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Flashcards in test 2 Deck (70):
1

What is the treatment of compartment syndrome?

Emergent decompression is needed to preserve the limb

2

How do you recognize compartment syndrome?

Severe pain out of proportion to the injury, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, pulseless

3

What are the causes of compartment syndrome?

Causes of compartment syndrome may be divided into three categories: decreased compartment size, increased compartment content, or externally applied pressure.
- injury to tissue surrounding bone with soft tissue
- inflammation, swelling, hemorrhaging, edema

4

What patients are at risk for developing compartment syndrome?

-athletes
young males
pt with bleeding disorders
pt on anticoagulants

5

What is the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?

diuretics for edema
- lipid lowering therapy /good diet
- hypertensive meds (beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers)
- immunosepressants
-transfusion of albumin

6

Why does thrombtic events occur with nephrotic syndrome?

the protein required for homeostasis are lost in the urine, stimulating hepatic synthesis clotting factors

7

Why does edema occur with nephrotic syndrome?

Kidneys are not working well: pushing fluid into insterstitial spaces of the tissue causing edema

8

Why does hyperlipidemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?

with nephrotic syndrome the kidneys are affected and do not filter well the HDL and LDL creating a build up of lipids in the body : hyperlipidemia

9

Why does hypoalbumiemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?

hypoalbumeimia: is low albumin, albumin is 50 % protein composition.
and so with nephrotic syndrom you have low protein values so the albumine is also low causing hypoalbumiemia

10

What are the clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?

- Hypoalbumiemia
- Hyperlipidemia
- Edema
- Propensity for thrombus formations

11

Osteotitis deforman is also known as:

Paget’s disease

12

A inherited disorder leading to degeneration of muscle tissue is:

Muscular dystrophy

13

Which of the following is consistent with fibromyalgia

Chronic pain in symtic

14

The most common malignant bone tumor in adolescence is :

Osteosarcoma

15

T or F.
Paget's disease is characterized by excessive bone remodeling

True

16

Individuals with osteogenesis imperfect are also risk for:

pneumonia

17

Osteogenesis imperfect is caused by:

Genetic defects in collagen formation

18

Osteomalacia in children is referred to as:

Rickets

19

Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in:

Vitamin D

20

The major pathophysiological feature of osteomalacia is:

Abnormal bone mineralization resulting in soft spongy bones

21

A complication of osteoporosis is?

Pathological fractures of the vertebral bodies

22

A sequel of osteoporosis includes:

Kyphosis

23

a diagnosis of osoteoporosis is made based on which of the following tests?

Bone density

24

which of the following risk factors are associated with the development of osteoporosis

female gender, small light bone structures, low dietary calcium, secondary dietary calcium, secondary lifestyle

25

they major pathophysiological feature of osteoporosis is:

Gradual loss of bone mass due to bone reabsorption

26

what is a complication of rhabdomyolysis

renal failure

27

which of the following is consistent with rhabdomyolysis

breakdown of smooth muscle due to the toxins or of skeletal muscle due to the overtraining

28

which of the following laboratory results are elevated when a patient has GOUT

uric acid

29

a 24 year old male sustained a fractured femur from an MVA. Approx. 48 hour post injury has develops a sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, and anxiety which of the following pathological states is likely causing these symptoms?

fat embolism

30

a tear in a ligament is known as a:
a) strain
b) sprain
c) separation
d) spasm

b) sprain

31

the partial separation of the bones of a joint is known as:
a) subluxation
b) dislocation
c) malunion
d) nonunion

a) subluxation

32

which of the following refers to the grating sensation of bone fragments that occur in fractures.
a) rales
b) subluxation
c) crepitus
d) osteogenesis

c) crepitus

33

in which of the following complications of fractures do bone fragments heal in poor alignment?
a) Nonunion
b) malunion
c) delayed union
d) compartment syndrome

b) malunion

34

A patient has a coles fractures. This means that the fracture site is on which of the following anatomical locations?
a) elbow
b) wrist
c) ankle
d) knee

b) wrist

35

which of the following types of incomplete fractures, commonly found in children is characterized by bending of the bone resulting in fracture on only one side of a long bone?
a) Stress
b) Greenstick
c) Depressed
d) pathological

b) Greenstick

36

In which of the following types of fractures is there angulation (overriding) of the bone fragments?
a) displaced
b) Linear
c) Comminuted
d) pathological

a) displaced

37

fractures is one with multiple bone fragments?

Comminuted fractures

38

Separation of a fragment of tissue refers to

Avulsion

39

What is the causative organism of genital warts?

Human papilloma virus

40

abortion is characterized by uterine bleeding, but no loss of fetus or placenta?

Threatened abortion

41

separation of the placenta

Abruption placenta

42

Which of the following is STD’s is a systematic infection of the vascular system resulting in damage to the nervous and cardiovascular system if left untreated?

Syphilis

43

Which of the following is a severe form of pregnancy – induces hypertension that is characterized by clonic convulsions?

Eclampsia

44

placenta is implanted over the cervical os

Placenta Previa

45

consistent with ectopic pregnancy?

It is characterized by fertilized ovum implanted outside the uterine cavity

46

Bleeding between menstrual cycles is referred to as?

Metrorrhagia

47

Absence of menses is referred to as:

amenorrhea

48

of bladder control secondary to laughing coughing or sneezing is referred to as:

Stress incontinence

49

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is diagnosed by elevated prostatic specific antigen (PSA) in the blood stream

fulse

50

Patients with chronic renal failure may develop anemia. This is due to

Decrease in production of eythropoeitin needed for red blood cell production

51

What is an early sign of acute renal failure
a) Oliguria
b) Polyuria
c) Tachycardia
d) Anemia

a) Oliguria

52

Untreated prerenal failure may lead to which of the following
a) Nephrolithiasis
b) Urethral stricture
c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Anasarea

a) Nephrolithiasis

53

Which of the following contribute to prerenal failure
a) Dehydration
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Toxic drugs
d) Enlarged prostate

a) Dehydration

54

The abnormal lab consistent with renal failure is referred to as:
a) Aplasia
b) Aphronia
c) Aphrasia
d) Azotemia

d) Azotemia

55

Which of the following lab results are consistent with a diagnosis of renal failure
a) Increased hemoglobin
b) Increased PTT/INR
c) Increased BUN, Creatinine
d) Increased creatinine SGOT

c) increased BUN, Creatinine

56

Nephrotic syndrome is most likely with :
a) Diabetes
b) Cirribrosis
c) Hyperthrydoisim
d) allergies

a) diabetes

57

Which of the following is true of nephritic syndrome
a) It is the excretion of more than 2 mg of sodium per day
b) It is characterized by elevated creatinine
c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day

c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day

58

The major pathophysiologic feature of glomerulonephritis is which of the following?
a) A dilated kidney resulting in interference with urine outflow
b) Inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability
c) Thickening of the glomerular membrane resulting in decreased permeability
d) Increased filtration resulting in dehydration

b) inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability

59

Glomerular disease may be suspected in a patient with which of the following abnormal components of urine?
a) Hydrogen
b) Sodium
c) Protein
d) Nitrates

d) Nitrates

60

Glomerulonephritis is caused by :
a) Infection of the glomerulus secondary to a urinary tract infection
b) Autoimmune destruction of the glomerular membrane
c) Hydronephrosis from kidney stones
d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules

d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules

61

Hydronephrosis may occur secondary to:
a) Syphilis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Nephrolithiasis

d) nephrolithiasis

62

Which of the following are disorders that increases the risk of nephrolithiasis
a) Gout
b) Enceohalopathy
c) Beaver fever
d) Maytrophic lateral sclerosis

a) gout

63

What are signs and symptoms of renal calculi
a) Hematemesis, flank pain, oliguria
b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria
c) Contralateral flan pain, polyuria, hematuria
d) Nausea, vomiting, dysuria, melena

b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria

64

_________________ is a condition in which urine moves from the bladder back towards the kidney
a) Ureterovesirular junction
b) Parenchyma
c) Vesicoureteral reflux
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

c) Vesicoureteral reflux

65

Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis
a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the cost vertebral angle
b) Dysuria, polyuria, hematuria, paresthesia
c) Groin pain, chills, hypothermia, cloudy urine
d) Lower back pain, dysuria, low urine specific gravity

a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the costovertebral angle

66

Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of pyelonephritis?
a) It is an obstruction of the ureter resulting an enlarged kidney
b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium
c) It is characterized by damage to the glomerular membrane
d) It is characterized by acute tubular necrosis

b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium

67

Bacteria from the intestines (most commonly _____________________) often infect the urinary tract by ascending from the perineal area into the lower urinary tract.

a) Escherichia coli

68

A patient with Dysuria, frequency, suprapubic discomfort is showing signs of
a) Cysticnuria
b) Cystic fibroma
c) Cysticlerosis
d) Cystitis

d) Cystitis

69

A urine test that is positive for nitrates is indicative of which of the following?
a) Infection
b) Diabetes
c) Kidney stones
d) Renal failure

a) Infection

70

What is a normal constituent of urine?
a) Sodium
b) Casts
c) Protein
d) Epithelial cells

c) Protein