Test 2 Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

leukoedema

A

characterized by white hue or vertical wrinkles that disappear when skin is stretched

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2
Q

Actinic Keratosis

A

A preconcerous skin condition

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3
Q

what drugs cause gingival enlargement

A

Dilantin, cyclosporin, calcium blocckers

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4
Q

Oral Lichen Planus Description

A

oral Lichenoid mucositits
interlacing white lines with circular radiating lines

Caused by reaction to drugs( thiazides, beta blockers diaretics) or amalgam

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5
Q

purpura or ecchymosis

A

caused by extravation of blood

Described as red purple blotches mixed with yellow greenish backgroud

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6
Q

Epulis fissuratum

A

Denture induced: inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

Described as
Multiple soft tissue enlargements or thick folds with prominent fissure where denture flanges fit

categories as a physical injury

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7
Q

Morsicato buccarum/ Labiorum

A

Physical injury
Cheek and lip biting , a factitial injury

described by white patches of buccal and labial mucosa with ragged or shredded surface and areas of red underneath

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8
Q

Irritation from masticatory function may cause

A

Frictional Keratosis on gingiva

frictional keratosis on alveolar mucosa and retromolar pad/ridge

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9
Q

Chemical injury

A

Aspirin burn

thin white folds on mucosa can be peeled off

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10
Q

Leukoplakia

A

a white patch on
the oral mucosa which cannot
be removed by scraping and

cannot be attributed to any
other diagnosable disease

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11
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

A mixed red and white area at commisural mucosa, with IRREGULAR borders and mulberry looking growth.

Induration to palpulation

can be multiple red lesion on lip covered in crust stayed for more than 3 months

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12
Q

what is the major contribbuter of resting salivary gland

A

Submandibular gland

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13
Q

What is the main contributor of stimulate salivaa

A

Parotid gland

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14
Q

whats the difference between xerostoma and hyposalivation

A

xerostomia is a sensation

Hyposalivation is a reduced salivary flow rate

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15
Q

What is hyper salivation called

A

sialorrhea

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16
Q

how long would it take to notice xerostomia

A

sometimes until more than 50% is gone

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17
Q

What are signs of hyposalivation

A
thin and atropic mucosa
mouth mirror sticks to muccal mucosa
Limited saliva flow
Disappearing of filiform and fungiform papillae
Cervical decays
Oral candidiasis
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18
Q

When is it considered hyposalivation

A

less than .1 g(ml)/minute unstimulated
less than .7 g(ml)/minuted stimulaateds
or both

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19
Q

When are men considered anemic

A

when Hb gets 13.5 g/dl

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20
Q

When are women considered anemic

A

Hb 12 g/dl

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21
Q

lichen planus has what kind of histology

A

Civatte bodies&
Intense fibrinogen deposition at the basement membrane zone is
typical of oral lesions of lichen planus

22
Q

Ecchymosis or purpura

A

extravasion of blood to skin surface

23
Q

epilus fissuratum

A

denture induced inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

24
Q
  1. T/F Q: ulceration is total loss of epithelial layer. Erosion is thinning of epithelial layer
A

True and true

25
angiodema is caused by what drug
Ace inhibitors
26
what causes jaw bone necrosis
osteoporosis cancer patients on anti resorptive and antiangiogenic drugs pagent disease, osteopenia
27
radionecrosis
when bone necrosis happens above 60 gray scale
28
important anti resorptive drug
Bisphosphanate
29
Trismus
muscle is involved inability to open, radiotherapy can contribute to trismus
30
acceptable INR range Patient on oral anticoagulant therapy (AT) with warfarin (Coumadin):
2-3
31
Patient on AT with warfarin due to artificial heart valve may have INR up to
3.5
32
iNR reference range
0.8-1.2
33
TRUE OR FALSE | INR can be used in assessing coagulation status of patients not take vitamin K
False | INR CAN NOT be used for assessing coagulation status of patients NOT taking vitamin K antagonists
34
true or false | INR can be used to accurately reflect inhibition of coagulation in liver disease
False The effect of ISI is much greater on PT in warfarin users than in liver disease individuals, therefore INR does NOT accurately reflect inhibition of coagulation in liver disease
35
True or false INR has no value in the new oral anticoagulants users (factor Xa inhibitor[Xarelto, Eliquis] or Factor IIa inhibitor[Pradaxa])
True
36
what is PTR (prothrombin time ratio)
is the patient’s PT divided by that of reference control plasma PT: PTR = (PT)/(Ref Control PT)
37
ISI stands for
International service index
38
What is PT=Prothrobin Time used for
Detection of inherited or acquired couagulation defects deficiencies in factor II V VII X and Fibrinogen monitoring warfarin ratio using INR
39
aPTT=
activated Partial Thromboplastin time
40
Severe neutropenia
(ANC < 500) — severe risk of bacterial infection. | ANC=Absolute neutrophil count
41
with Platelet count when does risk of increase bleeding occur
50,000/mm^3 =50k microliters
42
with platelet count when does spontaneous bleeding occur
20,000/mm^3= 20K microL or less
43
When is a patient considered thrombocytopenic
150,000 mm^3= 150K or less
44
E1 caries
lesion is limited to the outer 1/2 of the enamel Triangle base is at surface pointy part to the pulp... like drill(radiolucent) seen radiographically only on Proximal surfaces
45
E2
lesions penetrates more than 1/2 trough enamel up to DEJ | Can be seen radiographically ONLY on proximal surface
46
D1
lesion in dentin less than 1/3 | Rounded, poorly defined radiolucent
47
Difference between enamel lesion. and dentin lesion
Enamel - sharp triangle | Dentin- rounded poorly defined
48
D2 lesion
extends more than 1/3 but less than 2/3 towards the pulp
49
D3
lesion extends more than 2/3 towards the pulp
50
which disease has the fistula
CAA
51
physical examination methods
``` inspection palpation Percussion" auscultation Instrumentation cold test ```
52
true or false | a diagnosis is complete once u discover disease name
false | incomplete diagnosis until cause is I identified