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Test 3 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

What are the 4 primary glands of the endocrine system?

A

Adrenal glands, Thyroid glands, Parathyroid glands, Pituitary gland

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2
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A

Above the kidneys

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3
Q

What does ACTH stand for?

A

Adreno cortico tropic Hormone

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4
Q

Where is ACTH produced?

A

Pituitary Gland

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5
Q

What does ACTH stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce?

A

Cortisol

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6
Q

Describe the cortisol feedback mechanism?

A

A negative feedback loop, with CRH secreted from the hypothalamus, positively stimulating the anterior pituitary to release ACTH, which acts on the adrenal glands to stimulate release of cortisol. High levels of cortisol negatively impacts CRH and ACTH secretion.

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7
Q

What does Hypoadrenocorticism mean? What is the common name?

A

Decreased production of hormones (cortisol) from adrenal cortex; Addison’s Disease

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8
Q

List some symptoms and causes of hypoadrenocorticism.

A
  • Lethargy
  • Anorexia
  • Vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Diarrhea
  • PU/PD
  • Dehydration
  • Hypothermia
  • Slow CRT
  • Melena
  • Bradycardia
  • Painful abdomen
  • Weak pulse
  • Alopecia
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9
Q

What does Hyperadrenocorticism mean? What is the common name?

A

Increased production of hormones from the adrenal cortex; Cushing’s Disease

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10
Q

List some symptoms and causes of hyperadrenocorticism.

A
  • PU/PD
  • Polyphagia
  • Pendulous abdomen
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Hair loss
  • Lethargy
  • Muscle weakness
  • Anestrus
  • Obesity
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Panting
  • Testicular atrophy
  • Hyperpigmentation
  • Thin skin
  • Bruising
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11
Q

At what age are most dogs affected by these diseases?

A

4 years (middle age)

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12
Q

List and briefly describe the 3 types of Hyperadrenocorticism.

A
  • Adrenal dependant (primary) Hyperadrenocorticism: Regular amount of ACTH being produced, excessive cortisol being released
  • Pituitary dependant (secondary) Hyperadrenocorticism: Pituitary releasing excessive ACTH, causing release of more cortisol
  • Iatrogenic: Caused due to prescribed medications (steroids)
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13
Q

What does iatrogenic mean?

A

Of or relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment.

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14
Q

Suddenly stopping corticosteroid treatment can cause iatrogenic what?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

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15
Q

How is Cushing’s disease diagnosed?

A
  • ACTH Stim Test
  • Low Dose Dexamethasone Test
  • High Dose dexamethasone Test
  • Radiographs
  • Clinical Signs
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16
Q

What are two electrolyte abnormalities you may see when there is a hormonal imbalance?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyponatremia
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17
Q

What other diagnostic test, besides blood work, can be used to check the adrenal glands?

A

Radiology

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18
Q

List and describe the 3 most common blood tests for diagnosing endocrine disease.

A
  • ACTH Stimulation Test: Tests for both hypoadrenocorticism and hyperadrenocorticism
  • Low Dose Dex Test: Used to confirm or replace ACTH test for diagnosis of Cushing’s disease
  • High Dose Dex Test: Used to determine between pituitary dependent or adrenal dependent Cushing’s
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19
Q

How many blood samples are taken from a patient having an ACTH Stim test?

A

3 (1 pre sample, 2 post samples)

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20
Q

Which test helps distinguish if cause is iatrogenic, or ‘true’ adrenal dysfunction?

A

ACTH Stimulation Test

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21
Q

Which test differentiates between the types of Cushing’s (pituitary or adrenal dependent)?

A

High Dose Dex Test

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22
Q

Which test/s is/are used in cats?

A
  • ACTH Stim Test
  • High Dose Dex Test
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23
Q

After running a high dose dex test, what would you expect the results to be if the dog has Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease? Adrenal-dependent Cushing’s disease?

A
  • Pituitary dependent - Normal test results (no effect)
  • Adrenal dependent - High test results
24
Q

What is the difference between primary Hyperadrenocorticism and secondary Hyperadrenocorticism? Briefly explain.

A
  • Primary: Adrenal dependent, normal amount of ACTH, excessive Cortisol
  • Secondary: Pituitary dependent, excessive amount of ACTH, excessive Cortisol secondary to excessive ACTH
25
What are the 2 thyroid hormones and what do they do?
T3 and T4; Influence metabolic rate, growth and differentiation of cells
26
What does TSH stand for and where is it produced?
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone); Produced in the pituitary gland
27
What does TRF stand for and where is it produced?
TRF (Thyrotropin Releasing Factor); Produced by the hypothalamus
28
What are some causes of Hypothyroidism?
* Genetic * Tumor * Iodine deficiency * Immune-mediated destruction * Idiopathic thyroid atrophy * Goitrogenic plants
29
What are some signs/symptoms of Hypothyroidism?
* Lethargy * Hair loss * Weight gain * Excessive shedding * Cold intolerance * Slow heart rate * Anemia * Abortion * Stillbirths * Goiters in neonates
30
What are some causes of hyperthyroidism?
Often due to benign growth of the thyroid gland
31
What are some signs of Hyperthyroidism? What species is most commonly affected?
* Weight loss despite a good appetite * Restlessness * Hyperactivity * Diarrhea Most commonly affected species: Cats
32
Can thyroid function be tested in clinic? What value is tested for?
Yes! Total thyroxine [tT4]
33
How many blood samples need to be collected for thyroid testing?
Only one serum sample required
34
What is important to make note of when rechecking blood on an animal that has been diagnosed with thyroid disease?
Time last pill given before taking blood sample
35
What does ELISA stand for?
E nzyme L inked I mmuno S orbent A ssay
36
How does the ELISA test work and describe the parts of the test.
If the antigen is present in the sample, it will bind to the antibody on the test surface. A conjugate is added which contains antibodies. After incubation and washing, the bound antigens will remain. Chromogen is added and reacts with enzymes to produce a colour reaction.
37
Why can we not rinse off the antigens in an ELISA test?
Because they become bound to the antibodies present in the test. If there are no antigens,there will be no color reaction
38
Which type of test uses colloidal gold?
RIM – Lateral Flow
39
How does the CELISA test work?
Antibodies cover the test wells. Enzyme-marked antigens are added to the test with the patient’s sample. The antigen in higher concentration will bind to more antibodies. The enzymes bound to test antigens react to create color.
40
What is another name for an Immunodiffusion test?
Coggin’s test
41
Which test involves the addition of a sample to a plate coated with agar gel?
Immunodiffusion (Coggin’s)
42
When would you use a CELISA test over an ELISA test?
When only small numbers of antigens may be present (e.g., EIA – Equine Infectious Anemia)
43
What does FAT stand for?
Fluorescent Antibody Testing
44
What does EIA stand for and when is this test required?
Equine Infectious Anemia; Required for shows, sales, transportation and other situations where horses are mixed.
45
The Coombs' test is used to detect what? What are some examples?
Auto antibodies; Examples include IMHA, infectious diseases (e.g., Babesia canis, Mycoplasma haemofelis) and cancer.
46
What are two ways you can test an animal for allergies?
* Skin Testing * Serology testing
47
What are 3 advantages of serum allergy testing over dermal allergy testing?
* No shaving * No incisions * No itchy spots
48
What are 2 reasons a veterinarian may order an antibody titer?
* To distinguish between active infections and prior exposure to certain antigens * To determine if boostering a vaccine is necessary
49
What does a high titer indicate?
A higher titer indicates active infection
50
List 2 disadvantages and 2 advantages to molecular diagnostics.
* Advantages: * Increased sensitivity and specificity * Small samples with faster results * Disadvantages: * Contamination gives false positives * High levels of expertise to run tests, high cost
51
What does PCR stand for and what does this test detect?
Polymerase Chain Reaction; Detects DNA segments
52
What is a Reverse Transcriptase PCR?
Similar to PCR but tests single-stranded RNA, must first be converted to double-stranded DNA.
53
What are four advantages of Real Time PCR?
* Decreases the risk of contamination * More easily automated * Faster and easier to run * Fluorescence probe attaches to DNA segments
54
Why does PCR have a higher association with disease than antibody detection?
PCR testing identifies a pathogen based on the presence of the pathogen’s DNA or RNA in the patient specimen, BEFORE antibody can be detected.
55
How long of an interval, after the last vaccine, is PCR testing recommended to prevent detection of any DNA originating from the vaccine?
3 Weeks
56
What does a low titer indicate?
A low titer indicates previous exposure and some remaining immunity to the antigen