Test #2 Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
Experience and expectation of disturbances in the environment contribute to
___________________________ (feed-forward/feedback) control.
A
Feed-forward control is anticipatory and uses prior knowledge and experience of movement.
2
Q
Smooth control of automatic movement requires the continuous integration of ____________, ________________, and _______________ information.
A
Visual, somatosensory, and vestibular information is continuously monitored and integrated during movement.
3
Q
Which one of the following proteins is NOT involved in the active process of muscle contraction? A. Myosin B. Actin C. Tropomyosin D. Troponin E. Titin
A
Titin
4
Q
Continuous prolonged immobilization of skeletal muscle in a shortened position results in which of the following?
A. Increased muscle tone from hyperactive reflexes
B. Contracture from loss of sarcomeres
C. Increased tensile strength from the addition of titin
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
A
B. Contracture from loss of sarcomeres
5
Q
Which one of the following produces weak actin-myosin bonding?
A. Active muscle contraction
B. Muscle immobility
C. Physiologic contracture
D. Active contraction in lengthened muscles
E. Reflexive muscle contraction
A
B. Muscle immobility
6
Q
Convey signals from the brain to spinal interneurons and lower motor neurons.
A
Descending pathways
7
Q
Convey signals from the spinal cord to extrafusal muscle fibers.
A
Alpha motor neurons
8
Q
Modulate activity of upper motor neurons.
A
Ascending pathways
9
Q
Convey signals from the spinal cord to intrafusal muscle fibers.
A
Gamma motor neurons
10
Q
What is the purpose of alpha-gamma coactivation?
A. Prevents simultaneous activation of fast twitch and slow twitch muscles.
B. Coordinates reciprocal reflex innervation.
C. Coordinates the actions of the basal ganglia and cerebellum.
D. Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity when extrafusal muscle fibers contract.
E. Prevents contraction of an antagonist muscle when the agonist is contracting.
A
D. Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity when extrafusal muscle fibers contract.
11
Q
The term phasic stretch reflex is synonymous with which of the following? A. Myotatic reflex B. Muscle stretch reflex C. Deep tendon reflex D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
12
Q
Reciprocal inhibition produces inhibition of the alpha motor neurons to which of the following?
A. Agonist muscle
B. Agonist muscle and its synergists
C. Antagonist muscle
D. Agonist muscle, its synergists and antagonists
E. Homologous muscles in the opposite limb
A
C. Antagonist muscle
13
Q
Which of the following is true about the Golgi tendon organ (GTO)?
A. Maximum GTO activation occurs before maximum voluntary contraction.
B. GTO inhibition of the agonist alpha motor neuron causes immediate muscle relaxation via the GTO reflex.
C. Effectiveness of the contract-relax technique for stretching is dependent on GTO input.
D. GTO conveys information via a type IIa afferent to the spinal cord.
E. All of the above are true statements.
A
B. GTO inhibition of the agonist alpha motor neuron causes immediate muscle relaxation via the GTO reflex.
14
Q
Which of the following statements about fast-twitch muscle fibers is true?
A. The neuron innervating the muscle determines twitch characteristics.
B. Alpha motor neurons having large-diameter axons innervate fast-twitch muscle fibers.
C. Using a long train of repetitive contractions identifies twitch characteristics.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
A
D. Both A and B
15
Q
Which one of the following contributes to the spinal control of walking?
A. Afferent input from muscle spindles and GTOs
B. Adaptable networks of interneurons that modulate lower motor neuron firing patterns
C. Reciprocal signals crossing in the anterior commissure of the spinal cord
D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
16
Q
Electromyographic (EMG) activity elicited by electrical stimulation of motor neuron axons
A
M-wave
17
Q
Flexible networks of interneurons that produce reciprocal movements of lower limbs
A
Stepping pattern generators
18
Q
Simultaneous activation of multiple muscles during coordinated, voluntary movement
A
Muscle synergy
19
Q
EMG activity elicited by electrical stimulation of group Ia and Ib afferents that, in turn, stimulate motor neurons
A
H-reflex
20
Q
Control lower motor neurons that innervate postural and proximal limb muscles.
A
Medial upper neuron tracts
21
Q
Innervate extrafusal muscle fibers.
A
Alpha motor neurons
22
Q
Control lower motor neurons that innervate distally located muscles.
A
Lateral upper neuron tracts
23
Q
Increase interneuron and motor neuron activity in the spinal cord.
A
Nonspecific upper neuron tracts
24
Q
Which of the medial upper neuron tracts originate in the brainstem?
A
The reticulospinal and medial and and lateral vestibulospinal tracts originate in the brainstem.
25
Lateral corticospinal tracts encompass axons from neurons in which areas of cortex?
Lateral corticospinal tract originate from neurons in the primary motor, premotor, and supplementary motor cortex. The axons descend through the corona radiata through the internal capsule.
26
What is fractionation of movement and which descending pathway is critical for fractionation?
Fractionation of movement is the ability to activate individual muscles independently of other muscles. Fractionation is dependent on intact signaling of the lateral corticospinal tract.
27
Name the two descending tracts whose activity produces a generalized increase in spinal interneuron and motor neuron activity
The ceruleospinal and raphespinal tracts produce a generalized increase in spinal interneuron and motoneuron activity.
28
```
Which one of the following involuntary muscle contractions is always abnormal?
A. Muscle spasms
B. Cramps
C. Fasciculations
D. Fibrillations
E. All of the above
```
D. Fibrillations
29
Myoclonus is:
A. Severe and painful muscle spasms
B. Quick twitches of a single motor unit
C. Brief involuntary contractions of a muscle or group of muscles
D. Persistent muscle twitching after a spinal or cerebral shock
E. None of the above
Brief involuntary contractions of a muscle or group of muscles
30
```
If the lower motor neurons to a muscle are destroyed, which of the following signs affects the denervated muscles?
A. Loss of reflexes
B. Atrophy
C. Spasticity
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
```
D. Both A and B
31
After lower neuron motor denervation caused by poliomyelitis, how does recovery of some muscle strength occur?
A. Cell division of surviving motor neurons produces new motor neurons.
B. Loss of interneuronal inhibition causes hyperreflexia.
C. Axonal sprouting of surviving neurons innervate muscles fibers.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
Axonal sprouting of surviving neurons innervate muscles fibers.
32
Abnormal cutaneous reflexes that occur after an upper motor neuron lesion include which of the following?
A. Emergence of Babinski’s sign
B. Muscle spasms in response to normally innocuous stimuli
C. Paresthesias
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
D. Both A and B
33
Which one of the following major factors limits movement in individuals who have had a stroke?
A. Paresis caused by decreased agonist activation
B. Loss of ability to fractionate movement
C. Abnormal timing of muscle activation
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
34
Clonus is characterized by which one of the following?
A. Involuntary, repetitive, and rhythmic muscle contractions in response to muscle stretch
B. Decrease in resistance to passive stretch of a hypertonic muscle
C. Excessive resistance to both passive and active muscle stretch
D. Prolonged contraction of antigravity muscles
E. Brief, involuntary contraction of a single muscle fiber
A. Involuntary, repetitive, and rhythmic muscle contractions in response to muscle stretch
35
Decorticate rigidity occurs with which of the following?
A. Lesions of the medulla
B. Vascular lesions of the anterior choroidal artery
C. Lesions superior to the midbrain
D. Lesion to the cerebellar lobes
E. All of the above
C. Lesions superior to the midbrain
36
```
Myoplasticity results from which of the following?
A. Contracture
B. Increased weak actin-myosin binding
C. Spasticity
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
```
D. Both A and B
37
EMG activity occurring at a specific latency after the onset of muscle stretch
Hyperreflexia
38
Temporal overlap of EMG activity in antagonist muscles
Cocontraction
39
Decreased passive range of motion without EMG output
Contracture
40
```
In an individual with paraparesis secondary to an incomplete spinal cord lesion, the increase in Achilles tendon tension during gait coincides with the stretch of the triceps surae during passive dorsiflexion of the foot in the stance phase. The increase in Achilles tendon tension is not correlated with an increase in EMG. What causes the abnormal muscle resistance to stretch?
A. Spasticity
B. Contracture
C. Cocontraction
D. Hyperreflexia
E. Atrophy
```
B. Contracture
41
What is the mechanism by which onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) decreases muscle activation?
A. Blocks the binding of acetylcholine (ACh) to the motor end plate.
B. Inhibits the binding of myosin to active sites on actin.
C. Blocks the release of Ca+2 from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal.
E. None of the above occurs.
D. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal.
42
List the structures classified as the basal ganglia circuit.
The basal ganglia circuit includes the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra reticularis, and substantia nigra compacta.
43
How does motor information from the basal ganglia reach spinal lower motor neurons?
A. Neurons in the basal ganglia that have direct axonal connections directly to spinal lower motor neurons.
B. Neural connections with the cerebellum.
C. Output to the thalamus and pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN), which synapse with cortical and brainstem motor neurons that project to the spinal lower motor neurons.
D. Direct connections from the striatum to lower motor neurons.
E. Neurons from the subthalamic nucleus directly synapse with spinal lower motor neurons.
C. Output to the thalamus and pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN), which synapse with cortical and brainstem motor neurons that project to the spinal lower motor neurons.
44
The cortico-basal ganglia-thalamus motor loop contributes to:
A. Regulation of muscle force
B. Sequencing of movements
C. Regulation of muscle tone
D. Selection and inhibition of specific motor synergies
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
45
Major roles of the cerebellum are to:
A. Compare actual movement to intended movement.
B. Adjust movements to existing conditions.
C. Provide conscious awareness of proprioceptive information.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
D. Both A and B
46
Regulates eye movements and postural muscles associated with equilibrium.
Flocculonodular lobe
47
Influences medial activation pathways and cranial nerves associated with muscles for speech.
Vermis
48
Influences lateral upper motor neuron pathways via input to brainstem nuclei.
Paravermis
49
Indirectly influences the cortical control of distal limb muscles.
Lateral cerebellar hemispheres
50
Hemiparesis
Lateral upper motor neurons
51
Focal dystonia
Basal ganglia
52
Alcohol-induced ataxia
Cerebellum
53
Huntington’s chorea
Basal ganglia
54
Athetoid cerebral palsy
Basal ganglia
55
Multiple systems atrophy
Lateral upper motor neurons, Basal ganglia, and Cerebellum
56
Abnormal palmar grasp
Lateral upper motor neurons
57
What is a visuoperceptive disorder?
A visuoperceptive disorder is the misperception that an object will obstruct movement, thereby causing a cessation of movement.
58
Does excessive output from the basal ganglia inhibit or facilitate voluntary movement?
Excessive output of the basal ganglia inhibits the thalamus, reduces the excitation of the cortex, and inhibits voluntary movement.
59
What is the clinical term used to describe rapid alternating movements?
Diadochokinesia is the term for rapid alternating movements. The prefix dys- is only used when the movements are abnormal.
60
What is meant by the term parkinsonism?
The term parkinsonism is used to describe central nervous system (CNS) disorders with signs and symptoms common to Parkinson’s disease but having a different cause.
61
Nystagmus, dysequilibrium, truncal ataxia
Vestibulocerebellum
62
Wide-based, staggering gait
Spinocerebellum
63
Dysarthria
Cerebrocerebellum and Vermis
64
Dysdiadochokinesia, dysmetria, and action tremor, and wide-based, staggering gait
Cerebrocerebellum
65
What are the three Parkinson-plus syndromes?
The Parkinson-plus syndromes are progressive supranuclear palsy, dementia with Lewy bodies, and multiple system atrophy
66
In normally developing infants and people with extensive cerebral lesions, turning of the head elicits reflexive posturing of the limbs. Name the reflex and describe the position of the limbs when the head is turned to the right.
An asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR) is elicited in normal infants and in people with extensive cerebral lesions. When the head is turned to the right, the ATNR produces extension of the limbs on the right and flexion of the limbs on the left.
67
During posturographic testing, what is the purpose of having the platform tilt in response to changes in the client’s weight bearing? What is the purpose of having the visual surround sway referenced to the client?
The purpose of having the platform tilt in response to changes in the client’s weight bearing is to determine the effect of inaccurate proprioceptive information on postural control. The purpose of having the visual surround sway with the client’s postural sway is to determine the effect of inaccurate visual information on postural control.
68
What is visual action stream?
Visual action stream is the flow of visual information used to guide movements
69
How does a lesion to the descending axons of the internal capsule affect flexor and extensor muscles of the lower limbs?
Lesions to the descending axons of the internal capsule interrupt the descending corticospinal regulation of reticulospinal tracts resulting in increased extension and decreased flexion of the contralateral lower limb.
70
Dyskinesia is a side effect caused by prolonged use of which one of the following chemical agents for treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. L-dopa
C. Botulinum
D. Baclofen
E. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonists
B. L-dopa
71
```
Deep-brain stimulation of which structure is safe and effective for reducing tremors in Parkinson’s disease?
A. Putamen
B. Caudate
C. Thalamus
D. Substantia nigra
E. Red nucleus
```
C. Thalamus
72
Which of the following is/are associated with the emergence of focal hand dystonia?
A. Excessive repetition or overuse
B. Somatotopic degradation of somatosensory cortex
C. Central impairment of proprioception
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
73
Strength of an individual muscle
Manual muscle test (MMT)
74
Function of motor fibers in a peripheral nerve
Motor nerve conduction velocity (NCV)
75
Possible myopathy or a denervated muscle
Diagnostic EMG
76
Muscle tone
Passive range of motion (PROM)
77
Movement efficiency and speed
Rapid alternating movements
78
Accuracy and smoothness of movement
Finger to finger, finger to nose, and walk heel-to-toe test
79
Signs and symptoms in a myotomal and dermatomal distribution indicate that the lesion is in what region of the nervous system?
Signs and symptoms in a myotomal and dermatomal distribution indicate that the lesion is in the spinal region.
80
Axons to extrafusal muscle fibers
Aα
81
Axons to intrafusal muscle fibers
Aγ
82
Axons that convey sensory information perceived as pain and temperature
Aδ or C
83
Axons that convey sensory information perceived as touch and pressure
Ia or A
84
What is the most functionally important branch of the cervical plexus?
A. Branch to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Branch to the biceps brachii
C. Branch to the triceps
D. Phrenic nerve
E. Musculocutaneous nerve
D. Phrenic nerve
85
```
Which one of the plexes innervates the posterior thigh and most of the leg and foot?
A. Cervical
B. Brachial
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. None of the above
```
D. Sacral
86
Miniature endplate potentials are essential for which of the following?
A. Inhibiting the action of lower motor neurons
B. Initiating contraction of muscles
C. Preventing atrophy of muscle fibers
D. A and B
E. All of the above
C. Preventing atrophy of muscle fibers
87
Trophic changes after denervation include which of the following?
A. Muscle atrophy
B. Shiny skin
C. Brittleness of fingernails and toenails
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
88
Rupture of the ulnar nerve, secondary to the fracture of the humerus
Traumatic severance
89
Decreased sensation in a stocking/glove distribution
Polyneuropathy
90
Loss of sensory, autonomic, and motor function of the right musculocutaneous and femoral nerves and the left sciatic nerve
Multiple mononeuropathy
91
Chronic compression of the median nerve resulting in mild demyelination
Traumatic myelinopathy
92
Crushing injury of the peroneal nerve
Traumatic axonopathy
93
List at least three specific factors that may cause polyneuropathy.
Polyneuropathy may be caused by diabetes, nutritional deficiency secondary to alcoholism, autoimmune diseases, prolonged use of therapeutic drugs, or exposure to environmental toxins.
94
What sensory changes commonly occur with diabetic polyneuropathy?
Decreased sensation in a stocking/glove distribution, pain, paresthesia, and dysesthesia commonly occur with diabetic polyneuropathy.
95
What autonomic changes may occur with diabetic polyneuropathy?
Cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and sweating dysfunctions may occur with diabetic polyneuropathy.
96
How is botulinum toxin therapeutically used?
Botulinum toxin interferes with the release of acetylcholine (Ach) at the neuromuscular junction and is used to weaken overactive muscles in dystonia and spasticity
97
```
In a recording from a nerve conduction velocity (NCV) study, decreased amplitude of recorded potentials, combined with slowing of NCV, indicates which of the following?
A. Myelinopathy
B. Myopathy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Upper motor neuron lesion
E. Axonopathy
```
E. Axonopathy
98
```
If NCV studies show that conduction is slowed at a single site in one nerve, yet the NCV is normal throughout the remainder of the nerve and in other nerves, the disorder is characterized as which of the following?
A. Traumatic myelinopathy
B. Axonopathy
C. Severance injury
D. Myopathy
E. Polyneuropathy
```
A. Traumatic myelinopathy
99
```
If the NCV is normal along the length of the peripheral nerve, yet the amplitude of the electromyogram (EMG) potential is decreased, the disorder is:
A. Myelinopathy
B. Myopathy
C. Lower motor neuron lesion
D. Upper motor neuron lesion
E. Axonopathy
```
B. Myopathy
100
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease affecting the:
A. Myelin of peripheral nerves
B. ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction
C. Release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal
D. Storage of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Alpha motor neurons in the ventral horn of spinal cord
B. ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction
101
```
Guillian-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disease that causes:
A. Necrosis of the alpha motor neuron
B. Degeneration of the motor endplate
C. Spasticity
D. Peripheral demyelination
E. Degeneration of the C-fiber axons
```
D. Peripheral demyelination
102
Vertebral canal stenosis is associated with which one of the following?
A. Narrowing of the vertebral canal caused by bone growth or tissue hypertrophy
B. Compression of neural and vascular structures of the spinal cord
C. Radiating pain with numbness and loss of proprioception
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
103
Klumpke’s paralysis is the result of which of the following?
A. Avulsion of the C5 to C6 ventral roots
B. Mechanical irritation of the C7 to C8 dorsal roots
C. Traction force applied to the cervico-occipital region
D. Lesion of the dorsal root ganglion because of a herniated disk
E. Avulsion of the C8 through T1 motor nerve roots
E. Avulsion of the C8 through T1 motor nerve roots
104
```
Loss of pain and temperature sensation in a capelike distribution over the shoulders, lower limb paresis, hyper-reflexia, and loss of bowel and bladder function are characteristic of which of the following?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Meningomyelocele
D. Syringomyelia
E. Erb’s paralysis
```
D. Syringomyelia
105
```
Dorsal rhizotomy is the selective surgical ablation of which of the following?
A. Dorsal horn neurons
B. Posterior commissural axons
C. Dorsal roots
D. Dorsal columns
E. Nucleus dorsalis
```
C. Dorsal roots
106
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by which one of the following?
A. Abrupt decrease in blood pressure because of sympathetic vasoconstriction
B. Abrupt increase in blood pressure and pounding headache
C. Profuse sweating below the level of the lesion
D. Excessive activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
E. Excessive shivering associated with hyperthermia
B. Abrupt increase in blood pressure and pounding headache
107
```
Loss of descending sympathetic control as a result of complete spinal cord lesions above T6 result in which of the following?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Autonomic dysreflexia
C. Poor thermoregulation
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and, C
```
E. A, B, and, C
108
```
Complete spinal cord lesions above which one of the following level results in long-term ventilator dependence?
A. C4
B. C5
C. C6
D. C7
E. All of the above
```
A. C4
109
```
After a complete spinal cord injury affecting S2-4, a bladder that cannot be emptied is which of the following?
A. Hypertonic and hyperreflexive
B. Flaccid and paralyzed
C. Spastic
D. Autoreflexive
E. None of the above
```
B. Flaccid and paralyzed
110
```
Which one of the following is NOT a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion?
A. Muscle paresis
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Dystonia
D. Positive Babinski’s sign
E. Spasticity
```
C. Dystonia
111
```
Reciprocal activation of a stepping pattern generator (SPG) is thought to be coordinated by signals conveyed in the:
A. DCML
B. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)
C. Posterior commissure of spinal cord
D. Anterior commissure of spinal cord
E. Ventral horn gamma motor neurons
```
B. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)
112
Loss of discriminative pain and temperature sensation and paralysis of muscles below the level of the lesion; conscious proprioception and discriminative touch remain intact
Anterior cord syndrome
113
Loss of pain and temperature information at several cervical segments; all sensations and motor and autonomic functions intact throughout remainder of body
Central cord syndrome
114
Segmental loss of all sensation and paresis of muscles innervated by the involved spinal segment(s); ipsilateral loss of voluntary motor control, conscious proprioception, and discriminative touch below level of lesion, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensations below level of lesion
Brown-Séquard syndrome
115
Sensory impairment and flaccid paralysis of the lower limbs, bladder, and bowels
Cauda equina syndrome
116
Low back and lower limb pain, difficulty in walking, excessive lordosis and scoliosis, bowel and bladder control problems, foot deformities
Tethered cord syndrome
117
Paralysis of the right iliopsoas and all muscles in the right lower limb; loss of discriminative touch and conscious proprioception in the right lower limb; loss of discriminative pain and temperature sensation in the left lower limb and left buttock region
Right hemi-lesion of spinal cord, L1 segment
118
Decreased strength in right deltoid and biceps; decreased sensation in anterolateral right upper arm; sensation and motor function intact for the remainder of the body
Right C5 spinal nerve lesion
119
Weakness of the quadriceps on the right side; no other motor or sensory loss
Right L3 ventral root lesion
120
Babinski’s sign; paralysis; hyperreflexia; muscle hypertonia; complete loss of all sensation below the level of the umbilicus
Complete T10 spinal cord lesion
121
Lack of posterolateral sensation in digits four and five of the right hand; intact sensation of all fingertips; paralysis of long extensors for right wrist and finger; paralysis of the right supinator; sensation and motor function intact for remainder of the body
Right radial nerve lesion
122
When the bladder is empty, what efferent control inhibits contraction of the bladder wall and maintains closure of the external sphincter?
The sympathetic efferents from T11 to L2 inhibit contraction of the bladder wall and maintain closure of the internal sphincter.
123
What is the function of Renshaw cells?
Renshaw cells are interneurons that regulate recurrent inhibition of the motor neuron to the agonist.
124
What type of neural circuit ensures that antagonists are inhibited during contraction of the agonist?
Reciprocal inhibition of motor neurons in the spinal cord inhibit alpha motor neurons that elicit antagonist contraction.
125
What anatomic division marks the end of the spinal region and beginning of the peripheral nervous system?
The anatomic division is marked at the point where the spinal nerve is exterior to the intervertebral foramen and branches into dorsal and ventral primary rami.
126
The origin is motor neurons of the locus coeruleus.
Ceruleospinal tract
127
The origin is sensory neurons in the dorsal horn of spinal cord.
Spinothalamic tract
128
The origin is motor nuclei of the pontomedullary reticular formation
Reticulospinal tract
129
The origin is motor neurons in the supplemental motor, premotor, and primary motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
Lateral corticospinal tract
130
The origin is the peripheral somatosensory receptors.
Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract (DCML)
131
Location of neurons that integrate sensory and motor signals and innervate skeletal muscles
Ventral horn
132
Location of neurons that integrate and transmit signals for sympathetic regulation
Lateral horn (T1-L2)
133
Histologic and functionally specific regions in the spinal cord gray matter
Rexed lamina
134
Location of neurons that convey sensory information from peripheral mechanoreceptors
Dorsal horn
135
Contains efferent axons, including axons that innervate skeletal muscle.
Ventral root
136
Contains sensory axons that connect with a single segment of the spinal cord.
Dorsal root
137
Contains all of the motor, sensory, and autonomic axons of a single spinal segment.
Spinal nerve
138
Contains cell bodies of primary sensory neurons.
Dorsal root ganglion
139
Neuron with a long axon that conveys information from the spinal cord to the brain.
Tract cell
140
Neuron that begins and ends within the spinal cord.
Propriospinal neuron
141
Innervates paravertebral muscles, posterior vertebral structures, and overlying cutaneous areas.
Dorsal ramus
