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Flashcards in test 3 Deck (128):
1

What are the adverse effects of aluminum salts?

have constipation effects (often used with magnesium to counteract constipation)

2

Which health condition should exercise caution when taking antacids containing magnesium?

dangerous when used with renal failure; the failing kidney cannot excrete extra magnesium, resulting in accumulation

3

H2 antagonists

All H2 antagonist may inhibits the absorption of drugs that require an acidic gastrointestinal environment for absorption, such as ketoconazole.

4

what may influence the effectiveness of H2 antagonists.

smoking has been shown to decrease the effectiveness of H2 blockers

5

What are important implications and considerations when a patient is taking omeprazole (Losec)?

often work best when taken 30-60 min before meals
-omeprazole should be taken whole, not crushed or chewed

6

mechanism of action of simethicone

used to reduce the discomforts of gastric or intestinal gas(flatulence)

7

the possible adverse effects and complications of the use of sodium bicarbonate

the use of sodium bicarbonate may lead to metabolic alkalosis
-metabolic alkalosis is manifested by irritability, muscle twitching, numbness and tingling, Cyanosis, slow and shallow resps, headache, thirst, nausea

8

What are possible medications given to patients with Helicobacter pylori?

given with an antibiotics ex: clarithromycin

9

Which antacid may cause kidney stones?

calcium products

10

What are some important health teachings a nurse should provide to a patient taking antacids?

administer antacids should be taken 1 to 2 hours before or after other medications

11

? What are some considerations on how the patient should take antacids?

administer at least 240 ml of water to enhance absorption

12

What are drug interactions of proton pump inhibitors?

warfarin increases the chances of bleeding (important)
- increase serum levels of diazepam and phenytoin.
-increased chance of bleeding in pt who take PPIs and warfarin. Interference with absorption of ketoconazole, ampicillin, iron salts, and digoxin.
-given with clopidogrel some concerns with an increased risk of death if diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome.

13

Do antacids coat the gastric mucosa and stop the total production of stomach acid?

No

14

What are antacid drug interactions?

Absorption of other drugs to antacids reduces the ability of other drugs to be absorbed into the body
- Antacids can decrease effects of anticholinergic anti diarrheal agents

15

Do antacids neutralize the acid once it is in the stomach?

no

16

What do you need to watch out for if giving magnesium?

If the patient has renal failure because the failing kidney cannot excrete extra magnesium resulting in accumulation

17

Aluminum has what kind of effects?

Constipation

18

The use of calcium salts may result in what?

Kidney stones

19

What are nursing implications for antiemetic agents?

- for ppl having chemotherapy, they should take the anti-emetics half an hour to 3 hours before
- monitor for therapeutic response
- monitor for adverse effects

20

Omeprazole : instruct patient to what?

-Take it before meals
- capsule should be swallowed whole
- emphasize that treatment will be short term

21

When taking methylcellulose what do you want to make sure to do?

Drink with 250ml of water

22

Does loperamide cause dependency?

No, it does not cause dependency

23

Scopolamine indications



-Given by patch to treat n&v
-has to be changed every 72 hours

24

Simethicone - what does it do?

Alters the elasticity of midis-coated bubbles, causing the gastric bubbles to break

25

Is sithethicone often used?

Yea, but there is limited data to support it's effectiveness

26


What is the only available tetrahydrocannabinal?

Dronabinol

27

Dronabinol is a synthetic derivative of what?

Marijuana

28

Tetrahydrocannabinoids such as dronabinol is used for what?

N&V associated with chemotherapy, and anorexia associated with weight loss in AIDS clients

29

What is ondansteron?

Anti-emetic

30

What is ondansteron used for?

N&V for clients receiving chemotherapy

31

H2 blockers and antihistamines are the only drugs that can what?

Stop the action of the proton pump

32

All H2 antagonist may inhibit the absorption of drugs that require what?

an acidic GI environment for absorption

33

How should a patient take bisacodyl?

-give bisacodyl with water on an empty stomach because of interactions with milk, antacids and juices

34

What are some hyperosmotic laxatives?

-polyethylene glycol
-Sorbitol, glycerin
-lactulose

35

important preparation and administration guides for bulk-forming laxatives.

-patient should take bulk-forming laxatives as directed by the manufacturer with at least 240 ml of water

36

What are drug interactions of adsorbants?

-adsorbents decrease the absorption of many drugs, including digoxin, quinidine sulphate, and hypoglycemic drugs.

37

What is polyethylene used for?

-to treat chronic constipation and to evacuate the bowels before diagnostic and surgical procedure

38

the possible adverse effects of laxatives and considerations for long-term use.

-long term use of laxatives often results in decreased bowel tone and may lead to dependency

39

what the differences are between diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) and loperamide (Imodium).

- A small dose of atropine, combined with diphenoxylate, discourages recreational use of this drug because if taken in large doses, a person will experience unpleasant anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, abdominal pain, blurred vision, and tachycardia.

40

Which laxative can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins?

-mineral oil can decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

41

How do anticholinergic drugs work?

-slow peristalsis by reducing the rhythmic contractions and smooth muscle tone of the gastrointestinal tract

42

What are adverse effects of adsorbent medications?

-increased bleeding time, constipation, dark stools, confusion, tinnitus, metallic taste, blue gums

43

use of intestinal flora modifiers (probiotics).

-supplying missing bacteria of the GI tract and suppressing the growth of diarrhea-causing bacteria

44

what are Prokinetic agents?


-Agents that promote the movement of substances through the GI tract and increases GI mobility
-Also used for GERD and delayed gastric emptying

45

What are examples of Prokinetic agents?

Metoloopramide and cisapride

46

Prokinetic agents block what?

dopamine in the CTZ

47

Are stimulants likely to cause dependencies?

Yes, if they are overused

48

Qinidine is what kind of a drug?

cardiac drug

49

What kind of drugs interact with Quinidine?

Prochlorpazine
(because they enhanvces the effects of quinidine)
(If doctor orders prochlorpazine to treat N&V but you get sick because they enhance cardiac drugs)

50

Antidiarrheal agents: Do absorbents increase or decrease the absorption of many agents such as quinidine?

Decrease

51

Antidiarrheal agents: Absorbents cause what when given with anticoagulants?

An increased bleeding time

52

Lubricants such as mineral oil can interfere with what?

absorption of fat soluble vitamins such as vitamin A, E, D &K

53

What is Polyethylene Glycol used for?

Bowel preparation before tests, surgery and colonoscopy

54

Before giving laxatives, what must you do?

- obtain history of presenting symptoms, elimination patterns, and allergies
- assess fluid and electrolytes

55

Why would clients not take laxatives or cathartic?

If they are experiencing nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

56

How do you take laxative tablets?

whole; do not crush or chew, especially if they are enteric coated

57

Clients should take all laxatives with how much water?

250ml

58

Clients who are taking laxatives should contact their physician if they experience what?

- severe abdominal pain
- muscle weakness
- cramps
- dizziness
(which may indicate possible fluid or electrolyte loss)

59

Pilocarpine is classified into the group of what?

direct-acting parasympathomimetric agents

60

the use of granisetron

-use augments the serotonin blockers and glucocorticoids to inhibits acute and delayed phases of chemotherapy-induced emesis

61

medication scopolamine.

-scopolamine is a commonly used anticholinergic

62

What are adverse effects of Serotonin blockers?

-headache, diarrhea, rash, bronchospasm, prolonged QT interval

63

What is prochlorperazine used for? What type of drug is it?

antidopaminergic drug,
-intractable hiccups

64

Understand what type of drug metoclopramide is and how it works.

-prokinetic drug
-blocks dopamine recpetors in the CTZ

65

How are antiemetics administered in relation to chemotherapy drugs?

-for chemotherapy, antiemetics are often given 30-60 mins before chemotherapy begins

66

What type of medication is ondasetron and when is it commonly used?

-Serotonin blocker
-used for nausea and vomiting in patients receiving chemotherapy and for postoperative nausea and vomiting

67

Which medications address motion sickness?

-Dimenhydrinate (gravol)

68

Describe why tetrahydrocannabinol is used?

-used for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and for anorexia associated with weight loss in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (aids) patient

69

What health teaching is important for patients taking antihistamines?

-used for motion sickness, non-productive cough, allergy symptom and sedation

70

What is Pilocarpine generally used for?
The Management of ophthalmic condition glaucoma because it causes miosis
37
Pilocarpine is also used to treat what?
-open-angle glaucoma
-angle-closure glaucoma
-ocular surgery
- convergent stravismus (cross-eye)
- ophthalmologic exams
38
Adverse effects of Pilocarpine include what?
-hypotension, bradycardia, or tachycardia
- headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, asthma attacks,
-others

The Management of ophthalmic condition glaucoma because it causes miosis

71

Pilocarpine is also used to treat what?

-open-angle glaucoma
-angle-closure glaucoma
-ocular surgery
- convergent stravismus (cross-eye)
- ophthalmologic exams

72

Adverse effects of Pilocarpine include what?

-hypotension, bradycardia, or tachycardia
- headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, asthma attacks,
-others

73

Atropine is used to treat what?

toxic effects of cholinergic drugs (e.g., pilocarpine)

74

What do Miotic drugs do?

constrict the pupil

75

What do Mydriatic drugs do?

Dilates the pupil

76

What do Cycloplegic drugs do?
paralyze the ciliary body
43
What is used to loosen and help remove cerumen in the ear?
Hydrogen peroxide
44
What is a softening agent to aid in the removal of cerumen?
Urea

paralyze the ciliary body

77

What is used to loosen and help remove cerumen in the ear?

Hydrogen peroxide

78

What is a softening agent to aid in the removal of cerumen?

Urea

79

What is otitis Media?

A middle ear infection

80

When does Otitis media usually occur?

-Most often in children, following a respiratory tract infection
- In adults, usually results from foreign objects or water sports

81

How do you cure Otitis Media?

-antibiotics, as well as a combination of hydrocortisone which reduces the inflammation and pruitis (itching)

82

What is Lidocaine?

-A local anaethetic to help in the relief of pain and itching
-Popular local anaesthetic used for ear pain

83

What is Atropine Sulfate?

dilates the pupil and paralyze the ciliary muscle
(when needed for eye diagnosed glaucoma but can also be used to treat uvelitis )

84

What is Tetracain (Minims)?

An ophthalmic anaesthetic

85

What is Closed-angle Glaucoma

Rapid loss of vision

86

What are drugs that are used to reduce intraocular pressure?

- Cholinergics, direct acting (also called miotics and parasympathomimetic drugs)
- Cholinergics, indirect acting (Also called miotics, cholinesterase inhibitors, and parasympathomimetic drugs)

87

Osmotic Diuretics create ocular hypotension by producing a what?

osmotic gradient

88

In osmotic diuretics, what happens to water?

-it is forced from the aqueous and vitreous humors into the bloodstream

89

Osmotic diuretics results in what?

reduces volume of intraocular fluid, this reduced IOP

90

When giving an eye gtt, how must the patient be?

Have them sit supine with head slightly tilted back

91

For ocular antibacterial drugs, what is the most common concern?

Renal toxicity and tinnitus

92

Eye infections may be more difficult to treat with the antibiotic if an individual is on a what?

Corticosteroid

93

What is contraindicated against administering ear drops ?

A perforated ear drum due to its damaging effects

94

What must you do to drops that are refrigerated before instilling them into the ear?
cles

Warm them up

95

What is the treatment for someone with Pediculosis?

- Nit picking or using a nit comb to go through the hair
- Medication (lindane, crotamiton)

96

What is the dermis

The layer of skin that contains the lymphatic, nerves and nerve endings, glands, and hair follicles

97

What is Isotretinoin?

An anti-acne drug rated pregnancy category X

98

When taking isotretinoin, what must you monitor?

liver function before and during therapy

99

What are Neomycin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxin B?

broad spectrum antibiotics that are available as the popular non-prescription product

100

What is Neosporin?

A commonly used topical antiseptic for minor skin wounds

101

The use of Neomycin and Polymyxin B in combination can increase the likelihood of what?

Future sensitivity of the skin

102

What is Tretinoin used for?

-To treat acne
- also used to reduce dermatological changes associated with sun damage

103

What is a adverse effect with Tretinoin?

Severe irritation and skin peeling

104

What is Silver Sulfadiazine?

topical anti-infective

105

When giving Silver Sulfadiazine, what must you remember to do?

apply a thin layer of cream to the affected area
must wear sterile gloves

106

What is the most penetrating dermatological agent to the skin?

Ointment

107

What is important to remember when obtaining a culture and sensitivity and also applying ointment or cream?

obtain the culture and sensitivity before applying the ointment because the reading will not be accurate

108

Topical fungal infections are difficult to eradicate, therapy may take how long?

several weeks to a year

109

Topical fungal infections are causes by what?
s

- Candida spp. (candidiasis)
- Dermatophytes
- Malassezia furfur (tinea versicolor)

110

What is a side effect of antihistamines?

drowsiness

111

What is Meclizine (antivert) used for?

to treat dizziness, vertigo, nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness

112

What are the routes that decongestants come in?

oral, topical and inhaled

113

What are the benefits of oral decongestants

-produces prolonged decongestion effects
- clinical problem of rebound congestion associated with topical administered drugs is almost nonexistent

114

What are the benefits of topical decongestants

-produces a potent decongestant effect with a prompt onset action
(rebound can happen)

115

What are the benefits of inhaled intranasal steroid decongestants

- used prophylactically to prevent nasal congestion in patients with chronic upper respiratory symptoms
- rebound congestion is nonexistent

116

If someone is really congested, what can you teach the patient to do?

drink warm clear fluids to decrease the viscosity of lung secretions

117

Guaifenesin (Humabid) is used for what?

Influenza, cough depressant, expectorant, and mucus cutter

118

Who would you do an IM injection into the vastus lateratus?

babies up to 36 months

119

What is included in the pharmacokinetics?

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

120

Patient with peripheral circulation problems have difficulty with what?

distribution

121

What does the abbreviation hepa stand for?

liver

122

What is included in a liver function test?

-ALT
-AST
-LDH
-ALP

123

What does the abbreviation nephron stand for?

kidney

124

What are the kidney function tests


-BUN
-Creatinine
-Urea
-GFR

125

What are Sulfanomides?

class of antibiotics

126

What is Sulfanomides usually used to treat?

UTIs

127

When taking Sulfanomides, how many fluids should you drink?

2400ml of fluids per day unless contraindicated

128

List four substances that the stomach naturally secretes.

- hydrochloric acid
-pepsinogen
-mucous bicarbonate
-intrinsic factor
-prostaglandins