Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

American Airlines > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

The captain must conduct the takeoff when visibility is less than ___ ft. RVR for any RVR on that runway or 1/4 statue mile.

A

1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The takeoff and approach legality tables can be found in:

A

FOM and QRH on some fleets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If established ______ and ATC issues a microburst alert for the runway of intended landing, a go-around must be executed , and if necessary, accomplish wind shear escape procedures.

A

On the final approach segment of an approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For extended ground delays, the Tarmac Delay clock starts when?

A

When the last cabin entry door used by passengers is closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Should the required equipment fail prior to entering RVSM airspace _________?

A

Contact ATC to get clearance that avoids flight within RVSM airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ATC phraseology for taxiing into position for takeoff on the departure runway and waiting for takeoff clearance is?

A

Line up and wait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the minimums for the Circle to Land Approach Maneuver?

A

1000 ft ceiling / 3 miles visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Flight Operations Manual sets forth corporate policies, procedures, and __________?

A

FARs and AA operations specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following operational priorities, which must be taken into consideration to ensure operating integrity and consistency in American Airlines system of service are:

A

Safety, customer service, and operating economics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_________ come at the crew, ________ come from the crew.

A

Threats; Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In reference to the Threat and Error Management Model, what does it mean to be in the yellow?

A

You are marginal and your focus has narrowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ABCs in the Threat and Error Management Model stand for?

A

Actively Monitor & Assess, Balance available Barriers, Communicate, Follow SOPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Air Total Halon extinguisher can be used on _____ type fires?

A

Class A, B, and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When operating any of the Halon fire extinguishers, the first step is to?

A

Break the safety wire holding the pin or lever on the handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Notes direct the pilot to review the Attention All Users Page. This page is to be reviewed….

A

Prior to conducting a PRM approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Regarding ILS/PRM breakout procedures, if you receive instructions from the controller that conflict with a TCAS RA verticle guidance, you should?

A

Follow RA vertical guidance and comply with the controller’s lateral instruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The NO Transgression Zone is?

A

An area at least 2000 feet wide between the simultaneous parallel approach courses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A person with a communicable disease cannot be refused boarding as long as he/she has a letter from the _____ certifying travel is not a danger to others.

A

Center for Disease Control (CDC) or a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

American Airliens ______ limit the number of disabled individuals and _____ refuse transportation to a person based on their disability.

A

Cannot, cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For general thunderstorms with radar tops between 25,000-30,000 feet, avoid all detectable precipitation and visible cloud by?

A

At least 5 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The _____ is recognized as potentially the most dangerous form of windshear.

A

Microburst windshear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Volcanic ash:

A

Can cause rapid damage to the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is FLT 649’s planned takeoff weight

A

117.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If the temperature stays the same on FLT 649 with the current TPS, Departing RWY 07L, which of the following intersections can you accept for departure?

A

E4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If FLT 649 plans to depart from RWY 07L, what are the V1, VR, and V2 speeds?

A

156, 164, 164

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Holdover time is defined as the:

A

Estimated time between the start of the fluid application and fluid failure.

27
Q

The primary source for holdover time calculations is the:

A

HOT iPad app

28
Q

Clean aircraft policy states:

A

No person may dispatch, release, takeoff and continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an aircraft that in the opinion of the pilot or aircraft dispatcher icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight.

29
Q

If, inflight, you recognize the onset of any of the symptoms of hypoxia:

A

Don your oxygen mask immediately.

30
Q

The onset of hypoxia can be affected by ______ and overall health condition.

A

Age, weight, being a smoker

31
Q

Compliance with an RA is required unless

A

In the captain’s opinion, doing so would compromise the safe operation of the flight.

32
Q

When responding to a Resolution Advisory, the pilot must:

A

Disconnect the autopilot and hand fly

33
Q

The “Level Off, Level Off” RA requires crews to:

A

Reduce vertical speed of the aircraft to 0 feet per minute

34
Q

Pilots must be proficient at _______ of automation

A

All levels

35
Q

Regaining aircraft control ________

A

Should never be delayed to use automation

36
Q

The pilot flying is incapacitated if they fail to respond to ______ verbal requests for a checklist item

A

2

37
Q

The key to early recognition of pilot incapacitation is _______

A

The regular use of the appropriate crew resource management concept

38
Q

If the pilot flying is confirmed to be incapacitated, __________

A

Take over control and declare an emergency

39
Q

Dimensions of RVSM airspace extend from:

A

FL290 and FL410

40
Q

You have leveled off in cruise and are accomplishing your altimeter check. Maximum divergence between both primary altimeter systems is:

A

200 feet

41
Q

Weight and Balance

A
42
Q

Weight and Balance

A
43
Q

The flight crew will use the ______ as the final weight and balance for each flight.

A

Load Closeouot

44
Q

A weight Restricted Flight is designated via a warning issued on the TPS Departure Plan when the planned weight of the aircraft is within _____ pounds of any structural or inflight weight limitation

A

1500

45
Q

When an enroute clearance is received, it is the flight deck crew’s responsibility to ensure that the clearance is in conformance with such factors as ______ for terrain clearance.

A

MEAs, MOCAs, MORAs

46
Q

What are your minimum safe altitude for IFR operations on an airway?

A

MEA and MOCA

47
Q

What is the Min TO fuel?

A
48
Q

What is the total fuel burn from PHX to DFW?

A
49
Q

What is the initial planned top of climb altitude?

A
50
Q

Notify ____ as soon as possible of a decision to divert to an airport other than the intended destination

A

Dispatch

51
Q

A flight may not land at an airport that is not the destination or a designated alternate on the original release unless:

A

An amended dispatch release is obtained or the captain exercises emergency authority.

52
Q

An MEL with a follow-up action will be shown on the release as _____

A

*F

53
Q

A ______ placard is used for MEL/CDL/NEF items if there are continuing maintenance actions or repetitive checks.

A

Yellow

54
Q

Prior to the first flight on a particular aircraft, all flight crew members shall review the AML. What should this include?

A

At least three calendar days worth of the AML pages.

55
Q

Driftdown decision points and enroute alternate information will appear in ______, if applicable

A

The body section of the flight plan / dispatch release

56
Q

Per TSA regulations, the Gate Reader is the preferred method of verifying a crewmember’s ID. If the Gate Reader is not operable, and the captain is present, the _______ may advise the agent that they have checked the identity and flight assignment of each working crewmember present prior to the crewmember entering the jetbridge.

A

Captain

57
Q

Who is designated as the Inflight Security Coordinator?

A

Only the captain

58
Q

FAMs ______ in a passenger disturbance in the cabin

A

May or may not intervene

59
Q

ICAO standard intercept signals are located in the….

A

Flight Operations Manual

60
Q

What is the Threat Level category for disruptive or suspicious behavior?

A

Level 1

61
Q

An attempted breach of the flight deck would be classified as what Threat Level?

A

Level 4

62
Q

What actions by the flight crew are required for a Threat Level 4 in flight?

A

Declare an emergency with ATC, squawk 7500, expect intercept intervention, and land as soon as possible at the nearest suitable airport.

63
Q

If a suspect device is discovered aboard the aircraft while in flight, follow the least risk bomb location / bomb on board procedures located in the ______

A

Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)

American Airlines (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions