Test #3 Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Optic
A
Conducts sensory signal from receptors of the eye
2
Q
Oculomotor
A
Motor innervation of some ocular muscles; innervates intrinsic, smooth muscles of the eye
3
Q
Trochlear
A
Motor innervation of the superior oblique
4
Q
Trigeminal
A
Sensory innervation of face and temporomandibular joint (TMJ); motor innervation to muscles for chewing
5
Q
Facial
A
Motor innervation of facial muscles; innervates lacrimal and salivary glands
6
Q
Glossopharyngeal
A
Sensory innervation of the pharynx, soft palate and posterior tongue
7
Q
Hypoglossal
A
Motor innervation of the tongue
8
Q
Axons of the optic nerve synapse in which region of thalamus?
A
Optic nerve axons synapse in the lateral geniculate of thalamus and the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain (for the pupillary and consensual reflexes).
9
Q
What is the autonomic function of CN III?
A
provides parasympathetic regulation of the pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscles for autonomic control of pupil constriction and lens curvature.
10
Q
What is the difference between the pupillary and consensual reflexes?
A
Both the pupillary and consensual reflexes are elicited by shining a bright light into one eye. The pupillary reflex is constriction of the pupil in the eye stimulated by the light, and the consensual reflex is constriction of the pupil of the other eye. These reflexes are useful for evaluating brainstem function.
11
Q
Which CNs are involved in the gag reflex?
A
The glossopharyngeal is the afferent and vagus nerve is the efferent innervation in the gag reflex.
12
Q
Why is the (spinal) accessory nerve considered a CN if the cell bodies are in the upper cervical spinal cord?
A
CN XI (accessory) is categorized as a CN because the axons ascend through the foramen magnum and then exit the skull via the jugular foramen.
13
Q
Which of the following are controlled by the oculomotor nerve? A. Superior rectus muscle that moves the eye B. Constriction of the pupil of the eye C. Adjusting the shape of the lens of the eye D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
14
Q
What is Bell’s palsy? A. Loss of the consensual reflex B. Increased sweating and vasodilation on one side of the face C. Contralateral paralysis of the muscles innervated by CN VII D. Ipsilateral paralysis of the muscles innervated by CN VII E. Severe pain in the facial region near the jaw
A
D. Ipsilateral paralysis of the muscles innervated by CN VII
15
Q
First-order neurons conveying discriminative touch information from the face synapse in which of the following? A. Ciliary ganglion B. Trigeminal ganglion C. Main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve D. Ventral posteromedial nucleus of the thalamus E. Mesencephalic nucleus
A
C. Main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
16
Q
The temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid, and masseter muscles are innervated by which of the following? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Facial nerve E. Hypoglossal nerve
A
A. Trigeminal nerve
17
Q
First-order neurons that transmit fast sensory information perceived as pain from the face synapse in which of the following? A. Mesencephalic nucleus B. Trigeminal ganglion C. Reticular formation D. Main sensory nucleus E. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
A
E. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
18
Q
The facial nerve innervates which of the following? A. Muscles that close the eyes, move the lips, and produce facial expressions B. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles C. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C
A
A. Muscles that close the eyes, move the lips, and produce facial expressions
19
Q
Secondary auditory cortex
A
Comparison of sounds with memories and categorization of sounds
20
Q
Wernicke’s area
A
Comprehension of spoken language
21
Q
Reticular formation
A
Modulation of central nervous system excitability
22
Q
Primary auditory cortex
A
Conscious awareness of sound intensity
23
Q
Inferior colliculus
A
Detection of the location of sounds
24
Q
Medial geniculate body
A
Sensory relay station to the primary auditory cortex
25
Organ of Corti
Converts mechanical energy into neural signals conveyed by the cochlear nerve.
26
Vagus nerve
Supplies both afferent and efferent innervation to the larynx, trachea, lungs, heart, gastrointestinal tract (except the lower large intestine), pancreas, gallbladder, and liver.
27
Descending limbic pathways
Regulates the production of facial expressions associated with real emotions.
28
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Triggers the swallowing reflex.
29
Movements and pupillary responses of a client’s left eye are normal. The right eye looks downward and outward. The pupil is dilated and unresponsive to light, and the eyelid droops. Where is the lesion?
The lesion is to the right oculomotor nerve.
30
A client’s right eye moves normally. The left eye cannot be voluntarily adducted but cannot simultaneously look downward and toward midline. Where is the lesion?
The lesion is to the left trochlear nerve.
31
List the locations of lesions that may cause diplopia
Lesions of the oculomotor, trochlear, or abducens nerves or of the medial longitudinal fasciculus may cause diplopia (double vision).
32
Severe pain that does not involve sensory loss and occurs in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Trigeminal neuralgia
33
Lower motor neuron involvement of which CNs may cause dysarthria?
Lower motor neuron involvement of CN V, VII, X, or XII can cause dysarthria. Upper motor neuron lesions affecting the signals to the CN nuclei of these CNs can also cause dysarthria.
34
Asymmetrical elevation of the palate and hoarseness indicate a complete lesion of which CN?
Complete lesion of the Vagus nerve causes asymmetrical elevation of the palate and hoarseness.
35
A client’s right eye moves normally. The left eye cannot adduct on voluntary gaze, yet adducts during convergence eye movements. What is the name of this condition, and where is the lesion?
This condition is known as internuclear ophthalmoplegia. The lesion is in the medial longitudinal fasciculus between the abducens and oculomotor nuclei.
36
Sensorineural deafness
Hearing loss as a result of obstruction of the transmission of vibrations in the outer or middle ear
37
Conductive deafness
Hearing loss as a result of damage of the receptor cells or the cochlear nerve
38
Tinnitus
Perception of auditory buzzing, hissing, or ringing sounds in the absence of corresponding external stimuli
39
The anterior (basilar) section of the brainstem contains which of the following? A. Descending axons from the cerebral cortex B. Superior and inferior colliculi C. Reticular formation D. Predominantly sensory pathways E. All of the above
A. Descending axons from the cerebral cortex
40
The posterior (tegmentum) section of the brainstem contains which of the following? A. Reticular formation B. Ascending sensory tracts C. Cranial nerve nuclei D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus E. All of the above
E. All of the above
41
Which of the following are functions of the reticular formation? A. Regulation of vital functions B. Regulation of somatic motor activity by the reticulospinal tracts C. Analgesia by activation of inhibitory interneurons in the ventral horn D. A and B E. A, B, and C
D. A and B
42
The part of the brainstem that supplies dopamine to cerebral areas involved in motivation and decision making is which of the following? A. Ventral tegmental area B. Pedunculopontine nucleus C. Raphe nuclei D. Locus coeruleus E. Nucleus cuneatus
A. Ventral tegmental area
43
What part of the brainstem produces acetylcholine? A. Substantia nigra compacta B. Pedunculopontine nucleus C. Raphe nuclei D. Locus coeruleus E. Medial lemniscus
B. Pedunculopontine nucleus
44
Which neurotransmitter, produced by the midbrain raphe nuclei, has major effects on mood? A. Serotonin B. Acetylcholine C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D. Norepinephrine E. Dopamine
A. Serotonin
45
Activity of which nucleus regulates the ability to direct attention to stimuli in the environment? A. Ventral tegmental area B. Pedunculopontine nucleus C. Raphe nuclei D. Locus coeruleus E. Medial reticular area
D. Locus coeruleus
46
Where are the sensory or autonomic nuclei located for cranial nerves VII, VIII, IX, and X? A. Dorsal caudal medulla B. Dorsal rostral medulla C. Dorsal pons D. Dorsal midbrain E. Ventral midbrain
B. Dorsal rostral medulla
47
Cranial nerve nuclei in the pons are involved in which of the following? A. Processing somatosensory information from the face B. Controlling lateral movements of the eyes C. Controlling the muscles of facial expression and mastication D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
48
Which of the following is(are) function(s) of the parasympathetic nucleus of the oculomotor nerve? A. Control of the lateral movements of the eye B. Control of the medial, superior, and inferior rectus muscles and the inferior oblique muscle C. Control of the pupillary sphincter and the ciliary muscle D. A and B E. A, B, and C
C. Control of the pupillary sphincter and the ciliary muscle
49
What is the name for descending tracts from the cortex to the motor nuclei of the cranial nerves?
Corticobrainstem
50
Reduced attention, orientation, and perception, associated with confused ideas and agitation
Delirium
51
Sleeping more than awake; drowsy and confused when awake
Obtunded
52
Brief loss of consciousness as a result of a drop in blood pressure
Syncope
53
Unarousable; no response to strong stimuli including as strong pinching of the Achilles tendon
Coma
54
Complete loss of consciousness without alteration of vital functions
Vegetative state
55
Intact consciousness with complete paralysis (voluntary eye and eyelid may be intact)
Locked-in syndrome
56
What is the function of corticobrainstem fibers?
Corticobrainstem neurons serve as upper motor neurons to the cranial nerve lower motor neurons.
57
What are the four Ds of brainstem region dysfunction?
Dysphagia, dysarthria, diplopia, and dysmetria
58
Vascular disruption of the posteroinferior cerebellar artery results in ________________ syndrome.
Wallenberg's syndrome
59
What is an acoustic neuroma? Why does it become problematic?
An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the Schwann cells (myelin) of the vestibulocochlear nerve. As the tumor increases in size, bony restrictions of the skull cause the tumor to compress the nerve, resulting in an increasing severity of problems including tinnitus and eventual deafness.
60
Otolithic organs
Anatomic site of sensory receptors that respond to head position relative to gravity and to linear acceleration and deceleration of the head.
61
Ampulla
Expanded part of semicircular canals that contains receptor organs
62
Cupula
Gelatinous mass in which hair cells of the ampulla are imbedded.
63
Crista
Receptor organs located in the semicircular canals for the detection of rotational acceleration and deceleration of the head
64
Otoconia
Calcium salt crystals that normally adhere to the top of the gelatinous mass in each macula.
65
Vestibular nuclei
Site of synapse between the first- and second-order neurons that convey information about head position and head movement.
66
Hyperpolarization of receptor cells of the left posterior semicircular canal would be associated with depolarization (excitation) of the _____________ (right/left) ______________ (horizontal/anterior/posterior) semicircular canal.
Right, anterior. The anterior semicircular canal is also referred to as the superior semicircular canal.
67
What are the two functional roles of the vestibular system for motor control?
The vestibular system plays a key role in gaze stabilization and postural control and adjustments.
68
Why would a person with chronic vestibular dysfunction have a stiff neck?
People with chronic vestibular problems often have a stiff neck in attempt to stabilize the head and thereby lessen the symptoms of vertigo and oscillopsia.
69
The medial longitudinal fasciculus is a bilateral axonal pathway between the vestibular nuclei and which of the following? A. Cranial nerve nuclei III, IV, and VI B. Superior colliculus C. Cranial nerve nuclei XI D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
70
Vestibular connections influence which of the following? A. Posture of the head and body B. Head and eye movements C. Consciousness D. Autonomic functions E. All of the above
E. All of the above
71
Information from the right visual field is conveyed to which of the following? A. Left lateral geniculate and left visual cortex B. Right lateral geniculate and right visual cortex C. Bilateral geniculate then left visual cortex D. Bilateral secondary visual cortices E. Right pretectal area of superior colliculus
A. Left lateral geniculate and left visual cortex
72
Superior colliculus
Visual orientation and coordination of head and eye movements
73
Pretectal area
Control of pupillary reflexes
74
Secondary visual cortex
Analysis of visual information for colors and motion
75
Lateral geniculate body
Thalamic relay of visual information to the primary visual cortex
76
Primary visual cortex
Discrimination of the shape, size, or texture of objects
77
Posterior parietal cortex
Specification of movement with visual guidance
78
Occipitotemporal region
Visual identification of objects
79
What is the purpose of the vestibulo-ocular reflexes?
The vestibulo-ocular reflexes stabilize visual images during head and body movements.
80
Relative to head movement, what direction do vestibulo-ocular reflexes move the eyes? Why?
Vestibulo-ocular reflexes move the eyes opposite to the direction of head movement to ensure that the visual field remains stable and visual fixation on objects is undisturbed.
81
Is nystagmus always a sign of nervous system abnormality?
No, nystagmus can be evoked in a normal nervous system by rotational or temperature stimulation of the semicircular canals. Abnormal nystagmus results from unbalanced inputs to the vestibulo-ocular reflex circuits and may be of the wrong amplitude or involve continuous ocular oscillations that occur with or without movement stimulus.
82
What is the purpose of smooth pursuit eye movements?
Smooth pursuit eye movements allow gaze to follow a moving object.
83
What types of eye movement direct gaze?
Saccades, smooth pursuits, and vergence eye movements direct gaze.
84
Ménière’s disease
Syndrome consisting of both auditory and vestibular disorders associated with abnormal fluid pressures of the inner ear
85
Dysequilibrium
Loss of balance
86
Oscillopsia
Loss of visual stabilization
87
Vertigo
Illusion of motion
88
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Acute onset of vertigo and nystagmus in response to a rapid change of head position
89
What is the most common symptom of vestibular dysfunction? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Limb ataxia C. Disequilibrium D. Vertigo E. Upward beat nystagmus
D. Vertigo
90
What is the most common cause of near syncope? A. Perilymph fistula B. Somatosensory deficits C. Cardiovascular disorders D. Psychologic or stress disorders E. Motion sickness
C. Cardiovascular disorders
91
Damage to the right frontal eye fields may result in which deviation in visual control? A. Tropia B. Abnormal vestibulo-ocular reflexes C. Rotary nystagmus D. Ptosis E. Persistent ipsilateral gaze
E. Persistent ipsilateral gaze
92
Vertigo accompanied by sensory and/or motor loss, diplopia, and dysarthria is indicative of a lesion of which of the following? A. Cerebellum B. Vestibulothalamocortical pathway C. Brainstem D. Bilateral Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) E. All of the above
C. Brainstem
93
Lateropulsion may occur with a lesion to which of the following? A. Parietoinsular cortex B. Dorsolateral medulla C. Inferior cerebellar peduncle D. Vestibular nuclei E. All of the above
E. All of the above
94
Which of the following are signs of the ocular tilt reaction? A. Lateral head tilt B. Skew deviation of the eyes C. Ocular rotation D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
95
The Hallpike maneuver was designed to: A. Elicit the vestibulo-ocular reflex. B. Rupture of the cupula. C. Provoke maximal movement of otoconia in the horizontal semicircular canals. D. Provoke maximal movement of otoconia in the posterior semicircular canals. E. Treat dizziness associated with central vestibular lesions.
D. Provoke maximal movement of otoconia in the posterior semicircular canals.
96
Regulate consciousness, arousal, and attention.
Nonspecific nuclei
97
Part of the basal ganglia circuit involved in regulating movement.
Subthalamus
98
Process emotional and some memory information, and integrate different types of sensation
Association nuclei
99
Integrates behaviors with visceral functions.
Hypothalamus
100
Convey information from the sensory systems (except olfactory), the basal ganglia, or the cerebellum to the cerebral cortex.
Relay nuclei
101
Regulates circadian rhythms and influences the secretions of the pituitary gland, adrenals, and parathyroid glands, and islets of Langerhans.
Pineal gland
102
Corticopontine and thalamolimbic
Anterior limb
103
Thalamocortical and corticospinal
Genu
104
Corticobrainstem and corticoreticular
Posterior limb
105
Which of the following are projection fibers? A. Corticospinal B. Corticobrainstem C. Thalamocortical D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
106
The primary somatosensory cortex: A. Receives information directly from the basal ganglia. B. Processes unconscious somatosensory information. C. Receives information via the dorsal column/medial lemniscus, and trigeminothalamocortical systems. D. Processes auditory and vestibular information. E. Performs none of the above.
C. Receives information via the dorsal column/medial lemniscus, and trigeminothalamocortical systems.
107
Recognition of an unseen object by touch and manipulation occurs in which of the following? A. Cerebellum B. Basal ganglia C. Secondary visual cortex D. Secondary sensory area E. Dorsolateral prefrontal association
D. Secondary sensory area
108
Categorizing sounds as language, music, or noise occurs in which of the following? A. Superior colliculus B. Secondary auditory cortex C. Visual association cortex D. Primary auditory cortex E. Cochlear nuclei
B. Secondary auditory cortex
109
Initiation of movement, orientation, and planning of bimanual or sequential movements are influenced by which of the following? A. Supplementary motor area B. Premotor area C. Broca’s area D. Area analogous to Broca’s area in the nondominant hemisphere E. Primary motor cortex
A. Supplementary motor area
110
Trunk and girdle muscles are controlled by descending signals from neurons in which of the following? A. Supplementary motor area B. Premotor area C. Broca’s area D. Area analogous to Broca’s area in the nondominant hemisphere E. Primary motor cortex
B. Premotor area
111
The functions of the dorsolateral prefrontal association cortex include which of the following? A. Deciding on a goal B. Planning how to accomplish the goal C. Solving a problem D. A and B E. All of the above
E. All of the above
112
The parietotemporal association area is important for which of the following? A. Solving a problem B. Comprehending communication C. Understanding spatial relationships D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
113
The areas associated with impulse control, personality, and reactions to surroundings are located in which of the following? A. Precentral and postcentral gyri B. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C. Parietotemporal and dorsolateral prefrontal cortices D. Ventral and medial dorsal prefrontal association cortices E. Parietotemporal and cingulate cortices
D. Ventral and medial dorsal prefrontal association cortices
114
Which of the following structures are involved in the recognition, generation, and perception of emotion? A. Amygdala and mediodorsal thalamic nucleus B. Epithalamus and subthalamus C. Anterior insula and ventral striatum D. A and C E. All of the above
D. A and C
115
According to the somatic marker hypothesis: A. Specific areas of the body are mapped on the motor cortex. B. Memory is processed by both limbic and nonlimbic structures. C. The amygdala interprets facial expressions and social signals. D. Emotions are critical for sound judgment and decision making. E. Pressure points on the body correspond to visceral organs.
D. Emotions are critical for sound judgment and decision making.
116
What is(are) the effect(s) of persistently high levels of cortisol (i.e., a prolonged stress response)? A. Suppression of immune function B. Increased incidence of colitis, cardiovascular disorders, and adult-onset diabetes C. Cognitive and emotional disturbances D. Both A and B E. All of the above
E. All of the above
117
Recall necessary to accomplish a task
Procedural
118
Recollections that can be easily verbalized: facts, events, concepts, and locations
Cognitive
119
Recollections that can be easily verbalized: facts, events, concepts, and locations
Declarative
120
Recall necessary to accomplish a task
Skill
121
Awareness of feelings associated with memory
Emotional
122
Recollections that can be easily verbalized: facts, events, concepts, and locations
Explicit
123
Recall necessary to accomplish a task
Habit
124
What structure is required for the processing of declarative memory?
The hippocampus processes declarative memory.
125
What structures are required for establishing motor memory?
The frontal cortex, thalamus, and striatum are required to establish motor memory.
126
What is the area of the brain that specializes in comprehension of spoken language?
Wernicke’s area specializes in comprehending spoken language.
127
Where is the ventral striatum located?
The ventral striatum is located at the junction of the ventral caudate and putamen.
128
What is the name of the pathway from vestibular nuclei to primary vestibular cortex?
The name of the pathway is vestibulothalamocortical.
129
What area of the brain provides instructions for producing emotional gestures and the intonation of speech?
The area corresponding to Broca’s area provides instructions for producing emotional gestures and the intonation of speech.
130
What part of the brain provides schemas of the body in relation to its surroundings and the external world?
Body schema is represented by neuronal connections in the area corresponding to Wernicke’s in the nondominant hemisphere.
131
Which subcortical limbic system structure plays a vital role in interpreting facial expression and social signals to monitor social behavior?
The amygdala is critical for interpretation of facial expressions and social signals.
132
General level of arousal
Serotonin
133
Conscious attention and vigilance
Norepinephrine
134
Voluntary attention toward environment, based on a desired goal
Acetylcholine
135
Initiation of motor or cognitive actions
Dopamine
136
Explain the difference between the dorsal and ventral streams for visual information.
The dorsal stream is used to adjust voluntary limb movements. The ventral stream is used to identify objects based on visual input.
137
Contralateral deficits of voluntary movement and conscious somatosensation
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
138
Loss of conscious localization of sounds
Primary auditory cortex
139
Astereognosis
Secondary somatosensory area
140
Homonymous hemianopsia
Primary visual cortex
141
Apathy, with loss of initiative, spontaneous thought, and/or emotional responses
Caudate nucleus
142
Visual agnosia
Secondary visual cortex
143
Cannot pick up a pen when asked to do so but is able to pick up a pen automatically when wanting to write.
Apraxia
144
Cannot individually move the fingers on one hand.
Fractionation deficit
145
Cannot plan; completely lacks initiative.
Executive function deficits
146
Repeatedly picks up an object, although intending to set it down.
Motor perseveration
147
Cannot speak or write fluently but can understand speech and gestures. Has no difficulty with chewing or swallowing.
Broca’s aphasia
148
Speaks with difficulty; the speech is harsh and robotic. Language production and comprehension, including the ability to read and write, are intact.
Spastic dysarthria
149
Why are the worst deficits seen distally in people with severe lesions of the primary motor cortex?
The most severe functional losses occur in the hands, feet, and facial muscles after injury to the primary motor cortex, because fine motor control is exclusively provided by the contralateral primary motor cortex.
150
Why do people with orbitofrontal lesions exhibit poor judgment, despite intact intellectual abilities?
After lesions to the orbitofrontal cortex, people may exhibit poor judgment associated with impulsive behavior and a poor awareness of the sense of risk
151
Can people with declarative memory deficits learn new motor skills? Why or why not?
Yes, people with declarative memory deficits can learn new motor skills because different areas within the central nervous system (CNS) process motor and declarative memories.
152
The inability to understand written or spoken language, including inability to read and write and produce meaningful language, despite the ability to produce fluent speech sounds: A. Broca’s aphasia B. Conduction aphasia C. Global aphasia D. Wernicke’s aphasia E. Dysarthria
D. Wernicke’s aphasia
153
Dysarthria is caused by a lesion of which of the following? A. Broca’s area, usually in the left hemisphere B. Broca’s area, usually in the right hemisphere C. Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, and the intervening cortical and subcortical structures D. Lower motor neurons or corticobrainstem neurons E. Neurons connecting Wernicke’s area with Broca’s area
D. Lower motor neurons or corticobrainstem neurons
154
Synonyms for Broca’s aphasia include which of the following? A. Motor aphasia B. Expressive aphasia C. Nonfluent aphasia D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
155
Which of the following best defines anosognosia? A. Severe hemiparesis B. Hemilateral personal neglect C. Denial of functional deficits in the paretic limb D. Visual spatial neglect E. Constructional apraxia
C. Denial of functional deficits in the paretic limb
156
If a person speaks in a monotone, is unable to communicate effectively nonverbally, and lacks emotional gestures and facial expressions, the lesion is located in which of the following? A. Broca’s area in the dominant hemisphere B. Area corresponding to Broca’s in the nondominant hemisphere C. Wernicke’s area in the dominant hemisphere D. Area corresponding to Wernicke’s area in the nondominant hemisphere E. Lower motor neurons or corticobrainstem neurons
B. Area corresponding to Broca’s in the nondominant hemisphere
157
Which of the following may occur with damage to the area corresponding to Wernicke’s area? A. Inability to understand nonverbal communication B. Personal neglect C. Spatial neglect D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
158
Which of the following characterize spatial neglect? A. Navigation apraxia B. Dressing apraxia C. Visual agnosia D. A and B E. A, B, and C
D. A and B
159
Inability to recognize the shape, orientation, or size of objects combined with intact ability to use visual information to plan movements
Visual agnosia
160
Inability to orient the hand to objects when reaching, despite being able to describe and identify the objects based on visual information
Optic ataxia
161
Difficulty in sustaining attention, with onset during childhood
Attention deficit disorder
162
Sudden episodes of involuntary movements, disruption of autonomic regulation, illusions, and/or hallucinations
Epilepsy
163
Disorientation with impaired memory, judgment, and intellect
Dementia
164
Powerful leaning toward the hemiparetic side when sitting or standing
Lateropulsion
165
Which of the following typically occur after traumatic head injury? A. Impulsiveness and inappropriate behaviors B. Difficulty in directing attention C. Decreased executive functions D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
166
Consequences of violent shaking of an infant may include which of the following? A. Cerebral edema B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Development of motor abnormalities as the infant matures D. Emergence of cognitive deficits as the infant matures E. All of the above
E. All of the above
167
Which of the following describes the motor control approach to regaining function subsequent to a stroke? A. Therapist uses hands-on techniques to inhibit excessive muscle tone. B. Client is encouraged to use the nonparetic side to substitute for the paretic side. C. A rigid lower limb brace is provided to allow early ambulation. D. Desired task is practiced in the environment in which the client will be performing the task. E. Sequence of preparatory activities is perfected before the desired task is attempted.
D. Desired task is practiced in the environment in which the client will be performing the task.
168
Inability to identify an object by touch and manipulation, despite having an intact awareness of discriminative touch
Secondary somatosensory cortex
169
Inability to answer the question “Where are we now?”
Hippocampus or Wernicke’s area
170
Inability to button a shirt, despite an intact sensation, motor control, and understanding of the task
Premotor or supplementary motor areas
171
Inability to name objects, despite intact automatic social speech
Wernicke’s area
172
What is the difference between a somatoform disorder and malingering?
In somatoform disorders, no external gain can be identified. In contrast, when a person is malingering, an external gain can be identified.
173
Which of the following is(are) the function(s) of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) system? A. To provide water and certain amino acids to the extracellular fluid B. To supply specific ions to the extracellular fluid C. To provide buoyancy to the brain D. A and B E. A, B, and C
E. A, B, and C
174
What structure is above the body of the lateral ventricle? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Caudate D. Corpus callosum E. Lenticular nucleus
D. Corpus callosum
175
Where is CSF normally found? A. In the subarachnoid space B. Between the dura and the skull C. In the subdural space D. Between the pia mater and the brain E. None of the above
A. In the subarachnoid space
176
Arterial bleeding, followed by a worsening headache, vomiting, decreased consciousness, and hemiparesis.
Epidural hematoma
177
Venous bleeding that is associated with confusion, gradual worsening of headache, vomiting, decreasing consciousness and hemiparesis
Subdural hematoma
178
Disproportionately large head size, inactivity, and downward gaze of the eyes.
Hydrocephalus in infants
179
Headache that is associated with increasing pressure, gait and balance impairments, and incontinence.
Hydrocephalus in adults
180
When blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted, is the lesion focal, multifocal, or diffuse in most cases?
The lesion is focal in most cases of an interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain.
181
Which structure of the basal ganglia is adjacent to the lateral ventricle?
The caudate nucleus is adjacent to the lateral ventricle.
182
A brief, focal loss of brain function, followed by full recovery from neurologic deficits, is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Transient ischemic attack (TIA).
183
Vertebrobasilar artery ischemia is associated with: A. Diplopia B. Ataxia C. Weakness D. Oropharyngeal dysfunction E. All of the above
E. All of the above
184
Lacunar infarctions: A. Are due to hemorrhage. B. Typically result in severe residual disability. C. Produce small avascular cavities in the brain. D. Are a form of TIAs. E. Occur most often in the anterior cerebral artery.
C. Produce small avascular cavities in the brain.
185
Partial occlusion of the basilar artery may cause: A. Tetraplegia B. Loss of sensation C. Coma D. Cranial nerve signs E. All of the above
E. All of the above
186
Acute cerebellar infarction typically produces which of the following? A. Dizziness and/or vertigo with a lack of balance B. Nausea and vomiting, dysarthria, and headache C. Receptive aphasia D. A and B E. A, B, and C
D. A and B
187
Left homonymous hemianopsia, left hemiplegia and hemisensory loss involving the upper limb and face more than the lower limb, and personal neglect
Cortical branches of the right middle cerebral artery
188
Left hemiplegia and hemisensory loss involving the face, upper limb, and lower limb equally
Striate arteries of the right middle cerebral artery
189
Personality changes with contralateral lower limb hemiplegia and hemisensory loss
Anterior cerebral artery
190
Right homonymous hemianopsia, right hemiplegia and hemisensory loss involving the upper limb and face more than the lower limb, and language impairment
Cortical branches of the left middle cerebral artery
191
Contralateral hemiparesis with ocular paralysis preventing upward and medial gaze
Midbrain branches of the posterior cerebral artery
192
Upper limb paresis and paresthesia
Watershed area
193
Developmental abnormality with arteries connected to veins by abdominal, thin-walled vessels
Arteriovenous malformation
194
Abnormal dilation of the wall of an artery or vein
Aneurysm
195
Medial displacement of the uncus, with compression the midbrain, caused by a space-occupying lesion in temporal lobe
Uncal herniation
196
Displacement of the diencephalon, midbrain, and the pons inferiorly; caused by a space-occupying lesion in the cerebrum.
Central herniation
197
Protrusion of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum; caused by pressure from an uncal herniation, a tumor in the brainstem/cerebellar region, hemorrhage, or edema.
Tonsillar herniation
198
Which of the following stimulate vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries? A. Low blood pressure B. Low pH levels (acidic) C. Low oxygen (O2) concentrations D. Low carbon dioxide (CO2) concentrations
D. Low carbon dioxide (CO2) concentrations
199
Which of the following events occurs with prolonged cerebral edema?
A. Fluid leakage from damaged capillaries
B. Arterial dilation with increased capillary pressures
C. Lack of blood flow and O2 delivery
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
200
Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery and ischemia of the inferior parietofrontal lobes of the right hemisphere may result in which of the following?
A. Impaired nonverbal communication
B. Apraxia
C. Hemispatial and hemipersonal neglect
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
201
Venous blood that accumulates in the dural sinus will drain into which of the following?
A. Watershed area
B. Internal carotid vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Fourth ventricle
E. None of the above
C. Jugular vein
