Test 2 Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

What does the sociopsychiatric explanation suggest?

A

It suggests that our desire for goods and services arises from our needs and social acceptance (or envy), security, and ego gratification.

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2
Q

What does the economic explanation suggest?

A

It suggests that prices and income are just as relevant to consumption decisions as more basic desires and preferences.

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3
Q

What is the concept of demand?

A

attempts to encompass all relevant influences on why we purchase what we do.

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4
Q

What do economists accept consumers’ tastes as?

A

as outcomes of sociopsychiatric and cultural influences

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5
Q

Is the pleasure or satisfaction obtained from a good or service.

A

Utility

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6
Q

Is the amount of satisfaction obtained from entire consumption of a product.

A

Total utility

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7
Q

is the change in total utility obtained by consuming one additional (marginal) unit of a good or service.

A

marginal utility

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8
Q

marginal utility =

A

change in total utility / change in quantity

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9
Q

what is the law of diminishing marginal utility?

A

the marginal utility of a good declines as more of it is consumed in a given time period.

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10
Q

what does the law of demand state?

A

the quantity of a good demanded in a given time period increases as its price falls.

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11
Q

what is the price elasticity of demand?

A

the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.

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12
Q

what is price elasticity?

A

the response of consumers to a change in price is measured by the price elasticity of demand.

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13
Q

if absolute value of E is larger than 1,

A

the demand is elastic, consumer response is large relative to the change in price

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14
Q

if absolute value of E is less than 1,

A

demand is inelastic, consumers aren’t very responsive to price changes.

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15
Q

if absolute value of E equals 1,

A

demand is unitary elastic

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16
Q

the price of a product multiple by the quantity sold in a given time period.

A

total revenue

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17
Q

a price cut decreases total revenue if __________.

A

demand is price inelastic

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18
Q

a price cut increases total revenue if _________.

A

demand is price elastic

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19
Q

a price cut does not change in total revenue if _____________.

A

demand is unitary elastic

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20
Q

is something we would like to have but aren’t likely to buy unless our income jumps or the price declines sharply

A

luxury good

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21
Q

some goods are so critical to our everyday life that we regard them as ________.

A

necessities

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22
Q

demand for necessities is ______.

A

relatively inelastic

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23
Q

demand for luxury goods is _______.

A

elastic

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24
Q

the greater the availability of substitutes, ______.

A

the higher the price of elasticity of demand

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25
the smaller the availability of substitutes, ______.
the lower of the price elasticity of demand.
26
if the price of a product is very high relative to the consumer's income, _________.
the demand will tend to be elastic
27
if the price of a product is very low relative to the consumer's income, __________.
the demand will tend to be inelastic
28
the demand for a good increases when the price of a substitute for the good goes up.
substitute goods
29
the demand for a good decreases when the price of a complement to the good goes up.
complementary goods
30
what is a successful advertising campaign?
one that shifts the demand curve to the right.
31
resource inputs used to produce goods and services, such as land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship.
factors of production
32
a technological relationship expressing the maximum quantity of a good attainable from different combinations of factors inputs.
production function
33
- Output per unit of input | - The productivity of a factor of production depends on the other resources available to it.
productivity
34
maximum output of a good from the resources used in production
efficiency (technical)
35
the period in which the quantity and quality of at least one input cannot be changed, i.e. fixed.
short run
36
what does labor determine?
- how much output we get from fixed inputs. | - in general, as the amount of labor used increase, output also increases
37
all inputs are fixed except for ______
labor
38
the change in total output associated with one additional unit of input
marginal physical product (MPP)
39
marginal physical product (MPP) =
change in total output/ change in input quantity
40
When the MPP of labor is positive (MPPL>0), then _________.
the total output increases
41
the marginal physical product of a variable input declines as more of it is employed with a given quantity of other fixed inputs
law of diminishing returns
42
the MPP starts to decline also because ______.
of the ratio of the variable inputs to the fixed inputs increases
43
tells us how much a firm is capable of producing (its production capacity) but not how much it should produce to maximize profits.
a production function
44
what is the most desirable rate of output?
the one that maximizes total profit
45
the market value (in dollars) of all resources used to produce a good or service
total cost
46
costs of production that do not change when the rate of output is altered (e.g. the cost of basic plant and equipment)
fixed costs
47
costs of production that change when the rate of output is altered (e.g. labor and material costs)
variable costs
48
the difference between total revenue and total cost
profit
49
profit =
Total revenue - total costs
50
Is equal to fixed costs when output is zero because no variable costs are incurred when output is zero
total cost
51
total fixed cost divided by the quantity produced in a given time period.
average fixed cost (AFC)
52
AFC =
total fixed costs / total output = TFC / q
53
total variable cost divided by the quantity produced in a given time period
average variable cost (AVC)
54
AVC=
total variable cost / total output
55
Total cost divided by the quantity produced in a given time period
average total cost (ATC)
56
ATC=
total cost / total output
57
in order to lower the AFC for a short run, what must be done?
increase output
58
in order to lower AFC for a long run, what must be done?
reduce fixed resources
59
refers to the change in total costs associated with one more unit of output.
marginal cost
60
marginal cost (MC)=
change in total cost/ change in output
61
If MC > ATC, then
ATC is increasing
62
IF MC < ATC, then
ATC is decreasing
63
IF MC = ATC, then
ATC at minimum
64
the output decision has to be based not only on the capacity to produce (the production function) but also on the costs of production (the cost functions)
a cost summary
65
the supply decision has two dimensions:
- a short run horizon | - a long run horizon
66
the short run horizon concerns ______.
the production decision
67
the long run horizon concerns ______.
the investment decision
68
what is the long run investment decision?
the decision to build, buy, or lease plant equipment: to enter or exit an industry
69
in the long run investment, __________.
- businesses have no lease or purchase commitments | - there are no fixed costs in the long run
70
the short run production decision is characterized by the ________.
existence of fixed costs
71
the short-run production decision is ________.
the election of the short-run rate of output (with existing plant and equipment)
72
long run:
a period in time long enough for all inputs to be varied (no fixed costs)
73
the long-run curve is __________.
the summary of our best short-run cost possibilities, using existing technology and facilities
74
a payment made for the use of a resource, money is exchanged
explicit cost
75
the value of resource used, even when no direct payment is made, money is NOT exchanged.
implicit costs
76
the value of all resources used to produce a good or service; opportunity cost
economic cost
77
economic cost=
explicit costs + implicit costs
78
some possible ways of increasing productivity are:
- increasing education - vocational training - increase capital investment
79
THE ATC and MC curves shift down when _______.
productivity increases
80
five common types of market structure:
- perfect competition - monopolistic competition - oligopoly - duopoly - monopoly
81
a perfectly competitive firm is ________-.
one without market power
82
a competitive market is
one in which no buyer or seller has market power
83
is one that produces the entire market supply of a particular good or service.
a monopoly firm
84
what characteristics does a monopoly firm have?
- it is a price setter, not a price taker - it has no direct competitors - it has complete market power; it can alter the market price of a good or service
85
only two firms supply a product
duopoly
86
a few large firms supply all or most of a particular product
oligopoly
87
many firms supply essentially the same product but each enjoys significant brand loyalty.
monopolistic competition
88
the demand curve facing a perfectly competitive firm is _____.
horizontal
89
the market demand curve for a product is _____.
always downward sloping
90
is the price of a product multiplied by the quantity sold in a given time period:
total revenue
91
price > MC, then
increase output rate
92
price = MC, then
maintain output rate
93
price < MC, then
decrease output rate
94
a competitive firm wants to ______.
to expand the rate of production whenever price exceeds marginal cost.
95
profit per unit =
p - ATC
96
the ability and willingness to sell specific quantities of a good at alternative prices in a given time period.
supply
97
is the total quantity of a good that seller are willing and able to sell at alternative prices in a given time period
market supply
98
what are the determinants of the market supply of a competitive industry?
1. The price of factor inputs 2. Technology 3. Expectations 4. The number of firms in the industry
99
is the total quantity of a good or service people are willing and able to buy at alternative prices in a given time period.
market demand
100
is the change in total revenue that results from a one-unit increase in quantity sold.
marginal revenue
101
what does the monopolist use to determinate its rate of output?
maximization rule
102
how do you calculate a profit?
total profit= TR-TC
103
A monopolist produces _______ and charges a ______ price than a competitive industry.
less & higher
104
is a government grant of exclusive ownership of an innovation.
patent
105
what is the source of a monopoly power?
patent
106
A monopolist sets price at a point on the ______ curve, corresponding to the rate of output determined by the intersection of _______.
Demand; marginal revenue and marginal cost.
107
A monopolist sets its price:
At the rate of output where marginal revenue equals marginal costs.
108
For a monopolist, the demand curve facing the firm is:
the same as the market demand curve.
109
``` Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monopoly? A. High barriers to entry B. Differentiated product C. Ownership of essential resources D. Large economics of scale ```
B. Differentiated product
110
temporary price reductions designed to drive out competition.
predatory pricing
111
is an industry in which one firm can achieve economies of scale over the entire range of market supply.
natural monopoly
112
is an imperfectly competitive industry subject to potential entry if prices or profits increase.
contestable market
113
Are present if average costs falls as the size (scale) of plant and equipment increases
economies of scale