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Nutrition > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

0
Q

What characteristics of pet food can affect plaque and calculus build up

A

Form (canned vs. dry)
Kibble size
Kibble texture

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1
Q

What is periodontal disease

A

Plaque induced disease of the peridontium that includes both gingivitis and periodontitis

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2
Q

Describe stage 1 periodontal disease

A

Dental plaque is the transparent film and bacteria cells and food particles that form on tooth surfaces. bad breath and reddening and inflammation of the gumline occurs even though teeth appear clean

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3
Q

What is stage 2 periodontal disease

A

Within 72 hours dental plaque can begin to calcify forming tartar. Increasing inflammation is evident along with swelling of the gum line

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4
Q

What is stage 3 periodontal disease

A

Left untreated, gingivitis may progress to an infection of the tissues with subsequent tooth loss, gum recession and bone loss

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5
Q

What is stage 4 periodontitis

A

Tartar is covered with newly formed plaque. Toxins and enzymes secreted by plaque bacteria cause further inflammation of the periodontal tissues along with some loss of tissue attachments and the beginning of bone loss

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6
Q

T/f: plaque is the first stage of periodontal disease

A

True

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7
Q

T/f: plaque is readily visible

A

False

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8
Q

T/f: plaque is composed of bacteria, cells and food particles

A

True

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9
Q

T/f: plaque cannot be removed by mechanical brushing

A

False

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10
Q

T/f: tartar is mineralized plaque

A

True

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11
Q

T/f: tartar prevention is the number one priority in preventing periodontal disease

A

False

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12
Q

T/f: periodontal disease has been linked to tissue change in canine kidneys, heart muscle and liver and oral bacteria may cause pneumonia if it’s aspirated into the lungs

A

True

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13
Q

Uroliths are least likely to form when urine is what for a particular urolith type

A

Undersaturated

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14
Q

What are the most common types of feline lower urinary tract disease

A

Idiopathic cystitis and urolithiasis

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15
Q

Dietary manipulation maybe used to dissolve which type of urolith in cats

A

Sterile struvite

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16
Q

T/f: Dietary magnesium restriction may increase the risk of calcium oxalate urolith formation

A

True

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17
Q

True or false: idiopathic cystitis often involves a bacterial infection

A

False

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18
Q

True or false: younger cats are more prone to get calcium oxalate crystals

A

False

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19
Q

True or false: purebred cat such as Burmese and Persian are more prone to get calcium oxalate crystals

A

True

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20
Q

True or false indoor cats are more prone to develop struvite crystals

A

True

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21
Q

What type of crystals are Dalmation dogs prone to

A

Urate

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22
Q

What may occur in pets with chronic renal failure

A

Anemia, weakened bones, uncontrolled blood pressure

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23
Q

Describe the typical change in water intake and urination When a pet has chronic renal failure

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

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24
Q

True or false: chronic renal failure patients consuming excessive dietary protein and inorganic ions will accumulate nitrogen containing wastes resulting in a life threatening the syndrome called uremia

A

True

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25
Q

What are the first clinical signs clients notice when their pet has chronic renal failure

A

Drinking more water, more frequent urination with greater volume

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26
Q

True or false: chronic renal failure is reversible even though it develops over months or years

A

False

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27
Q

It is recommended that the protein level in the diets of canine and feline patients with chronic renal failure be

A

Restricted

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28
Q

Dietary phosphorus should be what in dogs and cats with chronic renal failure to help preserve renal function

A

Restricted

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29
Q

It is recommended that the fat level in the diets of canine and feline patients with chronic renal failure be what

A

Increased

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30
Q

Dietary potassium should be what in dogs and cats with chronic renal failure to help preserve renal function

A

Increased

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31
Q

What is the nutrient of greatest concern in food allergy reactions

A

Protein

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32
Q

Dogs and cats with food allergies typically present with what clinical signs

A

Redness and constant licking

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33
Q

Which type of test is the most useful for diagnosing food allergy

A

Elimination diet

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34
Q

True or false: food allergy is an adverse immune mediated reaction to a specific food

A

True

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35
Q

Which nutritional factors promotes skin health

A

Omega-3 and omega six fatty acids, zinc, vitamin a and E, protein

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36
Q

As an alternative to a hypoallergenic diet containing hydrolyzed protein dogs with confirmed food allergies can be managed by feeding a diet that contains what

A

The novel protein to which the dog has not been previously exposed

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37
Q

And elimination diet may need to be fed exclusively for at least how many weeks as part of an elimination diet trial

A

8 to 16

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38
Q

Explain hypoallergenic diet

A

The diet uses a novel proteins source that the animal has not previously been exposed to. They do not have a reaction

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39
Q

Explain the Hydrolyzed diet

A

All of the allergens are removed from the proteins so there won’t be a reaction

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40
Q

Describe an important client recommendation when using one of these diets

A

Keep on it for three months

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41
Q

State two ways that obesity increases the incidence of osteoarthritis in the dog

A

Adds more weight on the joint. Increase in fat promotes inflammation of the joint

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42
Q

In what anatomical area do older cats get arthritis

A

The spine

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43
Q

State two nutraceuticals that are beneficial to cartilage

A

Glucosamine and condroitin

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44
Q

Which general type of nutrient when added to a dogs diet helps reduce production of inflammatory mediators such as PGE2

A

Omega-3 fatty acid

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45
Q

What is the main reason the senior animals require less daily calories

A

They’re resting metabolic rate is lower

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46
Q

Diets formulated for seniors will have a lower caloric density state two ways that these diets are formulated to reduce a caloric density

A

They contain less fat, less carbs, high biological value and highly digestible protein. Adds more fiber to dilute the calories

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47
Q

State to minerals that will be restricted in a diet formulated for seniors

A

Phosphorus and sodium

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48
Q

Which mineral is increased especially in cats

A

Vitamin K

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49
Q

When do large breed puppies reach adult size

A

18 to 24 months

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50
Q

What are advantages to slowing down the growth rate for large breeds

A

Reduces risk of osteochondrosis and canine hip dysplasia

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51
Q

What is the minimum protein to feed the puppy

A

22%

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52
Q

What is the ideal protein for a puppy

A

25 to 29% and high biological value and digestible

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53
Q

What should you limit for a puppy

A

Energy and calcium. Excessive energy during growth results in rapid growth rate. Excessive calcium during growth especially calcium to phosphorus ratio increases the risk of developing hip dysplasia.

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54
Q

And appropriate diet for large breed dog will have what

A

A lower energy density thus less fat content. The balance level of high-quality protein. 30% less calcium phosphorus than puppy food ratio of 1.2 to 1

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55
Q

Why will portion controlled feeding make house training easier for large breeds

A

Due to Gastro colic reflex. Having to defecate almost immediately after eating.

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56
Q

How often should large breed puppies be getting weighed

A

Every two weeks

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57
Q

How much exercise should large breed puppies be getting

A

Moderate exercise

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58
Q

What is Halitosis caused by

A

Microbial metabolism of protein containing substances create volatile sulfur compounds which smell

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59
Q

How do you remove plaque

A

Requires mechanical abrasion from chewing and teeth brushing to remove

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60
Q

How do you remove tartar or calculus

A

Requires professional dentistry

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61
Q

What is tartar or calculus

A

Mineralized plaque

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62
Q

What are neck lesions, cervical line lesions and feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions associated with

A

Chronic inflammation results in demineralization by odontoclasts

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63
Q

What is the goal of the dental diet

A

minimize plaque and calculus formation.

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64
Q

How do you minimize plaque and calculus formation

A

Daily teeth brushing, chlorhexidine rinses, dentistry diet

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65
Q

What happens if a dog chews it’s food slowly

A

Less calculus formation

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66
Q

Did cats chew their food ?

A

No

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67
Q

What do dental diets have that binds calcium and prevents plaque from becoming tartar

A

Phosphates

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68
Q

What do dental diets do to the texture of the kibble

A

Change it so that it will have more of a brushing effect and will remove plaque

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69
Q

What are the key nutrients for the skin

A

Protein, EFA’s, vitamin A, vitamin E, zinc

70
Q

How much of the daily protein requirement does skin and hair coat account for

A

30%

71
Q

Describe the epidermis

A

Outer layer of the skin that provides a structural barrier protecting the body from the environment. Covered by an antibacterial lipid layer which prevents water loss from the body

72
Q

What cells make up the epidermal layer

A

Keratinocytes

73
Q

What is the brick and mortar comparison of the structure of the epidermis

A

The bricks are the keratinocytes and the mortar is that ceramide of a wall

74
Q

Why is ceramide important

A

Allows the skin to maintain a protective barrier against allergens and bacteria and prevents the skin from drying out

75
Q

What is pruritis caused by

A

Bacteria, yeast, parasites, Allergan

76
Q

What is atopy caused by

A

Environmental allergy

77
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for skin problems

A

GPE, skin scraping, cytology, biopsy, bloodwork

78
Q

What are the treatments for skin problems

A

Anti-parasite, antibiotic, anti-inflammatory Cortizone, shampoo and topical medication, diet

79
Q

What is atopy

A

Inappropriate immune response to a foreign substance. Immune system reacts and produces IGE and he bodies against the allergen. Anti-bodies cause the release of histamine that causes skin to be pruritic.

80
Q

What are common allergies

A

Pollen, mold, dust, mites

81
Q

Are allergies breed predisposition

A

Yes

82
Q

How do you diagnose allergies

A

Intradermal skin test

83
Q

How do you treat allergies

A

Hyposensitization shots, immune suppressant’s: Cortizone, EFA’s to suppress inflammation

84
Q

How is food allergy different then allergies

A

Exposure is through the digestive tract

85
Q

What is specific about food allergy

A

Requires time to develop and most animals have been eating the offending food for years with no trouble because it involves the immune system.

86
Q

What is food intolerance

A

Immediate reaction to an offending food that does not involve the immune system

87
Q

What are the clinical signs of food allergy

A

Facial itching, foot or limb chewing, belly itching, reoccurring ear infections, pruritis

88
Q

What dogs are predisposition to food allergies

A

Labrador, golden retriever, cocker spaniel, German Shepherd

89
Q

What causes food allergies

A

Protein molecules between 18 and 36,000 Dalton’s. Needs to be a protein of this size so that the immune system thinks it is foreign and will react to it

90
Q

Where are the proteins coming from

A

Beef chicken, gluten

91
Q

What is hydrolyzed protein

A

Conventional protein source is used but broken down into molecules too small to excite the immune system.

92
Q

Why can you only feed elimination diet for three months and not any other treats

A

Because it’ll change the results. No edible to toys or treats unless they are the same food source as the test diet.

93
Q

What is Royal canin skin support for

A

Specially formulated to assist in the management of skin diseases and environmental allergies

94
Q

What is feline lower urinary tract disorder caused by

A

Infections, urolith, urinary crystals, congenital, idiopathic, behavior

95
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease

A

Dysuria, pollakiuria, hematuria, innapropriate urination, frequent licking genital area, anuria

96
Q

What are the causes of flutd

A

Idiopathic feline cystitis, urolith, bacterial infection

97
Q

How do you diagnose flutd

A

GPE, urinalysis and urine culture, x-ray and ultrasound

98
Q

How do you treat FLUTD

A

Subcutaneous fluids, painkillers, anti-inflammatories, antibiotics, behavior drugs, encourage water drinking, diet

99
Q

What is crystalluria

A

Urinary crystals

100
Q

What are the risk factors for struvites

A

Less than five years old, high magnesium diet, female more frequent, low water consumption, high urine specific gravity by Crystal saturation, obese, indoor cat, free choice, dirty litter box, stress.

101
Q

What is the target urine ph

A

6.2-6.4

102
Q

Why do we restrict magnesium

A

Reduce dietary magnesium intake to reduce the likelihood of struvite crystals or stone formation

103
Q

What are the risk factors for calcium oxalate stones

A

Himalayan Burmese Persian cats. Male more frequent, more than six years old. Excessive calcium and excess protein. Excessive magnesium restriction, obese sedentary cat.

104
Q

How do you prevent calcium oxalate stones

A

Treat hypercalcemia if it exists, select food with optimal calcium and magnesium levels, increased water intake, add potassium citrate, restrict protein

105
Q

Why do dogs get struvite stones

A

In dogs associated with bladder bacterial infections

106
Q

Why do dogs get oxalate stones

A

Small breeds may be more susceptible diet high in calcium phosphate. May be secondary to above more than females

107
Q

Which certain breeds of dogs are predisposed to calcium oxalate crystals

A

Miniature Schnauzer, Lhasa apso, Yorkey

108
Q

How do you prevent dalmatians from getting urate stones

A

Feed a low-protein diet

109
Q

Why is it easier for cats and dogs to vomit

A

Cats and dogs have striated muscle in the esophagus

110
Q

How do you manage megaesophagus

A

Please food at an elevated position, make a more liquid consistency, Bailey chair

111
Q

What is the HCl in the stomach responsible for

A

Acidic environment. Turns Pepcinogen into pepsin

112
Q

What did the mucous glands in the stomach do

A

Protect the stomach from acid

113
Q

What do diets that contains soluble fiber do

A

Cause decreased rate of emptying when compared with diets that contain insoluble fiber which can be beneficial to animals with diabetes. Also fiber in small intestine can slow absorption of glucose

114
Q

Which breeds are prone to gastric dilation volvulus

A

Deep chested breeds. Older dogs, overeating over drinking after exercise, eating air, gastric fermentation

115
Q

How do you prevent gastric dilation volvulus

A

Feed highly digestible low residue and low-fat

116
Q

What is a symptom of gastritis

A

Vomiting

117
Q

How do you treat gastritis

A

Withhold food for 24 to 48 hours. Offer small amounts of easily digested food

118
Q

Describe the what the pancreatic duct delivers

A

Enzymes and bicarbonate salts that help neutralize acid chime and provide proper pH for digestive enzymes to function. Pancreatic enzymes are delivered in the in active form

119
Q

What are the clinical signs of pancreatitis in dogs

A

A cute

120
Q

what are the signs of pancreatitis in cats

A

Chronic

121
Q

How do you test for pancreatitis

A

Blood test

122
Q

What is the bile duct do

A

Delivers bile acid’s for the emulsification of fats and activates lipase to form the micelles. In the cat bile duct and pancreatic duct meet to form the common bile duct

123
Q

How do you treat pancreatic exocrine insufficiency

A

Foods low in fiber restricted and fat and highly digestible

124
Q

What viruses can cause malabsorption

A

Parvovirus and coronavirus

125
Q

What is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Change to the bacterial population of the proximal small intestine

126
Q

What are the clinical signs of small intestinal bacteria overgrowth

A

Reoccurrence episodes of soft diarrhea, vomiting, anorexia

127
Q

What does small intestinal bacterial overgrowth cause

A

Impaired gut motility, prolonged use of antibiotics, Mal digestion, mal absorption, genetic predisposition

128
Q

What do the good bacteria do

A

Inhibit growth of bad bacteria, help to stimulate the immune system, synthesize essential vitamins, ferment the soluble fiber to make short chain fatty acids.

129
Q

What do short chain fatty acids do for the good bacteria

A

Create an environment more favorable

130
Q

What are the causes of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and what does it cause

A

Idiopathic, immune destruction of pancreas, repeated episodes of pancreatitis. Causes mal digestion due to no digestive enzymes

131
Q

What are the clinical signs of Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

A

Loose or semi-formed stools or diarrhea, weight loss, polyphagia

132
Q

What is specific to small bowel diarrhea

A

Increased volume, no straining, often weight loss, dehydration

133
Q

Described large bowel diarrhea

A

Straining, frequent accidents in the house, mucus, fresh blood, no weight-loss or dehydration

134
Q

What are the characteristics of G.I. diet

A

Highly Digestible protein, high biological value, single protein source. Single source of carbohydrates, very digestible, avoid gluten. Reduced fat content but increased percent of omega-3 fatty acid’s for anti- inflammatories, moderately fermentable fiber to create growth of good bacteria

135
Q

What percent of fiber should a Gastro intestinal diet have

A

3 to 6

136
Q

What is lymphangectasia

A

Lymphatic vessels are dilated and congested and lymph fluid leaks out into the intestinal lumen. Protein losing enteropathy

137
Q

What is the diet treatment for Lymphangectasia

A

Moderate amount of highly digestible protein, low-fat, high-fiber

138
Q

What are five functions of the kidney

A

Water balance, filter a waste, acid-base balance, hormones, blood-pressure maintenance

139
Q

How much cardiac output through the kidneys per minute

A

One fourth of blood

140
Q

What is Renal reserve loss

A

Don’t see clinical signs till 66% of nephrons are gone. No clinical signs possible proteinuria

141
Q

What is renal insufficiency

A

66 or more percent nephrons lost. Loss of ability to concentrate urine but can still get rid of waste

142
Q

What are the clinical signs of renal insufficiency

A

PUPD, inability to concentrate urine, low specific gravity, increase in blood pressure, proteinuria

143
Q

What is renal failure

A

75% or more nephrons lost. Progressive loss of urine concentrating ability, accumulation of waste product

144
Q

What are the clinical signs of renal failure

A

PUPD, Lethargy, weight loss, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, increased blood pressure

145
Q

What are the laboratory changes for renal failure

A

Increased BU in and creatinine, increased phosphorus, hypokalemia

146
Q

What is advanced renal failure

A

90% or more nephrons lost. Leads to uremic state

147
Q

What are the clinical signs of advanced renal failure

A

Profound weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, depressed

148
Q

What are the laboratory signs of advanced renal failure

A

Anemia, very elevated BU in and creatinine, elevated phosphorus, low potassium

149
Q

In Renal failure do you reduce protein

A

Yes

150
Q

In renal failure do you reduce phosphorus

A

Yes. Use phosphorus binding agents.

151
Q

In renal failure do you increase b vitamins

A

Yes

152
Q

In renal failure do you decrease sodium

A

Yes

153
Q

In Renal failure do you increase potassium.

A

Yes to help control metabolic acidosis

154
Q

In renal failure do you increase fat

A

Yes

155
Q

Why do you add fermentable fiber to renal diets

A

Nitrogen trap

156
Q

What is a cat or dog considered senior

A

At seven

157
Q

What causes aging

A

Free radicals, waste product accumulation, gene regulation, mean system failure, obesity

158
Q

How do you increase pet lifespan

A

Avoid obesity, proper nutrition, regular wellness exams, early disease detection with bloodwork, preventative healthcare such as dental

159
Q

What happens with aging

A

Resting metabolic rate slows, lean body mass decreases, more fat

160
Q

After neuter what happened

A

Metabolic rate slows down

161
Q

In aging what happens to the protein

A

They are less likely to use protein for energy rather than to build muscle so you feed high biological value protein.

162
Q

Does organ function decline when animals age

A

Yes, liver, kidney, pancreas, digestive tract declines

163
Q

What happens to eyes with aging

A

Increased conjunctivitis, decreased tear production, lens cataracts

164
Q

What happens to ears with aging

A

Degeneration of cochlea apparatus. Repeatered Otitis externa

165
Q

What are the clinical signs of osteoarthritis

A

Less active, reluctant to perform certain tasks, lame after after activity, irritable,slow to rise after lying down

166
Q

What causes osteoarthritis

A

Age-related in large breed dogs. Underlying joint problems such as hip dysplasia, obesity, lack of proper exercise

167
Q

How do you manage osteoarthritis

A

Weight loss, exercise, anti-inflammatories, nutrition

168
Q

What are the cat clinical signs of osteoarthritis

A

Not jumping up so high places, behavior change, inappropriate urination

169
Q

What are some gastrointestinal problems seniors are more susceptible to

A

Decreased gastric secretions, decreased functional salivary tissue, More fecal incontinence, more prone to vomiting and diarrhea

170
Q

What is cognitive dysfunction

A

Confusion, disorientation, change in sleep pattern, loss host training, decreased activity.

171
Q

Loss of ability of pancreas to produce insulin. Blood sugar will be high but Artemel cannot metabolize glucose. Consequentially they metabolize fat and produce Keytone bodies

A

What is diabetes mellitus

172
Q

What are the clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

A

PUPD, polyphagia, weight loss

173
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyperthyroidism in cats

A

PUPD, increased appetite, weight loss, vocalization, vomiting, diarrhea

Nutrition (3 decks)

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