Test 2 Pregnancy & Prenatal Flashcards

(123 cards)

1
Q

Which vaccine is a Live vaccine needed before pregnancy

A

MMR

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2
Q

White people need Preconception testing for which disease esp.

Blacks

A

Cystic Fibrosis

1 in 25

Sickle cell

1 in 12

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3
Q

Which vitamin is needed prenatal

Why?

Dosage…

A

Folic acid B9

Neural tube defects (Spinal Bifida)

400 micrograms

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4
Q

1st trimester anticipated weight gain

A

4 lbs

Food aversion makes many women lose weight 1st trimester

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5
Q

Tay-Sachs
Canavan
Familial dysautonomia
Gaucher’s
Nieman-Pick
Maple syrup urine

Prenatal screening for which ethnic group?

A

Ashkenazi Jews

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6
Q

Hemoglobin E/beta thalassemia disease

Which ethnic group Prenatal Screening

A

Southeast Asian

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7
Q

Underweight
Normal
Over
Obese

How much weight in 2nd and 3rd tri should each category gain?

How much weight should each category gain per week

A

Underweight 28 - 40
Normal 25 - 35
Over 15 - 25
Obese 11 - 20

Underweight 1
Normal 1
Over 0.6
Obese 0.5

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8
Q

Fertile window starts ___ days prior to ovulation and ends on the day of ovulation - (egg is released from an ovary and into the fallopian tube during a woman’s menstrual cycle)

A

5 days prior to ovulation

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9
Q

Assume 28 day cycle

Which day is ovulation?

Which days are Fertile?

A

Ovulation day 14

Fertile around day 9

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10
Q

Early preggers HCG Human Chorionic Gonadotropin is produced by the trophoblastic cells surrounding the embryo

HCG doubles every 48 - 72 hrs.

<6,000 hcg levels increase by atleast ___ % every 2-3 days

Hcg levels that don’t rise properly can lead to….

A

60

Miscarriage

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11
Q

Pregnancy test measure Hcg and are 97% accurate

How quickly?

A

1 week after fertilization

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12
Q

Signs felt by early preggers

A

Thirsty
Vivid dreams
Missed period
Increase sense of smell
FOOD AVERSIONS
Sad
Breast change
Increase urination
Cramps
Nausea
Fatigue
Increase Body Temp

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13
Q

Objective signs of preggers

Compressibility and softening of cervical isthmus. (Portion of cervix between uterus & vaginal portion of cervix)

A

Hegar sign

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14
Q

Hegar

A

Objective signs of preggers

Compressibility and softening of cervical isthmus. (Portion of cervix between uterus & vaginal portion of cervix)

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15
Q

Goodwill Sign

A

Softening of vaginal portion of cervix from increased vascularity

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16
Q

Normal RR in preggers

HR

What happens with BP

Cardiac output?

A

12 - 24

Up to 110

Lower BP

Cardiac output Doubles

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17
Q

Are varicose & spider veins expected during preggers

How about dizzy / fainting

A

Yeppers

They happen

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18
Q

Softening of cartilage caused by ______ allows for Body to adapt to growing baby and gives woman a Pregnancy Waddle

A

Rise progesterone

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19
Q

Ligament that connects Uterus to Labia Majora ……

Pain in the area gets worse each pregnancies BURNING CRAMP

A

Round ligament pain

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20
Q

Increase or Decrease

WBC
Clotting factors
Plasma

A

WBC UP
Clotting factors UP
Plasma UP - Result Dilution Anemia- RBC Stays the same and plasma volume increases

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21
Q

Values

Non preggers

Hemoglobin 13.3
Hemocrit 38 - 45
WBC 4 - 11
Fibrinogen 300
Platelets 140 - 440

A

Hemoglobin 11
Hemocrit 32 - 34
WBC 6 - 14
Fibrinogen 450
Platelets 150 - 400

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22
Q

Chloasma ….

A

Mask of preggers

Due to increased Perfusion & Vascularness to skin (Releases Heat)

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23
Q

Linea Nigra….

A

Hypermelanosis up the abdomen

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24
Q

Why Hydronephrosis (excess fluid in a kidney due to a backup of urine)
in 90-95% of women?

A

Increased Perfusion to kidneys
Increase GFR/ Urine output

Ureter compression from the uterus

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25
Stress incontence happens from...
Decreased bladder tone
26
Describe Gastrointestinal Adaptation
Decreases smooth muscle relaxation / Decreased Peristalsis Increased N/V Heartburn Constipation Hemorroides Gallstones
27
______ increases prolactin Thyroid, increases thyroxine increases _____ Parathyroid does... Ovaries / Placenta...
Pituitary Gland Basal metabolic rate Increases PTH for increased calcium & phosphorus Increases Estrogen, Progesterone, Relaxin
28
Fundus height continues to rise until ... Reasons for a higher fundal height? Lower? Typically which week does it stop growing
Fetus engages in Pelvis prior to delivery High fundal height = Multiple babies, big baby, Molar Preggers (tumor that develops in the uterus as a result of a nonviable pregnancy) Lower: IUGR Intrauterine growth restriction, SGA, Fetal demise 36th week
29
Fundal height between 20th - 36th week
Matches number of weeks
30
A variation of ___cm could suggest an issue with fetal dev
2cm
31
Are painful breast and nipples ever normal in preggers
Yes esp in 1st trimester
32
Psychological Adpation 1st 2nd 3rd
1st Ambivalent/ Focuses on herself 2nd ID with mother role, Reorder personal relationships 3rd: Prepare for birth, fantasy about baby, Nesting
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1st trimester Week 1 - 4 Weeks 3 - 8 Week 5 - 8 9 - 12
Week 1 - 4 Implantation 3rd week primitive heart beat Weeks 3 - 8 All major organs formed Week 5 - 8 Heart begins to pump Arms & legs bud Facial features begin to form 9 - 12 Extremities developed External Genital differentiate
34
Weeks most susceptible to Teratogens
3 - 8
35
2nd Trimester 13 - 16 17 - 20 21 - 24 25 - 28
13 - 16 Fetus begins to move Urine formation begins 17 - 20 Meconium begins collecting in bowels 21 - 24 Skin wrinkled, red, vernix, lanugo 25 - 28 Eyes partially opened Resp. System still immature
36
3rd trimester 29 - 32 33 - 36 37 - 40
29 - 32 Toe nails & testies descended 33 - 36 Skin thicker, Fat accumulation, Excelente chance of survival 37 - 40 Baby gains fat Nails extend beyond nail bed
37
Wharton's Jelly
Gelatinous mucosal tissue that cushions and insulated the umbilical cord vessels
38
Umbilical cord shunts Deoxygenated blood where
Placenta
39
3 structures shunt blood away...
Ductus arteriosus Foramen Ovale Ductus venosus
40
Prenatal care 1st trimester: First Visit to confirm pregnancy? May include US 2ND: Follow up every ___ weeks. US scheduled at ____ weeks. 3rd: Follow up visit every 2 weeks once mom is ____ weeks pregnant. After ____ weeks it is weekly visit
1st: between 8 - 10 weeks 2nd: Follow up every 4 weeks past initial visit. Anatomy US is scheduled between 18 - 20 weeks. 3rd: Follow up visit every 2 weeks once 28 weeks. After 36 weeks it's weekly visit
41
First trimester: Weeks _____ Second trimester: Weeks _____ Third trimester: Weeks _____
First trimester: Weeks 1–12 Second trimester: Weeks 13–26 Third trimester: Weeks 27–40
42
1st visit What happens
Prenatal panel Pelvic exam Confirm pregnancy H&P Abuse screening STI
43
STI Often no symptoms Cervical culture Blood test, VDRL, RPR Molecular testing or Wet prep slide of vaginal discharge
OK
44
How to lower risk of giving HVI to new born
Antivirals during preggers C/S No breastfeeding
45
State Naegales rule...
Based on 28 day cycle Subtract 3 months from 1st day of previous Menstrual Period & Add 7 days
46
Caloric increase needed by trimester
1st None 2nd 340/day 3rd 450/day
47
Foods to avoid
Shark,swordfish, king mackerel, tile fish. Lunch meat / hotdogs unless steaming hot Soft cheese unless made with pasteurized milk Pate, meat spread, smoked seafood Unpasteurized milk, dairy, cider Max 12 oz shrimp, salmon, pollock, catfish, and canned tuna per week
48
Iron Standard dose.... Special case dose... Tips...
30mg Ferrous Sulfate 2nd & 3rd Tri If anemic take 60 - 120mg Cannot be supplied completely by diet Take on empty stomach Take with OJ to help absorption Don't Take with calcium supplements, milk, tea, coffee decreases absorption
49
Foods that contain iron
Meats, green leafy veg, eggs, grain, enriched products, dried fruits, tofu, legumes, nuts
50
Preggers is an immunosuppressed state True or False
True
51
Which vaccines are safe to get when preggers... Which are strong NO
Covid, Flu, Tdap HPV, MMR, VARICELLA, ZOSTER Others are maybe
52
Fetal Testing Ultrasound Type of test (Screening/ Diagnostic) How it works? Preformed when?
Screening Visible build up of fluid on neck maybe sign of a disorder 11 - 14 weeks
53
Amniocentesis Screening or Diagnostic test What does... Needle through belly extracts amniotic fluid Performed at....
Diagnostic ID chromosomal abnormalities, inherited, and spinal column / brain defects Performed at 15 - 20 weeks
54
Chorionic Villus Sampling CVS Screening or Diagnostic How is it performed? What it does..... Performed at.... Risks....
Diagnostic Tissue from the placenta check for genetic or chromosomal abnormalities in a fetus. ID chromosomal & inherited diseases Performed 10 - 12 weeks Risk miscarriage 1 out of 500. Bigger risk than amniocentesis 1 out of 1,000
55
Maternal blood test. Also allows for chromosomal abnormalities screening Maternal blood contains fetal DNA which passes through the placenta Performed at.... Detects 99% of Downs - up to 50% of positives are false
10 weeks or later
56
Fetal test...
NIPT : Innatal, Maternity21 blood test that analyzes fetal DNA in the mother’s blood to screen for chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13. Purpose: It’s non-invasive and provides early risk assessment for genetic conditions, typically performed as early as 10 weeks into pregnancy. Maternal Serum AFP level of alpha-fetoprotein, a protein produced by the fetal liver, in the mother’s blood. Purpose: High or low levels may indicate neural tube defects (like spina bifida), abdominal wall defects, or chromosomal abnormalities. It’s usually part of the second-trimester quad screen. CVS placental tissue (chorionic villi) is removed for testing. Purpose: 10-13 weeks Detect chromosomal or genetic disorders, such as cystic fibrosis or Down syndrome. Amniocentesis 15-20 weeks to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities, neural tube defects, and genetic conditions. fetal lung maturity in later pregnancy if preterm delivery is being considered. BPP Biophysical profile five factors—fetal heart rate, breathing movements, body movements, muscle tone, and amniotic fluid level 3rd trimester NST monitors the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements using external monitoring 3rd trimester
57
Why are the first & second ultrasound performed
1st Confirm IUP Intrauterine pregnancy 2nd Anatomy Scan
58
GTT Fasting 1 hr and possibly 3 hr repeat test for gestational diabetes in ___ trimester
2nd
59
Blood test
CBC T&S Rubella HIV VDRL/RPR Hep B HSV 1&2
60
GBS Culture when What if positive
35 - 37 weeks / vag & rectum If positive mom recieves PCN while in active labor Q4H until delivery First dose 5 million units & additional dose 2.5 million units
61
Why call a provider if patient has Headache not helped by tylenol Visual disturbances SOB & RUQ pain
Preeclampsia
62
Prenatal panel (10)
Blood Type and Rh Factor: Determines the mother’s blood type (A, B, AB, or O) and Rh status (positive or negative) to assess the risk of Rh incompatibility with the fetus. Complete Blood Count (CBC): Measures hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red and white blood cell counts to check for anemia, infections, and overall blood health. Rubella Immunity: Tests for immunity to rubella (German measles), as a rubella infection during pregnancy can cause birth defects. Hepatitis B and C Screening: Checks for hepatitis B and C infections that could affect the fetus. HIV Screening: Screens for HIV, as early treatment can reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission. Syphilis Screening: Tests for syphilis, which can be treated during pregnancy if detected early. Varicella Immunity: Tests for immunity to chickenpox, which can cause complications if contracted during pregnancy. Urine Culture: Checks for urinary tract infections (UTIs), protein, glucose, or ketones, which could indicate gestational diabetes or other concerns. Cystic Fibrosis Screening: Offers genetic testing to see if the mother is a carrier of cystic fibrosis. Thyroid Function Tests: Checks thyroid hormone levels, as thyroid dy
63
Taylor Sachs disease Describe
Degenerative neurological Die young
64
Obese women usually (Gain or Lose) weight during preggers
Lose
65
How long can sperm live in women's reproductive tract
Up to five days
66
Chemical pregnancy...
Pregant according to the Pee preggers test but the baby doesn't survive. No implementation hcg increases but no baby comes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level of 25 mIU/mL or higher typically indicates pregnancy.
67
N/V starts when in preggers
6 weeks
68
Probable preggers signs (4)
Hegars Goodwill Chadwick (Bluish cervix, vagina, vulva) Positive Hcg test
69
Due to ____ there is a change in the center of gravity in a preggers, causing falls. Falls are more likely to result in injury due to____
Both Softening of cartilage
70
Hemoglobin is decreased bc of increased plasma (dilation of RBC concentration) which number would be a concern and what is the remedy
10 or below Iron
71
Fundus before preggers is found where
Pubis symphysis
72
Meaure uterus from these landmarks Uterus size and gestational age correlation
Top of pubic bone / Fundus Size will be the same as length in cm
73
Montgomery glands do what?
Lubricate the nipple
74
Milky discharge may start as early as...
15 weeks
75
When does the primitive heart begin to beat.... When does the babies heart begin to pump....
1 - 4 5 - 8
76
When does quickening happen?
13 - 16 weeks
77
By ___ weeks the baby has a good chance for survival if it is a normal weight
22 - 24 More likely 24 >500 g
78
AFI normal range Probably more correct than other card
8 - 25
79
Oligohydramnios Maybe a problem with this organ in the baby
Kidneys They are taking amniotic fluid in but not peeing it out
80
Excessive amniotic fluid >25 AFI Maybe this problem with the mom
DM
81
Facilitates nutrient, oxygen, waste exchange between mother and fetus
Placenta
82
Is there contact between mother and baby's blood?
No, there is diffusion of nutrients
83
Conditions that damage blood vessels also damage the placenta. Give 2 examplez
HTN & DM
84
Placental insufficiency can cause IUGR T OR F
T Insufficient Uterine Growth Restriction
85
Fetal circulation Vein carry oxygenation blood & Arteries carry Deoxygenated blood T or f
T
86
Study fetal blood circulation videos Fetal Shunts on power point
On test
87
The three fetal shunts are specialized structures that allow blood to bypass certain areas in the developing fetal circulation, optimizing oxygen delivery and nutrient flow before birth. These shunts are crucial because the fetal ____ & ____ are not fully functional until after birth
lungs and liver
88
__________ Location: Connects the umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava. Function: Allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver and flow directly into the fetal heart, ensuring the oxygen-rich blood reaches vital organs faster. Closure After Birth: Closes shortly after birth, becoming the ligamentum venosum in the liver.
Ductus Venosus
89
Ductus Venosus Location: Function: Closure After Birth:
Location: Connects the umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava. Function: Allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver and flow directly into the fetal heart, ensuring the oxygen-rich blood reaches vital organs faster. Closure After Birth: Closes shortly after birth, becoming the ligamentum venosum in the liver.
90
_____ Location: An opening between the right and left atria in the fetal heart. Function: Allows oxygenated blood to flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the non-functioning fetal lungs, which are still filled with fluid. Closure After Birth: Usually closes within the first few days or weeks after birth due to changes in pressure, forming the fossa ovalis.
Foramen Ovale Location: An opening between the right and left atria in the fetal heart. Function: Allows oxygenated blood to flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the non-functioning fetal lungs, which are still filled with fluid. Closure After Birth: Usually closes within the first few days or weeks after birth due to changes in pressure, forming the fossa ovalis.
91
Foramen Ovale Location: Function: Closure After Birth:
Foramen Ovale Location: An opening between the right and left atria in the fetal heart. Function: Allows oxygenated blood to flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the non-functioning fetal lungs, which are still filled with fluid. Closure After Birth: Usually closes within the first few days or weeks after birth due to changes in pressure, forming the fossa ovalis.
92
_________ Location: Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Function: Diverts most of the blood away from the lungs and into the aorta, as the fetal lungs are not yet used for oxygen exchange. Closure After Birth: Begins to close within hours after birth due to increased oxygen levels, eventually forming the ligamentum arteriosum
Ductus Arteriosus Location: Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Function: Diverts most of the blood away from the lungs and into the aorta, as the fetal lungs are not yet used for oxygen exchange. Closure After Birth: Begins to close within hours after birth due to increased oxygen levels, eventually forming the ligamentum arteriosum
93
Ductus Arteriosus Location: Function: Closure After Birth:
Ductus Arteriosus Location: Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Function: Diverts most of the blood away from the lungs and into the aorta, as the fetal lungs are not yet used for oxygen exchange. Closure After Birth: Begins to close within hours after birth due to increased oxygen levels, eventually forming the ligamentum arteriosum
94
Pregnancy test CBC Prenatal panel Dating ultrasound Maternal blood serum Nuchal translucency (NT) is ....
a prenatal screening ultrasound measurement that assesses the fluid-filled space at the back of a fetus's neck. Checks for chromosomal abnormalities and heart defects
95
Cell free DNA Chorionic Villus Sampling Are non routine test preformed when...
1st trimester Cell free DNA non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS) test that analyzes small fragments of fetal DNA circulating in the mother’s blood. This test can detect chromosomal abnormalities. Purpose: Screens for condition NOT diagnosis CVS An invasive diagnostic test where a small sample of cells (chorionic villi) is taken from the placenta and analyzed for genetic abnormalities. Purpose: Diagnoses chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders, including Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and certain inherited conditions. CVS
96
Glucose challenge test if fail....
Glucose tolerance test Must be in fasting state for GTT Several measurements of BS are taken at 1, 2 , 3 hrs
97
Redo PP Prental test
Be more specific
98
Baby kick test What is normal
>10 per hour
99
Biggest cause of death to preggers women
Homicide
100
Tdap vaccine is given during this trimester. Which disease is the concern
3rd Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
101
This diagnostic test ____ is used to determine fetal lung development in 3rd trimester
Amniocentesis
102
Advantage of Amniocentesis over Chorionic Villus Sampling
Can detect neural tube defects (Spina bifida) CVS cant
103
Screening test done mostly on moms who are DM or placental deteriorating. 5 category test Fetal movements Fetal tone Fetal breathing movements Amniotic fluid volume Non-stress test Less than 10 depending on GA recommended delivery, possibly
Biophysical profile
104
AFP Maternal Serum Alpha fetoprotein test High levels might indicate....
Neuraltube defects #1 thing AFP is screening for
105
GBS can cause these problems in babies
Meningitis / pneumonia
106
With fetal tachycardia do this assessment on the mom
Temp. Infection
107
Palpation of fundus with toco Describe firmness of mild, moderate, hard
Mild Nose Moderate chin Hard forehead
108
To ensure your tracing baby's not moms HR apply....
OX meter on mom
109
IUPC goes where..
Between uterine wall and baby's head
110
Good acid base balance, best predictor of fetal oxygenation is....
Moderate Variability 6-25 BMP change
111
2 causes of minimal variability
Sleeping baby / Drugs
112
Connects pulmonary artery & descending aorta Causes blood flow to bypass the Non-functioning Lungs Closes by first breaths & increased pressure in aorta within 15 - 24 hrs of birth. MURMURS maybe heard until closed
Ductus Arteriosus
113
Flap between Right and left atria Closes when left atria faces increase pressure after birth Closed within minutes of birth
Foramen Ovale
114
Directs blood from Umbilicus vein away from liver to inferior vena cava Once Umbilicus cord is clamped little blood enters..
Ductus Venosus
115
Routine prenatal testing & Nonroutine 1st trimester
Pregnancy test Blood test CBC / T/S Urine test US placement/ dating NonRoutine Cell free DNA Chorionic Villus Sampling
116
Prenatal testing 2nd trimester Routine & nonroutine
Routine Urine fetal hr Glucose challenge test - if failure GTT Quad screen Anatomical US NonRoutine GTT Amniocentesis
117
Routine & nonroutine prenatal testing 3rd trimester
Urine FHR Group B strep Swab vag & anus Kick count >10 norm NonRoutine US Nonstress test Contraction stress test Biophysical profile
118
Give Rho-gam when (2) Why not give Rho-gam
28 weeks & within 72 after birth Positive blood type mom don't need Rho-gam.
119
How to test for Gonorrhea Syphilis Trichomonas
Gonorrhea: Cervical Culture Syphilis: Blood test (VDRL/RPR) Trichomonas: Molecular test/ Wet prep slides Vag discharge
120
Anemia due to blood dilution in ___ semester. Take 400 micrograms Iron daily
2nd
121
Describe Nonstress test Contraction stress test Biophysical profile
NST monitor on abdomen to measure the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. Goal see how the fetal heart rate responds to fetal movements without the stress of contractions. Interpretation: A "reactive" result is ideal, indicating that the fetal heart rate accelerates appropriately with movements. A "nonreactive" result may require further testing to check on the baby’s health. Contraction stress test Mild contractions are stimulated, either by nipple stimulation or low-dose oxytocin (Pitocin), while monitoring the fetal heart rate response. The aim is to check if the fetus remains stable when uterine contractions temporarily reduce oxygen delivery. Interpretation: A "negative" CST is preferred and means that there are no concerning drops in fetal heart rate during contractions, indicating the baby can likely handle labor. A "positive" CST, which shows late decelerations of fetal heart rate with contractions. Biophysical profile ultrasound with a nonstress test. It’s often used when there’s a need for a more thorough evaluation of fetal well-being. Process: The BPP includes five components: Fetal heart rate reactivity (from NST) Fetal breathing movements Fetal movement Fetal muscle tone Amniotic fluid volume Each component is given a score of 0 (absent) or 2 (present), with a maximum score of 10. Interpre A score of 8-10 is considered normal A lower score (e.g., 4 or less) may indicate fetal distress or other concerns, potentially leading to closer monitoring or consideration of delivery, depending on the gestational age and clinical context.
122
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21): Typically, this is associated with ( low / high) hCG and Inhibin-A levels and (low / high) AFP and estriol levels. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome): Usually associated with (low / high )levels of all four substances (AFP, hCG, estriol, and Inhibin-A). Neural tube defects (like spina bifida): These may be indicated by (low / high )AFP levels, as AFP can leak into the amniotic fluid and cross into the mother’s bloodstream if the neural tube is not fully closed.
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21): Typically, this is associated with high hCG and Inhibin-A levels and low AFP and estriol levels. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome): Usually associated with low levels of all four substances (AFP, hCG, estriol, and Inhibin-A). Neural tube defects (like spina bifida): These may be indicated by higher-than-normal AFP levels, as AFP can leak into the amniotic fluid and cross into the mother’s bloodstream if the neural tube is not fully closed.
123
When to call DR. as a preggers woman (8)
Severe ab cramps/ pain Bleeding/ spotting Persistent headaches not relieved by meds Blurry vision/ Swelling Decreased fetal movement (Quickening happens around weeks 13 - 16) Fluid leakage Signs of infection Contractions before 37 weeks