies as the stall develops
80, 5 to 10, 5 to 10
106
Loss of altitude during a 1g stall recovery may reach up to normally ___________.
500
