Test 2 - Further Q's Flashcards
(76 cards)
1
Q
Physiological sequelae in people with cystic fibrosis include
A
- Increased amount of Cl and Na in sweat.
2
Q
The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete
A
- Glucagon
3
Q
The beta cells of the pancreas secrete
A
- Insulin
4
Q
The delta cells of the pancreas secrete
A
- Somatasim
5
Q
A key function of the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) is to:
A
- Increase pancreatic enzyme secretion into the duodenum
6
Q
Pancreatic protease enzymes act to
A
- Break down large protein complexes in the small intestine
7
Q
Pancreatic peptidase enzymes act to:
A
- Breakdown small-proteins into A.A in the small intestine
8
Q
Which of the following three compounds are all fully digestible
A
- Sucrose, maltose and amylopectin starch
9
Q
What starch isn’t fully digestible?
A
- Amylose starch. Because of its tightly packed helical structure, amylose is more resistant to digestion than other starch molecules and is therefore an important form of resistant starch
10
Q
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to resistant starch (RS)?
A
- Foods high in amylose starch will often contain increased levels of RS
11
Q
Carbohydrate digestion commences in the ____________ and is mostly completed in the ____________
A
- Oral cavity, small intestine
12
Q
Key differences between Protein-Energy-Malnutrition (PEM) conditions of Kwashiorkor and Marasmus include:
A
- A rapid change in diet from mother’s milk to one consisting of staples such as corn and rice, combined with a severe bacterial infection is typical in Kwashiorkor; while Marasmus is the result of chronic, long lasting PEM
13
Q
What are the two ketogenic amino acids and why?
A
- Leucine and Lysine
- as they are degraded into the precursors for ketone body synthesis, acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate.
14
Q
Body protein regulation in the post-prandial period after a meal involves:
A
Increased amino acid transport into insulin-sensitive peripheral tissues
15
Q
Release of _______ from ______cells in the pancreas is decreased
after a meal to help decrease elevated blood sugar levels?
A
- Glucagon / Alpha
16
Q
Release of _______ from ______cells in the pancreas is increased
after a meal to help decrease blood sugar levels?
A
- Insulin / Beta
17
Q
Somatassim is triggered by?
A
- Insulin released from the beta cells. To halt release.
18
Q
Type 2 diabetes is characterized by:
A
Decreased (relative) insulin secretion and insulin resistance
19
Q
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:
A
- Little or no insulin release
- In ketoacidosis from consistent gluconeogenesis occurring
20
Q
Inactive pancreatic enzymes are activated by ____________ within the small intestine.
A
- Enterokinase – A enzyme that is released from the duodenum that make inactive enzymes active.
21
Q
A key function of insulin is to:
A
- Decrease gluconeogenesis
22
Q
A key function of gluconeogenesis is to:
A
- Create glucose and raise blood glucose levels.
23
Q
Humans cannot digest_______ because we lack enzymes to break down _____-glycosidic bonds.
A
- Cellulose, beta
24
Q
Absorption of monosaccharides from absorptive epithelial cells into the blood (i.e. across the basolateral membrane) involves
A
- Facilitated diffusion for fructose.
- Active diffusion for glucose and galactose.
25
De novo lipogenesis can be defined as:
- The synthesis of fatty acids from glucose
26
Amino acid degradation involves:
- The process of deamination and formation of ammonia
- Deamination:
o Removal of NH2 (Amino)
o Creation of ammonia that creates urea in the liver.
Urea is excreted by the kidney
27
Absorption of dietary proteins involves:
- Secondary active transport of amino acids, di- and tri-peptides
28
The tertiary structure of a protein refers to:
- The three dimensional geometric shape of the complete protein unit
29
In order to assume maximum stability, protein shapes are organised such that:
- hydrophobic groups are located away from water (water fearing)
30
The action of hydrochloric acid in the stomach on protein results in:
- denaturation (untangling)
31
n example of an individual most likely to be in a negative nitrogen balance includes:
- a burns' victim (ANY MUSCULE WASTING)
32
Where is urea formed?
- The Liver. Then transports to the Kidneys.
33
The concept of complementary proteins relates to:
- the process of combining two or more incomplete proteins which have a low biological value, and when combined contain all essential amino acids.
34
How can the effect of protein on adult bone loss be characterised?
- An excessive protein intake leads to calcium excretion.
35
The protein content of legumes has:
- a high biological value and digestibility
36
The protein RDI for a healthy adult male is
- 0.84g/KG
37
Which of the following statements would be true of an individual who has PKU?
- Tyrosine would become a conditionally essential amino acid.
- Cannot convert phenylalanine into tyrosine.
38
Which of the following features is not common in both kwashiorkor and marasmus?
- Oedema
o Marasmus: Severe weight loss and muscle wasting due to lack of nutrition and calories.
o Kwashiorkor: Swelling or edema due to water retention from lack of protein
39
Which protective mechanism helps to prevent erosion in the stomach?
- Mucus secretion. Lines parental cells.
40
A person who has a history of gastrointestinal problems related to indigestion and heartburn might have problems with the:
- lower oesophageal sphincter
41
For nutrients that are first absorbed into the lymphatic system, eventually enter the vascular system via the:
- thoracic duct of the heart
42
Which gastrointestinal hormone is released in response to fat in the diet?
- Cholecystokinin
43
Carbohydrate digestion is initiated in which target organ?
- Mouth
44
Prebiotics can be described as:
- fibre-containing foods used by bacteria in the large intestine to encourage microbial growth and production of short-chain fatty acids
45
Which two actions help to propel a bolus of food through the digestive tract?
- P & S
46
-Which gastrointestinal hormone is released by the stomach cells in response to appetite?
Ghrelin
47
Which of the following carbohydrates is absorbed by facilitated diffusion?
- Fructose
48
Which of the following carbohydrates is absorbed by active diffusion?
- Glucose & Galactose.
49
An example of a highly branched polysaccharide molecule includes
- Amylopectin (Is highly branched.) Indigestable.
50
Important role and function characteristics of insoluble fibre include:
- fibre that is non-viscous, less readily fermented and promotes bowel movements
51
An example of a type of soluble fibre includes:
- Pectin (Fruits)
52
Important role and function characteristics of soluble fibre include:
- Fibre is relatively indigestible, it adds bulk to the faeces. Soluble fibre soaks up water like a sponge, which helps to bulk out the faeces and allows it to pass through the gut more easily. It acts to slow down the rate of digestion
53
The action of bacterial enzymes on fibre in the large intestines causes:
- the release of short-chain fatty acids
54
Prediabetes can be defined as a serum blood glucose of:
- 6.1 to 7 mmol/L
55
Diabetes can be defined as a serum blood glucose of:
- Greater than 7mmol/L
56
If an individual has not eaten for most of the day, which mechanism is triggered to maintain blood glucose
- Glucagon
57
Where does the majority of carbohydrate digestion occur?
- Small intestine.
58
What is the consequence of oligosaccharides not digested in the small intestine?:
- they pass into the large intestine and are fermented by bacteria, resulting in the production of intestinal gas
59
Exocrine cells of the pancreas secrete:
- Amylase and lipase
60
A key defining underlying problem in people with _________diabetes is _______________?
Type 2, increased insulin resistance in skeletal muscle
61
A key function of glucagon is to:
- Increase gluconeogenesis in the liver
62
In order of decreasing size, which three compartments represent the masses of stored carbohydrate in the body?
- Muscle glycogen, liver glycogen, blood glucose
63
In response to postprandial insulin stimulation, expression of the GLUT4 transporter in the plasma membrane of skeletal muscle cells are _________ to promote ________ glucose transport
- Increased, increased
64
Which of the following conditions would represent a state of negative nitrogen balance?
- Cachexia (muscle wasting)
65
Which of the following situations causes a decrease in the free amino acid pool in cells of the body?
- The synthesis of body proteins from amino acids
66
During short-term fasting (<48 hours), protein degradation to amino acids will predominantly occur in the:
- Skeletal muscle
67
The key function of pancreatic bicarbonate (HCO3-) is to:
Increase the pH of chyme and acid entering the duodenum
68
During the post-prandial state (i.e. following meal ingestion), which pathways in the liver increase?
- Glycogen synthesis and glycolysis
69
Just following consumption of a meal containing carbohydrates, levels of glucagon _____________, while levels of insulin ______________.
- Decrease, increase
70
The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete:
Glucagon
71
In the period immediately following a high carbohydrate-containing meal:
- Rates of glycogen synthesis increase in both liver and skeletal muscle
72
In relation to dietary fibre, which of the following statements is correct?
- Soluble fibres ingested can slow digestion and absorption in the small intestine
73
Fructose is absorbed via:
- GLUT transporters
74
Digestion of dietary protein involves:
- Activation of pepsin from pepsinogen via hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach
75
Which of the following would represent a state of positive protein balance?
- High energy intake in a growing adolescent
76
Transamination involves:
- The transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to an alpha keto acid to form a second amino acid
