Test 2 Lab Flashcards
(180 cards)
0
Q
the time period between cell division where the cell grows, uses energy and undergoes its normal, active life
A
interphase
1
Q
The series of events that a cell undergoes throughout its life
A
cell cycle
2
Q
what are the stages that interphase is broken into?
A
G1, S, G2
3
Q
the most efficient growth period of the cell. Here the cell is using nutrients. lasts about 8-10 hours
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G1
4
Q
checkpoint that makes sure the cell is large enough to divide and has all of the nutrients present
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G1 checkpoint
5
Q
this is the phase that the cell is in most of the time
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G1
6
Q
where centrioles and centromeres begin replicating
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late G1
7
Q
This is the phase where DNA replication occurs and the amount of DNA doubles
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S phase
8
Q
how long does the S phase last
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6-8 hours
9
Q
what does the S phase checkpoint check for?
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if DNA replicated properly
10
Q
shortest stage. here the cell is still growing , metabolizing, and manufacturing proteins. cells move into mitosis from here
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G2
11
Q
how long does G2 last?
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2-46 hours
12
Q
what does the G2 checkpoint check for?
A
cell size and proper DNA replication
13
Q
what are the two types of cells and what are the differences between them?
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somatic cells - main body cells, undergo mitosis
gamete/sex/germ cells - sexual reproduction cells, undergo meiosis
14
Q
genes that tell the cell to divide - “accelerator genes”
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oncogenes
15
Q
tell the cell not to divide - the “brakes” of the cell - give some examples
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tumor suppressor genes
p53, p21, p27, p57
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Q
“suicide” genes
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apoptosis genes
17
Q
code for DNA repair enzymes
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DNA repair genes
18
Q
what is the difference between karyokinesis and cytokinesis?
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karyokinesis is nuclear division while cytokinesis is cell division
19
Q
in terms of karyokinesis and cytokinesis, what to multinucleate cells undergo and what don’t they?
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they undergo karyokinesis, but not cytokinesis
20
Q
division of somatic cells
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mitosis
21
Q
what does it mean that a cell is 2n?
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it is diploid
22
Q
2n -> 46
what does n stand for?
A
the number of sets of chromosomes
23
Q
what is meiosis?
A
division in sex cells (sperm and egg)
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what does meiosis produce?
a daughter cell with half the amount of DNA of the parent cell - DNA is reduced from 2 sets to 1
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2n = 46 -> n=23
| what does this represent?
meiosis
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microtubules that radiate around each centriole at the end of each cell that hold the apparatus into place
astral microtubules
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attach to the centromere on the chromosome and are involved in seperating and moving chromosomes. they are coated in kinetochore proteins
kinetochore microtubules
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do not interact with the centriole, they attach the centriole to centriole and shorten the length of the cell
polar microtubules or non-kinetochore microtubules
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identical strands of DNA pined at a centromere by DNA Replication
chromatids
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when determining the amount of chromosomes, what should be counted?
the centromeres, not the chromatids
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during which phase of the cell cycle does mitosis occur?
M phase
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why is the chromosome number reduced by half in meiosis?
so that when the nuclei of gametes unite in fertilization, the diploid number is restored
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charts that show an individuals chromosome number
karyotypes
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chromosomes 1-22
autosomes
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homologous chromosomes
chromosomes of the same size that contain the same genes
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different molecular forms of a gene
alleles
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segment of DNA that codes for 1 protein
gene
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what are the two stages of meiosis?
stage 1 - Reduction Division - reduce the number of chromosomes
stage 2 - cell division
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what occurs during prophase 1?
DNA is already replicated, sister chromatids are joined at the centromere and chromatin condenses. Synapsis occurs forming a tetrad, crossing over occurs
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pairing of homologous chromosomes
synapsis
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what occurs during metaphase 1?
the homologous chromosomes line up at the equator. This is facilitated by the spindle fibers and the centrioles
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what occurs during anaphase 1?
the homologous chromosomes are pulled apart, separating the tetrad
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what happens in telophase 1?
after the new nuclear membrane forms, cytokinesis occurs
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what occurs in meiosis 2?
mitosis
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what occurs in prophase of mitosis?
the nuclear membrane breaks down and chromatin condenses
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what occurs in metaphase 2 of mitosis?
the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (equator), the spindle fibers attach at the centromeres
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what happens during anaphase of mitosis?
the centromere is replicated, the kinetochore shortens and pulls the sister chromatids towards the poles
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what happens in telophase of mitosis?
each cell forms a new nuclear membrane and each cell goes through cytokinesis
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the ability of heart muscles to contract on their own
automaticity
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what do the special fibers in the myocardium do?
they rapidly conduct electricity across the muscle tissue and cause the heart to contract
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why does the atria contract first and then the ventricles?
so that each chamber can fill completely before emptying into the next
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what initiates all chamber contractions?
a single, common impulse that starts at the sinoatrial node
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starts the sequence of depolarization and repolarization
sinoartrial node
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how fast does the sinoatrial node cause the heart to beat?
60-80 beats per minute
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the synchronization of the stimulation and contraction of the heart cells
syncytium
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situated between the atrium and the venticle, it allows for a slightly slower transmission of the impulse to the ventricles
atrioventricular node
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why does the AV node slow the transmpission of the impuls to the ventricles?
so that the atrium can empty and the ventricles can fill before the ventricles contract
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how much does the AV node slow the electrical impulse from the SA node?
it slows it to 1/25 of the original signal or by about .2 seconds
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what is the path of an electrical impulse in the heart?
SA node, AV node, AV bundle (bundle of His), Bundle branches, purkinje fibers
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when ventricles start the relaxation phase
ventricular diastole
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these produce electrical signals
rhythm generators
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these spread the pacemakers signal
conductors
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cells that mechanically pump the blood
contractile cells (myocardium)
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what happens to the cells once the electrical signal of depolarization reaches them?
they contract
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when the repolarization signal reaches the myocardial cells, what happens to them?
they relax
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how does the sympathetic system effect the heart?
it speeds it up, increasing the contractile force when more oxygen is needed
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how does the parasympathetic system effect the heart
it slows it, when you are relaxed, the parasympathetic system is in control
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a straight line on the ECG that occurs before cardiac cycles of depolarization and reploarization
baseline/isoelectric line
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represents atrial depolarization
P wave
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result of ventricular depolarization and indicates the start of ventricular contraction
QRS complex
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result of ventricular repolarization and signals the beginning of ventricular relaxation
T waves
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why don't you see an electrical signal for repolarization
because the QRS complex is larger and masks it
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segment of an ECG that contains at least one wave and a straight line
interval
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periods of time from the end of one T wave to the begging of the next
segments
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according to the biopac lab manual what is the average resting heart rate for adults?
70 beats/minute
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what is a lead?
the arrangement of the positive and negative electrodes with relation to the ground electrode
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who are slower heart rates typical for?
those who regularly exercise, they can be as low as 50 beats per minute
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left ventricular hypertrophy
when athletes develop larger hearts and larger left ventricles
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trace a drop of blood through the heart
superior/inferior vena cava, right atrium, through right AV valve, right ventricle, through pulmonary valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, ascending aorta, body, vena cavae
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period on the ECG when the atria are depolarizing
P wave
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period on the ECG when the ventricles are repolarizing
T wave
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Period on the ECG when the ventricles are depolarizing, preceding their contraction
QRS wave
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An abnormally slow heartbeat, slower than 60 beats/minute
Bradycardia
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a condition in which the heart is uncoordinated and useless as a pump
fibrillation
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an abnormally rapid heartbeat, more than 100 beats/minute
tachycardia
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damage to the AV node, totally or partially releasing the ventricles from the control of the SA node
heart block
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chest pain, resulting from ischemia of the myocardium
angina pectoris
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what is the equation for cardiac output?
CO = HR x SV
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what is the average stroke volume for adults?
70 mL/beat
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what is Starling's Law?
the critical factor that determines the stroke volume (force of the heart beat) is the degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle just before it contracts, consequently the force of heartbeat can be increased by increasing the amount of blood returned to the heart
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which side of the heart is failing if pulmonary congestion occurs?
the left side
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the pumping action of the healthy heart ordinarily maintains a balance between what two things?
cardiac output and venous return
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what do the QRS and T wave have in common?
they show the electrical activity of the ventricles
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what happens to the valves during ventricular systole?
the AV valves are closed and the SL valves are opened
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what are some functions of blood in the body?
transport, protection, and regulation
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what things does blood transport?
Oxygen to cells and CO2 away, nutrients from the digestive system to cells, waste from cells to excretory systems, stem cells from bone marrow to other body parts
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how is blood involved in protection?
inflammation, white blood cells destroy pathogens, antibodies neutralize pathogens and toxins, platelets initiate blood clotting
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how does blood function in regulation?
regulates body fluids, stabilizes pH of extracellular fluid, regulates body temperature
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what are the formed elements of blood?
erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes
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what are the parts of blood plasma and what are their percentages?
water - 92%
plasma proteins - 7%
dissolved solids - 1.5%
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what are the types of plasma proteins?
albumins, globulins, fibrinogen
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small plasma proteins that provide osmotic pressure for blood and blood viscosity or resistance to flow
albumins
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most diverse plasma proteins, used to make antibodies and at transport proteins
globulins
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plasma proteins used for clotting
fibrinogen
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4.8 - 5.4 million of these blood cells in the body
erythrocytes
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what is the circulating life of erythrocytes, and what is their function
~120 days. They function in hemoglobin production and oxygen transport
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non-cellular fragments of blood that function in blood clotting
platelets
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large, amoeboid blood cells that function in protection
leukocytes
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what is the number/mm^3 of platelets and leukocytes and what is their circulating lifespan
platelets - 250,000 - 400,000 - 9 days
| leukocytes - 5,000 - 10,000 - varies
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modified monocytes in the liver and spleen that phagocytically remove dead blood cells and particles
kupfer cells
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what are the 5 types of leukocytes and what are their concentrations in the blood?
```
neutrophils 60-70%
lymphocytes 25-30%
monocytes 3-8%
eosinophils 2-4%
basophils <1%
```
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what are the granular leukocytes
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
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what are the agranular leukocytes?
lymphocytes and monocytes
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highly phagocytic and aggressive during early bacterial infection - leukocytes
neutrophils
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leukocytes that dampen allergic reactions by secreting antihistamins - they also protect against parasitic worms
eosinophils
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leukocytes that trigger allergic reactions by secreting histamines
basophils
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leukocytes that provide immunity
lymphocytes
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leukocytes that are highly phagocytic - most aggressive - during bacterial infections
monocytes
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what is the name for the disease where a person has too little white blood cells, and what is the disease where they have too many
too little - leukopenia
| too many - leukemia
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a measure of the red blood cell content of an individual's blood
hematocrit
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anemia
low red blood cell count
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why might a person experiencing anemia have low energy or stamina?
lack of oxygen that is carried to the tissues
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what proportion of a hematocrit is the plasma, and what is the plasma
the plasma is the liquid portion - 55%
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what are the solid portions of the hematocrit
the buffy coat (white blood cells and platelets) and the red blood cells
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how can you determine the hematocrit?
by spinning a capillary tube containing blood in a centrifuge
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how does the Rh factor of blood operate?
on general dominance and recessiveness of alleles
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what makes an Rh group positive or negative?
if the D antigen is present on the surface of the red blood cell, the cell is Rh+, if the D antigen is absent it is Rh-
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in terms of Rh blood types, what is dominant and what is recessive?
the presence of the D antigen, or RH+ is dominant to the lack of the D antigen or RH-
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why is it dangerous for a woman to be RH- and carry an RH+ baby?
the woman's body could build antibodies against the Rh factor in the baby's blood and cause the baby to abort.
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HDN
a hemolytic disease of the newborn when the baby is born with anemia due to the mother's antigen destroying the blood cells
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what can Rh- women take if they are at risk for building antibodies against their fetus's Rh+ blood, and how does this work?
they can take RhoGAM which binds to fetal red blood cell antigens so that they won't stimulate the mother to make antigens against it
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what is the ABO blood group based on?
glycoportien that is antigenic on the surface of RBC
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what genes are involved in the ABO blood group?
dominance, recessiveness, and codominance
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when do antibodies in the blood that react to antigens on the surface of blood show up?
between 2-8 months after birth in response to intestinal flora
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what are the main targets of neutrophils?
bacteria and fungi
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what are the main targets of eosinophils?
parasites and allergic reactions
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what are the main targets of basophils
allergic reactions
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what are the main types of lymphocytes
B cells target various pathogens, T cells target extracellular bacteria broken down into peptides presented by MHC class 2 molecule, virus infected and tumor cells
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what are the main targets of CD4+ or helper T cells?
extracellular bacteria broken down into peptide molecules presented by MHC class 2 molecule
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what are the main targets of CDB+ cytotoxic T cells
virus infected and tumor cells
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what are the main targets of natural killer cells
virus infect and tumor cells
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how long do neutrophils live
6 hours - a few days
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how long do eosinophils live?
8-12 days
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how long do lymphocytes live?
weeks - years
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how long do monocytes live?
hours - days
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what are the main targets of monocytes?
monocytes migrate from the bloodstream to other tissues and differentiate into tissue resident macrophages or dendritic cells
147
what are the divisions of the respiratory system?
conducting division and respiratory division, the upper respiratory tract and the lower respiratory tract
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what are the conducting divisions of the respiratory tract?
the passages that serve for airflow - the nostrils, trachea, major bronchioles, etc
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what are the respiratory divisions of the respiratory tract?
the gas exchange regions of distal passageway - alveoli
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what is the upper respiratory tract?
the regions of the head and neck
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what is the lower respiratory tract?
the trachea through the lungs
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air moving in and out of the lungs
pulmonary ventilation
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one complete breath in and out
respiratory cycle
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moving air into and out of the lungs
breathing or ventilation
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exchanging gases between the air in the lungs and the blood
external respiration
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transport of oxygen to the body cells and the return of CO2
gas transport by blood
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exchanging gases between the blood and the body cells
internal respiration
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using the oxygen in cell processes and the production of CO2
cellular respiration
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relaxed and automatic breathing
quiet respiration
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forced respiration
occurs when you are exercising, coughing, or other types of deep breathing
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what are the inspiratory muscles?
external intercostals and diaphragm
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what happens to the thoracic cavity during inspiration?
the diaphragm is pushed down and becomes flat (contracts), the rib cage expands outward, the thoracic cavity enlarges, volume increases, pressure decreases, gases rush into the lungs to fill the partial vacuum that is created
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what happens to the thoracic cavity in expiration?
the diaphragm relaxes (curved), the rib cage pushes in, lungs recoil, intrapulmonary volume decreases, pressure increases, air rushes out
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the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume assuming a constant temperature
boyle's lwa
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the volume of a given quantity of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature assuming a constant pressure
charles's law
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the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases
daltons law
167
at the air-water interface, the amount of gas that dissolves in water is deteremined by its solubility in water and its partial pressure in the air, assuming a constant temp
henrys law
168
what is the equation for the combined gas law?
PV/T = P1V1/T1
| temp is in K
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how to find K
K = C + 273
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spirometer
a device that can measure respiratory volumes
171
amount of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath under resting conditions and how much is it?
tidal volume = 500 mL
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amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation and how much is it?
inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) = 3100 mL
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amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation and how much is it?
1200 mL = expiratory reserve volume ERV
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maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration and how much is it?
vital capacity (VC) = 4800 mL
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what does carbon dioxide react with in the blood to make an acid? what is this acid?
it reacts with water to make carbonic acid
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what does carbonic acid dissociate into?
H+ and bicarbonate
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how are hydrogen ions buffered with regards to the respiratory system?
they react with hemoglobin, which causes an electrical imbalance to build up in the RBCs pulling Cl- into the blood cells from the plasma (chloride shift)
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type of ventilation that causes alkalinity
hyperventilation causes people to take in more oxygen than normal which can decrease the carbon dioxide in the blood and cause the blood to become basic
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what type of ventilation causes acidity?
hypoventilation
