test 1 study cards

Question 1

What pharmacokinetics stage enables medications to get through natural body barriers (taking in of nutrients and drugs into the body from food & liquids)

Answer 1

Absorption

Question 2

what pharmacokinetics stage allows a medication to go throughout the body via bloodstream into tissues, membranes, and ultimately organs (movement of a medication throughout the blood/organs/tissues)

Answer 2

Distribution

Question 3

what pharmacokinetics stage includes all the changes a substance is subjected to in the body & takes place in the liver (process by which the body breaks down or converts medication to active or inactive substance)

Answer 3

Metabolism

Question 4

The effect in which some drugs travel to the liver, and part of it is metabolized before the drug has a chance to be distributed throughout the body

Answer 4

First-Pass Effect

Question 5

The last pharmacokinetics stage of the drug’s life in the body.
- The drug can be excreted through the body via kidneys, feces, breast milk, exhalation, sweat glands, and urination

Answer 5

Elimination

Question 6

the rate at which a drug makes it to its destination and becomes available to the site of action which is it intended

Answer 6

bioavailability

Question 7

the amount of time it takes the body to break down and excrete one-half of a drug.

Answer 7

half-life

Question 8

the comparison between drugs either from different manufacturers or in the same company but from different batches of a drug

Answer 8

bioequivalence

Question 9

discretionary duties of a pharm tech

Answer 9

data entry for new prescriptions, billing for new prescriptions, repackaging medications, call dr.’s office for refill authorization, IVs, refer patient to pharmacist for any information regarding products

Question 10

some responsibilities techs cannot perform

Answer 10

take new prescriptions over phone, transfer prescriptions to other pharmacies, patient counseling/answer drug related questions, override warnings on computer, certify/verify dispensing, leave discrepancies unreported

Question 11

3 parts of ndc number

Answer 11

1st set: 5 numbers: MANUFACTURER
2nd set: 4 numbers: DRUG INFORMATION
3rd set: 2 numbers: PACKAGE SIZE

Question 12

how is a DEA number verified?

Answer 12

By verifying the last digit

Question 13

What is the highest class level of a recall, serious harm/possible death?

Answer 13

Class 1

Question 14

What is the next level of a recall, slight to serious harm?

Answer 14

Class 2

Question 15

What is the lowest level if a recall, minor product defect?

Answer 15

Class 3

Question 16

Should federal or state law be followed when there is a difference between them?

Answer 16

follow the stricter law

Question 17

what does DUE stand for and what is its purpose?

Answer 17

Drug Utilization Evaluation — requires pharmacists to counsel patients who receive new prescriptions

Question 18

What is the name of the program where the FDA requires medications with safety concerns to be evaluated to ensure benefits outweigh the risk?

Answer 18

REMS - Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy

Question 19

Can techs transfer a prescription?

Answer 19

No

Question 20

How many times can a medication be transferred?

Answer 20

1

Question 21

Can C2s be transferred?

Answer 21

No

Question 22

How many times within how many months can C3-5 controlled substances be refilled?

Answer 22

5 times within 6 months from the date written

Question 23

Can C2 controlled substances be refilled?

Answer 23

No

Question 24

Can C2s be partially filled?

Answer 24

Yes, remaining quantity had to be refilled within 72 hours

Question 25

DEA requires narcotic inventory every how many years?

Answer 25

2 years

Question 26

C3-5 controlled substances can be transferred how many times?

Answer 26

1 time

Question 27

Which medication has the BTC (behind the counter rule and is allowed 3.6 grams per day, 9 grams per month, and 7.5 grams for 30 days mail order?

Answer 27

pseudoephedrine (medications like Sudafed, Zyrtec-D, Claritin-D)

Question 28

Who oversees BOPs (board or pharmacy)?

Answer 28

NABP (national association of boards of pharmacy

Question 29

Which DEA form is used to order C2 medications, and how many years should copies should be kept for?

Answer 29

DEA form 222, and copies must be kept for 2 years

Question 30

Which DEA form is used to destroy damaged, outdated, and unwanted controlled substances?

Answer 30

DEA form 41

Question 31

Which pregnancy category has the highest risk of teratogenicity?

Answer 31

Category X

Question 32

STAT orders are to be filled & delivered within how many minutes?

Answer 32

5-15 mins

Question 33

What are the 3 categories of dosage forms?

Answer 33

Solids, Semisolids, Liquids

Question 34

Abbreviation SA?

Answer 34

Sustained Action (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 35

Abbreviation LA?

Answer 35

Long acting (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 36

Abbreviation CR?

Answer 36

Controlled release (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 37

Abbreviation XR?

Answer 37

Extended release (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 38

Abbreviation SR?

Answer 38

Sustained release (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 39

Abbreviation IR?

Answer 39

Immediate release (medications of this type cannot be crushed, cut, or chewed)

Question 40

Which dosage form can be safely cut in half?

Answer 40

Scored tablet

Question 41

Which dosage form treats the mouth and throat locally?

Answer 41

Lozenges/Troches

Question 42

Which dosage for includes creams, suppositories, inhalant powders, and ointments?

Answer 42

semisolids

Question 43

Advantages and disadvantages of the IV route of administration

Answer 43

Advantages: Fastest ROA, bypasses GI system Disadvantages: If something goes wrong, there is not a lot of time to fix the issue

Question 44

Order of pharmacokinetics

Answer 44

Absorption>Distribution>Metabolism>Elimination

Question 45

What is the purpose of the “do not use list” by the TJC (The joint commission)?

Answer 45

Common misinterpreted abbreviations that MDs shouldn’t use

Question 46

Who inspects pharmacies?

Answer 46

Each state’s Board of Pharmacy (unless the pharmacy is also a manufacturer, the FDA will inspect)

Question 47

Functions of the FDA?

Answer 47

Enforces guidelines for manufacturers to ensure safety and effectiveness of medications

Question 48

Functions of the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)

Answer 48

Deals strictly with ILLEGAL distribution and misuse of controlled substances Issues licenses and enforces the nation’s drug laws

Question 49

What DEA form is needed by pharmacy to dispense controlled substances?

Answer 49

Form 222

Question 50

Which DEA form is needed to manufacture or distribute controlled substances?

Answer 50

Form 225

Question 51

Which DEA form is needed to report loss or theft of narcotics (aka controlled substances)?

Answer 51

Form 106

Question 52

What DEA form is used to send returns to reverse distributor?

Answer 52

Form 41

Question 53

methods of filing controlled substances

Answer 53

Method 1: Drawer 1: C-II separate, Drawer 2: C-3,4,5, Drawer 3: All other prescriptions Method 2: Drawer 1: C-2 separate drawer 2: C-3, 4, 5 and all other prescription drugs Method 3:

Question 54

Controlled Substances Hierarchy

Answer 54

Schedule 1: No medicinal value, highest abuse potential: (ex: LSD, Heroin) Schedule 2: high abuse potential: (ex: Oxycontin, Adderall, Vicodin) Schedule 3: Moderate abuse potential (ex: anabolic steroids; testosterone, furicet)

Question 55

DEA verification

Answer 55

* First letter of DEA: - A, B, or F = doctors, physicians, dentists, etc. - M = Nurse practitioner - X = qualified prescriber for opioid dependence * Second Letter of DEA number id the first letter of their last name

Question 56

How to verify DEA

Answer 56

1) add up the 1st, 3rd and 5th numbers 2) add up the 2nd, 4th, and 6th numbers and multiply the result by 2. 3) add step 1) and step 2) and verify the last digit of the result. It should match with the 7th digit of DEA #

Question 57

Prescription labels

Answer 57

Of pharmacy: - Name - Address - Phone # • Name of prescriber • Date prescription was filled • Prescription # and cautions

Question 58

Repackaging

Answer 58

Medication taken from bulk packages and placed into blister packs or unit dosing devices must include: - Drug name - Strength and dosage form - Manufacturer and lot number - Beyond use date

Question 59

What are a technician’s roles in inpatient (pharmacy in hospital) pharmacies?

Answer 59

may prepare intravenous medications (IVs), fill/deliver medications through automated systems, stock nursing units (for example, the CCU, OR, and ICU), repackage medications for unit dose carts

Question 60

technicians roles in community (outpatient) pharmacies

Answer 60

- perform data entry and access patient info - bill insurance companies (tech must know various rules, regulations, and special codes for each prescription) - prepare medications, medical devices, and compounds for customer delivery or pickup

Question 61

Routes of administration: By mouth (oral) = PO

Answer 61

when typing a prescription’s directions, use the verb “take”.

Question 62

Routes of administration: sublingual (SL) and buccal

Answer 62

Use: “Place” or “insert” as verbs when typing prescription’s directions

Question 63

Routes of administration: Rectal agents/suppositories (PR=rectally)

Answer 63

Use “insert” for this dosage form when typing prescription directions

Question 64

Routes of administration: Topical drugs (agents that fight skin infections, inflammation, and block UV rays of the sun

Answer 64

Use “apply” for the verb when typing patient directions

Question 65

Parental drugs: intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (subcut)

Answer 65

Parent drugs work within a few minutes, though there is a disadvantage in that once the drug is injected, there is little to alter its course if an allergic reaction (or other emergency) takes place or too much drug is given.