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FW > Test 2 C-12 AQC > Flashcards

Test 2 C-12 AQC Flashcards

1
Q

IAW the operator’s manual, what weight and balance class is the Army C-12 U1 model?

A

Class 2

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2
Q

What is the formula for determining CG on the DD Form 365-4?

A

Moment / Weight = CG

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3
Q

What is the zero fuel weight limitation for the C-12 U1?

A

11,000 lb

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4
Q

For cargo loading purposes, the floor is designed to support _____lb/ft^2 when supported by the seat tracks, whereas the areas where seat track support is not possible will support 100 lb/ft^2 floor landing.

A

200

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5
Q

The ___________ position of the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) readies the ELT to transmit when an impact force occurs.

A

ARM

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6
Q

If the aircraft attitude reaches extreme limits, all scales, pointers, and annunciations not related to attitude are removed from the electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI). What is the bank limit that will cause this to hapen?

A

65 Degrees

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7
Q

On the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI), what will the FMS vertical deviation pointer do to alert the approach of a vertical path waypoint?

A

Flash

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8
Q

The radar altitude readout automatically shows on the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) when the aircraft is at or below _________ AGL

A

2500

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9
Q

The Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) has a wind arrow, how many knots of wind does each full feather on the arrow represent?

A

10

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10
Q

What provides control inputs to the EADI and EHSI?

A

Display Control Panel (DCP)

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11
Q

On the Turn and Slip indicator, where would the ball be during a skid?

A

On the outside of the turn

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12
Q

What provides the pitch and roll references for the standby attitude indicator?

A

Self-contained gyro

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a capability of the FMS 3000?

A

Auto-Land

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14
Q

_____________ processes transmissions from multiple GPS satellites simultaneously to calculate navigation solutions.

A

FMS 3000 Flight Management System

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the FMS 3000?

A

Flight Data Recorder (FDR)

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16
Q

___________ accepts data from the GPS and computes a position estimate.

A

Flight Management Computer (FMC)

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17
Q

Each ________ provides an interface with the Flight Management Computer (FMC).

A

CDU-2000 Control Display Unit

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18
Q

All FMS data is visually displayed on _____________.

A

MFD, EADI, EHSI, and CDU

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the initialization process of the FMS 3000?

A

Checking RAIM

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for programming an airway leg on the FMS 3000?

A

Both entry and exit waypoint need not be on that airway

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21
Q

To exit FMS holding function, press ____________ HOLD on the LEGS or HOLD page.

A

EXIT

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22
Q

When programming the FMS direct to a flight plan waypoint, press the ____________ key. Then select the waypoint from flight plan list and press EXEC.

A

DIR

23
Q

To add/change an approach procedure in FMS, you will press the ________________ function key. Select key adjacent to desired approach and press EXEC.

A

DEP ARR

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement for missed approach procedures defined in the FMS 3000?

A

Missed approach procedures are automatically deleted from flight plan.

25
Q

What is the definition for Vyse?

A

Best single-engine, rate-of-climb speed

26
Q

What is the definition for Vx?

A

Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance speed)

27
Q

How can the most accurate performance data be obtained?

A

By using existing conditions

28
Q

When computing takeoff power engine ice vanes shall be retracted above what temperature?

A

15 deg C

29
Q

You must re-compute a new TOLD card anytime conditions increase by?

A

1000 feet PA, 10 deg C, or 500 lbs gross weight

30
Q

Where is the HOT Battery Bus physically located on the aircraft?

A

Located under the right wing center section

31
Q

The aircraft battery provides _____ power to the electrical system.

A

24 VDC

32
Q

What is the maximum generator load allowed at FL250?

A

100%

33
Q

What is the starter limitation during the first start attempt?

A

40 seconds on, then 60 seconds off

34
Q

How many times should you reset a circuit breaker for an essential circuit?

A

One Time

35
Q

The BATTERY CHARGE annunciator should extinguish within approximately how many minutes after engine start?

A

5 minutes

36
Q

The C-12 fuel system consists of __________ wing tanks.

A

five interconnected

37
Q

If either auxiliary transfer system fails to operate, the fault condition is indicated by two illuminated MASTER CAUTION annunciators on the glareshield and a steady illuminated yellow __________ light on the Master Caution/Advisory annunciator panel.

A

1 or #2 NO FUEL XFR

38
Q

Normal gravity transfer of the main wing fuel into the nacelle tanks will begin when __________ is exhausted.

A

Auxiliary fuel

39
Q

The _____________ and ______________ in each fuel system provide inlet head pressure to the engine driven primary high-pressure fuel pump.

A

engine-driven fuel boost pump; standby fuel pump

40
Q

When the #1 or #2 NAC LOW annunciator on the caution/advisory panel illuminates there is approximately ______________ of usable fuel remaining at sea level normal cruise power consumption rate for the applicable engine.

A

30 minutes

41
Q

Illumination of the No. 1 or No. 2 FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates failure of the respective?

A

Engine-driven boost pump

42
Q

A _______________ system is installed in each engine to detect external engine fire and provide alarm to the pilot.

A

Flame surveillance.

43
Q

Infrared radiation exposure activates the relay circuit of a __________, which causes signal power to be sent to cockpit warning systems.

A

control amplifier

44
Q

Pulling the __________ will electrically arm the extinguisher system and close the fuel firewall shutoff valve for that particular engine.

A

fire control handle

45
Q

Pressing the lens of the __________ switch will fire the squib, expelling all the agent in the cylinder at one time.

A

PUSH TO EXTINGUISH

46
Q

Which system is NOT part of the Pneumatic system?

A

Air-conditioning system

47
Q

The rudder boost system is ____________.

A

An aid for maintaining directional stability during engine failure or large power variation between engines

48
Q

During simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice systems, maintain the N1 at __________% or higher. If adequate pneumatic pressure cannot be provided for simultaneous operation fo the brake deice and surface deice system, turn the BRAKE DEICE switch to _____________.

A

85%, OFF

49
Q

Bleed air is supplied to the landing gear power pack to _______________.

A

Prevent pump cavitation

50
Q

The poly-flow is used for which system?

A

Bleed air warning system

51
Q

The gyro suction gauge normal range above 15,000 feet is?

A

2.8 to 4.3 inHg

52
Q

Pitot heat should not be used for more than ____________ minutes while the aircraft is on the ground. Overheating may damage the heating elements.

A

15

53
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking, windshield heat should be placed in the NORMAL position for at least ____________ minutes prior to using the HIGH position

A

15

FW (6 decks)

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