Test 2 Review Flashcards

0
Q

General, worldwide atmospheric circulation (ex. trade winds, westerlies, polar easterlies)

A

Primary circulation

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1
Q

What are the three levels of atmospheric circulation?

A

Primary, secondary, and tertiary

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2
Q

Migration of high and low pressure systems; mesoscale wind circulation between high and low pressure systems

A

Secondary circulation

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3
Q

Local winds (ex. Santa Ana winds, land breeze, sea breeze)

A

Tertiary circulation

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4
Q

The force exerted on you by air molecules; although air molecules are invisible, they still have weight and take up space

A

Air pressure

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5
Q

A tube closed at the top, containing mercury with a Toricelllian vacuum above it and a mercury bath at the open bottom end; the pressure on the open bath determines the height of the mercury column above it

A

Mercury Barometer

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6
Q

A closed, flexible container of gas and attached to the container is a mechanism to move a pointer on a scale; when atmospheric pressure changes, the container changes internal volume, moving the scale to indicate the pressure outside of it relative to the fixed pressure inside it

A

Aneroid barometer

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7
Q

What is the normal sea level air pressure?

A

14.7 lbs/in2 or 1013.2 mb

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8
Q

The force which results when there is a difference in pressure across a surface (control on wind velocity)

A

Pressure gradient force

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9
Q

True or False: the greater the pressure gradient, the faster the wind flow

A

True

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10
Q

How is wind generated?

A
  1. Air rises at point B because it is warmer and a void is created
  2. Low pressure at point B
  3. Air pressure at point A is higher
  4. Air moves from point A to point B
  5. Surface wind is created
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11
Q

A breeze blowing toward the sea, especially at night, owing to the relative warmth of the sea

A

Land breeze

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12
Q

A breeze blowing toward the land from the sea, especially during the day, owing to the relative warmth of the land

A

Sea breeze

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13
Q

Since the earth rotates on its axis, it produces a deflective force that affects wind direction (if the earth did not spin on its axis, winds would follow the direction of the pressure gradient); stronger towards the poles; deflected right in the NH and left in the SH

A

Coriolis force

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14
Q

Acts on the wind flow and the effect becomes more and more severe as you get closer to the surface

A

Friction force

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15
Q

The part of the atmosphere that lies above the frictional force, on average at an altitude of about 1000m

A

Free atmosphere

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16
Q

True or False: Coriolis force balances pressure gradient force

A

True

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17
Q

The theoretical wind that would result from an exact balance between the Coriolis effect and the pressure gradient force

A

Geostrophic wind

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18
Q

When the wind swirls clockwise in the northern hemisphere or counterclockwise in the southern hemisphere

A

Anticyclonic air flow

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19
Q

When the wind swirls counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere or clockwise in the southern hemisphere

A

Cyclonic air flow

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20
Q

Air comes together at the center of the low near the ground; converging air rises and the water vapor within cools and eventually condenses

A

Air convergence

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21
Q

Air moves away from the center of the high near the ground; air has to come from above to fill the void, leads to a sinking motion in the center of a high pressure system and clear air

A

Air divergence

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22
Q

True or False: Air convergence is associated with high pressure

A

False: Air convergence is associated with low pressure and air divergence is associated with high pressure

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23
Q

Wind blowing steadily toward the equator from the northeast in the northern hemisphere or the southeast in the southern hemisphere, especially at sea

A

Trade winds

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24
Q

A wind blowing from the west; the belt of prevailing winds in the mid-latitudes of the northern and southern hemispheres; generated from the subtropical high pressure cell

A

Westerlies

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25
Q

Why do the Westerlies gather strength and speed in the southern hemisphere?

A

Because there is less land there to cause friction to slow them down, an almost unbroken belt of oceans

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26
Q

Known to sailors as doldrums, the area encircling the earth near the equator where the northeast and southeast trade winds come together

A

Intertropical Convergence Zone

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27
Q

What months do the dry monsoon occur in?

A

October through May

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28
Q

Picks up moisture from the ocean and brings the rain that sustains agriculture

A

Wet monsoon

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29
Q

A tropical atmospheric circulation that is defined by the average over longitude, which features rising motion near the equator, poleward flow 10-15 km above the surface, descending motion in the subtropics, and equator-ward flow near the surface

A

Hadley Cell

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30
Q

The average motion of air in the mid-latitudes; characterized by sinking air near 30 degrees and rising air farther poleward

A

Ferrel Cell

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31
Q

What is the leading edge of the polar easterlies?

A

The polar front

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32
Q

Boundary between continental polar air mass and topical maritime airmass where frontal precipitations can take place

A

Polar front

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33
Q

A change in the velocity and trajectory of upper air wind flows

A

Index cycle

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34
Q

Maintains air masses within their boundaries

A

Zonal flow

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35
Q

Allows very cold air from the arctic to move to lower latitudes from the tropics

A

Meridional flow

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36
Q

What is the driving force of ocean currents?

A

The frictional drag of the winds

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37
Q

Large body of air whose physical properties are more or less uniform horizontally for hundreds of km; horizontal dimension can be as big as a continent and vertical dimension can extend throughout the troposphere

A

Air mass

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38
Q

What are the air mass classifications?

A

Maritime, continental, arctic, antarctic, tropical, or equatorial

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39
Q

What are the principal air masses?

A
  1. Continental polar in the NH
  2. Maritime polar over northern oceans
  3. Maritime tropical in the Atlantic and Pacific
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40
Q

Created because of thermodynamic and dynamic changes

A

Secondary air masses

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41
Q

Cold air mass moving south over warm land

A

Thermodynamic

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42
Q

Air mass has to go over topographic barrier

A

Dynamic

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43
Q

What is developing when continental polar and maritime tropical air masses clash and the maritime tropical air mass at the surface is forced to rise above the ground

A

Mid-latitude cyclone

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44
Q

What are the stages of a mid-latitude cyclone?

A
  1. Frontogenesis and cyclogenesis (early stage)
  2. Mature (open) stage
  3. Occluded (dying) stage
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45
Q

Which stage: creation of fronts, warm/moist air rises, condensation reached, low pressure forms at apex of two fronts

A

Frontogenesis

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46
Q

Which stage: creation of a mid-latitude cyclone, warm air is the fuel tank, not producing frontal precipitations, stratiform and cumuliform clouds

A

Cyclogenesis

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47
Q

Which stage: storm is fully developed and precipitation is generated, but it has not reached full potential, cold front travels faster than the warm front and cold air is actively pushing warm air up

A

Mature (open) stage

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48
Q

Which stage: cold front catches up with the warm front and no warm sector is connected to the storm, most intense phase in terms of heavy and steady rainfall and strong winds

A

Occulded (dying) stage

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49
Q

Which front is typical of zonal flow conditions

A

Stationary front

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50
Q

Upper air flow starting to slow down and move above ground, enters a meridional phase

A

Frontal wave

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51
Q

Warm air glides on top of cool air

A

Warm front

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52
Q

Cold air is actively pushing warmer air aloft

A

Cold front

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53
Q

300 yards diameter, winds more than 300 mph, traveling speed 25-40 mph

A

Tornado

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54
Q

When is tornado season?

A

April-July, 74% take place March-July

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55
Q

Why does tornado season start in April?

A

In April, the polar jet stream, polar front, and continental polar air mass are slowly retreating to higher latitudes. Clashes between warm/moist and cold air masses along the polar front are more severe.

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56
Q

Tornados form in regions of the atmosphere that have:

A
  1. Extremely unstable air (convection of warm/moist air)
  2. Weather systems that force warm/moist air upward
  3. Large amounts of vertical wind shear that increases with velocity away from the surface
57
Q

500-600 miles in diameter, winds 75-100 mph, traveling speed 10-20 mph

A

Hurricane

58
Q

What are the classifications of tropical disturbances and their wind speeds?

A
  1. Tropical disturbance: wind 23-38 mph
  2. Tropical storm: wind 39-73 mph
  3. Hurricane: wind 74+ mph
59
Q

What do you need for a hurricane to form?

A

Sea surface temperature over 81 degrees F, westward trajectory, no land obstacles, creation of a vortex, Coriolis force must be strong enough, moving away from low latitudes, little or no vertical wind shear, divergence of air aloft must exceed the convergence at the surface

60
Q

Where wind velocity would be at its highest

A

Eye wall

61
Q

Large quantity of sea water pushed inland by the strong winds of a hurricane during landfall

A

Storm surge

62
Q

Why do hurricanes lose their intensity after landfall?

A

Because the latent heat flux over the warm ocean surface is no longer available

63
Q

Why don’t hurricanes form at the equator?

A

Because the Coriolis force is near zero there, so there isn’t the turning needed to spin the air into tight low-pressure centers

64
Q

List factors that effect the amount of run off

A
  1. Intensity and duration of rainfall
  2. Deep soil, dense vegetation, fractured bedrock, and gentle slopes reduce runoff
  3. Thin or absent soil, then vegetation, and steep slopes increase runoff
65
Q

Surplus water that flows across the surface toward stream channels; constitutes the total runoff from an area together with precipitation and subsurface flows

A

Overland flow

66
Q

Penetration of soil surface, leads to gravity percolation, where water might reach the ground water zone

A

Infiltration

67
Q

When precipitation strikes vegetation

A

Interception

68
Q

Intercepted water that drains across a plant and down

A

Stem flow

69
Q

Precipitation that falls through the plant canopy

A

Throughfall

70
Q

Water held in pore spaces of the soil layer and available for plants

A

Soil moisture

71
Q

Factors that control soil moisture content:

A

Amount of precipitation, insolation, temperature variation, wind velocity, direct evaporation and transpiration of plants, amount of runoff, gravity percolation, type of soil

72
Q

The process by which water permeates the soil or porous rock into the subsurface environment

A

Gravity percolation

73
Q

Max amount of water that can be retained in the soil after gravitational water has drained away

A

Field capacity

74
Q

Can finer soil hold more or less water?

A

Finer soil can hold more water

75
Q

Moisture held at the surface of soil particles by surface tension, stored water supply

A

Capillary water

76
Q

Water lost to the plants because of gravity percolation

A

Gravitational water

77
Q

Excluding ice sheets and glaciers, represents the earth’s largest accessible store of fresh water (94%)

A

Groundwater

78
Q

Rock layer, porous and permeable to groundwater flow (sandstone and limestone)

A

Aquifer

79
Q

Permeable layer on top and an impermeable layer beneath; recharge area extends above the entire aquifer, water percolates down the water table

A

Unconfined aquifer

80
Q

Bounded above and below by impermeable layers of rock or sediments (exists between aquicludes); recharge area is more restricted, obtains water from a distant area where the rock layers of the aquifer reach the surface

A

Confined aquifer

81
Q

Rock layer that is impermeable to groundwater infiltration

A

Aquiclude

82
Q

Area where gravity percolation is active

A

Zone of aeration

83
Q

Area where subsurface water accumulates

A

Zone of saturation

84
Q

The upper surface of groundwater, contact zone between the zone of aeration and saturation in an aquifer; slope controls groundwater movement

A

Water table

85
Q

What are some problems associated with groundwater resources?

A

Drawdown, overpumping or “groundwater mining”, and groundwater pollution

86
Q

Lowering of the water table around a well creating a “cone of depression”; in an unconfined aquifer when the pumping rate exceeds the replenishment flow of water in the the aquifer

A

Drawdown

87
Q

When aquifers are pumped beyond their flow and recharge capacities

A

Overpumping or “groundwater mining”

88
Q

What are some causes of groundwater pollution?

A

Industrial injection wells, septic tank outflows, seepage from waste, industrial toxic wastes, agricultural residues, waste landfills

89
Q

What percentage of pollution is point source (gas tank, septic tank, waste pond)?

A

35%

90
Q

What percentage of pollution is non-point source (from a broad area, such as an agricultural field or urban runoff)?

A

65%

91
Q

The unchanneled downslope movement of surface water

A

Sheetflow

92
Q

The channeled movement of water along a valley bottom

A

Streamflow

93
Q

Portion of the terrain in which a drainage system is established

A

Valley

94
Q

Higher land above the valley sides that separates adjacent valleys, directs overland flow creating small tributaries of a valley stream

A

Interfluves

95
Q

A river or stream flowing into a larger river or lake

A

Tributary

96
Q

Catchment area or watershed, collection of water and sediments

A

Drainage basin

97
Q

Forms perimeter of a drainage basin, joins all the highest points separating the basin from adjacent ones

A

Drainage divide

98
Q

Uppermost area of the basin, source of the mainstream channel

A

Headwaters

99
Q

Part of the river where it empties into another body of water

A

Mouth

100
Q

The main course of the river

A

Trunk

101
Q

Refers to the extent of channelization in a drainage basin

A

Drainage density

102
Q

High or low drainage density: soils are thin and impermeable, vegetation is sparse, and there are steep slopes

A

High drainage density

103
Q

High or low drainage density: soils are thick or permeable and there is dense vegetation or forests

A

Low drainage density

104
Q

Which drainage pattern is created from rocks with uniform resistance?

A

Dendritic

105
Q

Which drainage pattern is created by parallel valleys of weak rock between ridges of resistance?

A

Trellis

106
Q

Which drainage pattern is created from a dome upland or volcano?

A

Radial

107
Q

Which drainage pattern is created from multiple channels flowing inward toward the center of a lowland or basin?

A

Centripetal

108
Q

Which drainage pattern is created by linear joint patterns in bedrock that control the water movement?

A

Rectangular

109
Q

Which drainage pattern is created following ice sheets retreating, chaotic arrangement of channels connecting smalls lakes and marshes?

A

Deranged

110
Q

What factors have an impact on drainage patterns?

A

Land topography/steepness, rock resistance to weathering and erosion, variable climate and hydrology, and structural controls imposed by the underlying rocks

111
Q

A trough which moves water and sediments supplied to the stream

A

Stream channel

112
Q

Rate of fall in altitude of the stream surface in the downstream direction

A

Stream gradient

113
Q

Line of maximum stream velocity

A

Line of thalweg

114
Q

Volume of water passing through a given cross-section of a stream in a given unit of time; Q=WDV and as Q increases, some combination of the width, depth, and velocity increases

A

Stream discharge

115
Q

Leads to bank caving, transport of sediments, and disposition of sediments

A

Stream erosion

116
Q

Ability of a stream to move particles of a specific size, function of velocity and available energy

A

Stream competence

117
Q

Total possible load a stream can transport; function of solution, suspension, saltation, and traction

A

Stream capacity

118
Q

Invisible part of the stream load resulting from chemical weathering

A

Dissolved load

119
Q

Consists of fine grain clastic particles (clay, silt, sand); the lighter the sediment, the closer to the surface it is carried

A

Suspended load

120
Q

Heaviest particles move close to the stream floor, moved by traction and saltation

A

Bedload

121
Q

Bedload or suspended load will be increased, reduced, or stopped

A

Stream deposition

122
Q

Created because stream velocity drops due to friction

A

Point bar

123
Q

Sand, silt, clay, gravel, or other matter deposited by flowing water

A

Alluvial deposit

124
Q

Remnants of older floodplains created by renewed activity of the main stream channel

A

Terrace

125
Q

Stream begins active downward erosion again when region is affected by a land mass uplift, lowers the base level of the stream and leads to renewed vertical erosion of the river bed

A

Rejuvenated river

126
Q

Forms at the mouth of a river when it enters a lake or ocean; river’s velocity decreases and sediments drop out first

A

Delta

127
Q

The point of a flood hydrograph when rainfall is at its greatest; period of time between the peak discharge; represents increased discharge rates as the result of storm water entering a drainage basin on a flood hydrograph

A

Storm hydrograph

128
Q

True or False: Sea breeze takes place at night

A

False, sea breeze takes place during the day

129
Q

True or False: The Coriolis effect is maximized at the poles

A

True, at the equator it is nonexistent

130
Q

True or False: Geostrophic wind results from pressure gradient force, free atmosphere, and friction

A

False, free atmosphere has no friction

131
Q

Which is directly involved with the formation of subtropical high pressure cells?

A

Hadley cell, air is pushed towards the surface and surface pressure rises

132
Q

What is the common name for alluvial deposits found on the inside curve of a meander?

A

Point bar

133
Q

Westerlies take place between _______ of latitudes in both hemisphere.

A

30-60 degrees

134
Q

Which soil as the poorest field capacity?

A

Sandy loam, coarse soil is poorer than fine soil

135
Q

The index cycle refers to:

A

Variations in upper air wind flow

136
Q

What percentage of the US population derives its water from groundwater sources?

A

50%

137
Q

True or False: In stream erosion, abrasion refers to a chemical process of rock decomposition of the banks of a stream channel.

A

False, the correct term would be corrosion

138
Q

In soil, where is gravity percolation active?

A

The zone of aeration

139
Q

Which does not refer to a meander?

A

Midstream line of thalweg

140
Q

True or False: Typhoons can make landfall in Australia.

A

False, tropical cyclones can make landfall in Australia

Hurricanes: Atlantic Ocean NH and Eastern Pacific NH
Typhoons: Western Pacific NH
Cyclones: Western Pacific SH and Indian Ocean

141
Q

In the NH, the Trade Winds are known as NW Trade Winds

A

False, they are called NE Trade Winds