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N2720: Health and Healing > TEST 1: midterm > Flashcards

TEST 1: midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is one function of COX 1?

A

Protect stomach mucosa from stomach acid

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2
Q

What is the main function of COX 2?

A

Inflammation

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3
Q

Are NSAIDs selective or non-selective? (To what?)

A

non-selective

inhibiting both COX 1+2

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4
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins?

A

Regulation of inflammation

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5
Q

What happens if you decrease the synthesis of prostaglandins?

A

an anti-inflammatory effect occurs

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6
Q

What is the source of pain for uterine contractions?

A

Prostaglandins

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7
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

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8
Q

What organ is associated with excretion? Metabolism?

A

Excretion - Kidney

Metabolism - liver

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9
Q

What is the role of an agonist?

A

To mimic the antibody and activate the receptor

- sometime permanent

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10
Q

What is a competitive antagonist?

A

Blocks the receptor site

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11
Q

What is a non-competitive antagonist?

A

Binds to its own receptor site and deactivates R

- even with agonist binding, will not work

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12
Q

What is a chemical antagonist?

A

Binds to the agonist to not allow it to be able to bind to binding site

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13
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

Extreme allergic rxns

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14
Q

Evidence of alterations within the body as perceived by the patient are called:

A

Symptoms

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15
Q

Clear evidence of alteration to the body that can be perceived by others, doctors, etc:

A

Signs

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16
Q

What is the term for diseases caused by medical treatment?

A

Iatrogenic

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17
Q

Which type of bacteria have THICK cell walls?

A

Gram POSITIVE bacteria

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18
Q

Why are gram negative bacteria harder to treat with antibiotics?

A

They have a second cell membrane

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19
Q

What is bioavailability? Which route of administration have 100% bioavailability?

A
  • the fraction of drug that reaches circulation unchanged

- Intravenous (IV)

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20
Q

What are the 3 semisynthetic PCNs?

A

Methicillin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin

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21
Q

Which type of penicillin cannot be taken orally?

A

Penicillin G

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22
Q

Why doesn’t penicillin attack our human cells?

A

Because they do not have cell walls, and penicillin attacks selectively cell walls which are located only on the bacteria

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23
Q

What are the 4 antibiotics that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall?

A
  • penicillins
  • vancomycins
  • cepholasporins
  • bactrams
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24
Q

Can B-lactamase inhibitors be used alone? What must you combine them with?

A
  • no

- antimicrobials

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25
What are the narrow spectrum penicillins?
Penicillin G and Penicillin V
26
Name the 2 aminopenicillins.
- ampicillin | - amoxicillin
27
Name the 2 first generation cephalosporins.
Cefazolin | Cephlexin
28
What cephalosporin has a severe effect with alcohol?
Second generation CEFOTETAN
29
Which generation cephalosporins are NOT effective against anaerobic bacteria?
1st, 3rd, 4th
30
Which generation of cephalosporin is effective against pneumococcus?
3rd
31
Which generations of cephalosporins are effective against pseudomonas?
3rd, 4th, 5th
32
What kind of infections are 1st, 2nd, and 3rd generation cephalosporins treat?
1st: skin 2nd: abdominal 3rd: lung
33
What would you give to someone who has acquired HCAP and why?
vancomycin + pip/tazo | - treating for MRSA and pseudomonas because they are in the hospital setting
34
What is the suffix used for cephalosporins class MACROLIDES?
-omycin
35
Macrolides cannot be administered with what, why?
Fruit juices | - acidity decreases the activity of these drugs
36
What cephalosporin has an adverse effect of hearing loss?
Macrolides
37
What is the suffix for tetracyclines?
-cycline
38
What is the 1/2 life of tertracyclines, macrolides?
T: short M: long
39
What are the 6 classes of cephalosporins?
- macrolides - tetracyclines - clindamycin - aminoglycosides - nitrofurantoin - fluoroquinolones
40
State the characteristics of macrolides.
BACTERIOSTATIC | - inhibits protein synthesis
41
Which one of the macrolides has Gram- activity?
Clarithromycin
42
What kind of macrolide would you use for strep or staph?
Erythromycin
43
State the characteristics of tetracyclines.
BACTERIOSTATIC - inhibits protein synthesis - works on most gram+ and common gram- - POOR activity with pseudomonas and c. diff. - binds to calcium
44
What is the purpose of inflammation?
to protect and minimize injury
45
What are the 3 goals of inflammation?
- increase blood flow to site - increase healing cells at site - prepare for tissue repair
46
Tissue damage causes release of _____ factors that trigger a local increase in ____ and _____.
chemotaxis blood flow permeability
47
The term for crossing the intact vessel wall.
Diapedesis
48
What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of the phospholipid membrane into arachidonic acid?
- phospholipase A
49
What are 3 harmful effects of inhibiting COX 1?
- stomach problems, ulcers - GI bleeding, bleeding out - renal impairment
50
Which COX can help protect against colon cancer?
COX 2
51
Which spoken about drug is NOT an NSAID?
acetaminophen
52
Name an NSAID with selective COX 2 inhibitors. What would this do to the body?
Celecoxib - reduce inflammation, pain, fever - promote blood clotting - protect against colon cancer
53
Name 2 NSAIDs that are non selective and inhibit both COX 1 and COX 2. What effect do they have on the body?
Aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, ketorolac - inhibit production of gastric mucus (ulcers) - reduce inflammation, pain and fever - risk of GI bleeding - renal impairment
54
What does antipyretic and salicylate mean?
antipyretic: To reduce fever salicyclate: inhibit platelet aggregation (thinning blood)
55
Why must a child never be given aspirin?
Linked with Reye's syndrome
56
What is Reye's syndrome?
Swelling of the liver and brain - diarrhea - vomiting - seizures - irritable behaviour - lethargic (sluggish) - rapid breathing
57
Does acetaminophen suppress platelet aggregation?
no
58
Does acetaminophen decrease renal blood flow or cause impairment?
No
59
Overdose of acetaminophen can cause severe ____ injury
Liver
60
What is Steven Johnson's syndrome?
Blotchy red rashes
61
What are 2 levels that, if they are high, there is always inflammation?
ESR and CRP
62
What has a greater anti-inflammatory effect than NSAIDs?
Glucocorticoids
63
What are long term adverse effects of Glucocorticoids? (8)
- glucose intolerance - osteoporosis - myopathy - adrenal insufficiency - electrolyte imbalance - cataracts/glaucoma - risk of ulceration with use of NSAIDs - cushing's syndrome
64
During long term therapy, the ant. pit. gland loses ability to manufacture _____, then the adrenal glands atrophy then lose ability to synthesize ____ and other glucocorticoids.
- ACTH | - Cortisol
65
What are characteristics of clindamycin class cephalopsporins?
BACTERIOSTATIC - does not cover C. Diff - hepatic and renal elimination (caution in those with impairment in both)
66
Clindamycin class cephalosporins are good for treating: (3)
- necrotizing pneumonia - diabetic feet - necrotizing fascitis
67
What is the most common adverse effect of clindamycin?
Diarrhea
68
What are characteristics of aminoglycoside class cephalosporin?
BACTERICIDAL - inhibits protein synthesis - only available as IV, cannot be absorbed though GI tract - pseudomonas - INACTIVE against most gram + - poor tissue penetration - excellent urine penetration
69
What are characteristics of fluoroquinolone class cephalosporin?
BACTERICIDAL | - drug interactions with caffeine, warfarin, etc.
70
Is vancomycin a beta lactam?
No
71
Broad spectrum antibiotics act against a _____ group of bacteria.
Large
72
Narrow spectrum antibiotics act against a _____ group of bacteria.
Limited/smaller
73
What is a disease that is type 4 hypersensitivity?
Multiple sclerosis
74
What is a disease that is type 3 hypersensitivity?
Rheumatoid arthritis
75
What is the first response immunoglobulin?
IgM
76
The most common immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?
IgG
77
What are all of the immunoglobulins?
``` IgM IgG IgA IgD IgE ```
78
Which immunoglobulin can be be secreted in the mucus and breast milk?
IgG
79
Which immunoglobulin is involved in B cell activation?
IgD
80
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergies and histamine reactions?
IgE
81
What is the first exposure to an allergen called?
Sensitization
82
What do H1 receptors do when activated?
bronchi and smooth muscle contraction

N2720: Health and Healing (3 decks)

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