Test 3 back of ch Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q
Which of the following terms best describes a receptor located on a neuronal terminal that binds a neurotransmitter released from another neuron and decreases release of neurotransmitter from the neuronal terminal?
(A) presynaptic receptor
(B) heteroreceptor
(C) postsynaptic receptor
(D) autoreceptor
(E) ionotropic receptor
A

(B) heteroreceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Neurotransmitters are made in neurons and released when vesicles fuse with the neuronal membrane. What name is given to this process?
(A) apoptosis
(B) phagocytosis
(C) endocytosis
(D) pinocytosis
(E) exocytosis
A

(E) exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides?
(A) neuropeptides are synthesized in the cell body
(B) classical neurotransmitters have a longer duration of action
(C) neuropeptides undergo rapid reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
(D) classical neurotransmitters are packaged into vesicles
(E) neuropeptides are degraded by acetylcholinesterase in the synapse

A

(A) neuropeptides are synthesized in the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient with metastatic lung cancer is treated for chronic pain with daily doses of a long-acting morphine formulation and oxycodone for breakthrough pain. He complains that the medicines are no longer working. Which one of the following mechanisms may explain the lack of effect of his medicines?
(A) the metabolism of morphine is up-regulated
(B) pain intensity has greatly increased
(C) the efficiency of G protein coupling is decreased
(D) opioid receptors are down-regulated
(E) the patient is a “drug seeker” and addicted to opioid medications

A

(D) opioid receptors are down-regulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Which one of the following drugs acts by inhibiting neurotransmitter re-uptake?
(A) lithium
(B) morphine
(C) fluoxetine
(D) levodopa
(E) donepezil
A

(C) fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following molecular processes best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
(A) potentiating the effect of GABA at chloride ion channels
(B) blocking glutamate excitation
(C) blocking the inactivation of sodium ion channels
(D) binding to opioid receptors to produce sedation
(E) potentiating the action of the inhibitory amino acid, glycine

A

(A) potentiating the effect of GABA at chloride ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
Benzodiazepines are noted for altering which one of the following aspects of sleep?
(A) increasing the time to sleep onset
(B) decreasing stage 2 NREM sleep
(C) increasing slow-wave sleep
(D) decreasing the REM stage of sleep
(E) increasing sleep awakenings
A

(D) decreasing the REM stage of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which one of the following statement best describes flumazenil?
(A) does not produce withdrawal seizures
(B) has the longest elimination half-life
(C) is not metabolized into an active agent
(D) is also used for the treatment of epilepsy
(E) is a selective benzodiazepine antagonist

A

(E) is a selective benzodiazepine antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Zaleplon differs from zolpidem in which one of the following ways?
(A) produces withdrawal seizures
(B) has a shorter elimination half-life
(C) has a different chemical structure than benzodiazepines
(D) shows less tolerance to sedative effects
(E) produces greater morning sedation

A

(B) has a shorter elimination half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Which one of the following anxiolytic drugs is noted for its lack of sedation?
(A) hydroxyzine
(B) diazepam
(C) oxazepam
(D) alprazolam
(E) buspirone
A

(E) buspirone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The molecular mechanism underlying the antiepileptic effects of carbamazepine and phenytoin is best described by which one of the following statements?
(A) inhibiting low threshold Ca2+ ion channels
(B) prolonging the inactivation of the Na+ ion channel
(C) potentiating the release of GABA by inhibiting GABA reuptake
(D) increasing the release of GABA by vesicular fusion
(E) blocking glutamate receptor excitation

A

(B) prolonging the inactivation of the Na+ ion channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Which antiepileptic agent gained wider therapeutic use also to treat trigeminal neuralgia and the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
(A) ethosuximide
(B) zonisamide
(C) levetiracetam
(D) carbamazepine
(E) phenytoin
A

(D) carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Which one of the following agents is considered the drug of choice for initial treatment of generalized absence seizure (petit mal) in children?
(A) ethosuximide
(B) zonisamide
(C) levetiracetam
(D) carbamazepine
(E) phenytoin
A

(A) ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Topiramate has which set of three mechanisms of action?
(A) increases Na+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
(B) decreases Na+ channel inactivation, decreases GABA, blocks glutamate
(C) increases Ca2+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
(D) decreases Ca2+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutama

A

(A) increases Na+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gabapentin has which mechanism of action?
(A) inhibits monoamine oxidase
(B) agonist effect at dopamine receptors
(C) increases Na+ channel inactivation
(D) blocks reuptake of neurotransmitters
(E) increases release of neurotransmitter

A

(E) increases release of neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Local anesthetics exert their effects by which one of the following mechanisms?
(A) increasing K+ conductance and hyperpolarizing nerves
(B) blocking the Na+ channels in nerves
(C) inactivating the N+-K+ adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) pump
(D) blocking excitation at postsynaptic receptors
(E) blocking by a direct action only at the synapse

A

(B) blocking the Na+ channels in nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Epinephrine is sometimes added to commercial local anesthetic solutions for which purpose?
(A) decrease the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic
(B) decrease the duration of action of the local anesthetic
(C) block the metabolism of ester-type local anesthetics
(D) enhance the distribution of the local anesthetic
(E) act synergistically with the local anesthetic at the nerve ion channel

A

(A) decrease the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic

18
Q
Which of the following characteristics is used to quantitate and compare the potency of gaseous general anesthetics?
(A) blood:gas partition coefficient
(B) minimal alveolar concentration
(C) blood:brain partition coefficient
(D) rate of uptake and elimination
(E) relative analgesic potency
A

(B) minimal alveolar concentration

19
Q
Which one of the following inhalational anesthetics can only provide anesthetic effectiveness under hyperbaric conditions?
(A) enflurane
(B) nitrous oxide
(C) halothane
(D) methoxyflurane
(E) isoflurane
A

(B) nitrous oxide

20
Q
Muscle rigidity can be a side effect of which intravenous anesthetic?
(A) fentanyl
(B) midazolam
(C) ketamine
(D) propofol
(E) thiopental
21
Q
Clinical antipsychotic potency for "typical" antipsychotics correlate with actions at which receptor?
(A) dopamine D2
(B) α2-adrenergic
(C) muscarinic
(D) histamine
(E) serotonin
A

(A) dopamine D2

22
Q
Which agent listed below is an antipsychotic that can improve both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
(A) chlorpromazine
(B) haloperidol
(C) thiothixene
(D) risperidone
(E) thioridazine
A

(D) risperidone

23
Q
Which one of the following is not a class of antidepressant medications?
(A) heterocyclic antidepressants
(B) TCAs
(C) MAOIs
(D) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
(E) SSRIs
A

(D) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

24
Q
The older TCAs share all of the following adverse effects except which one?
(A) orthostatic hypotension
(B) sedation
(C) seizures
(D) weight gain
(E) sexual dysfunction
A

(E) sexual dysfunction

25
``` Foods containing tyramine should be avoided when taken with which class of medications? (A) TCAs (B) MAOIs (C) SSRIs (D) atypical antidepressants (E) antihypertensive medications ```
(B) MAOIs
26
``` Most clinically used opioid analgesics are selective for which type of opioid receptor? (A) kappa (κ) (B) alpha (α) (C) beta (β) (D) mu (μ) (E) delta (δ) ```
(D) mu (μ)
27
Codeine has a greater oral bioavailability compared with morphine because of which reason? (A) codeine undergoes less first-pass metabolism (B) morphine is conjugated more quickly (C) morphine directly passes into systemic circulation (D) codeine is only available in liquid formulation (E) codeine is metabolized more by hepatic enzymes
(A) codeine undergoes less first-pass metabolism
28
Which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine is more likely to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients? (A) morphine inhibits "chemoceptor trigger zone" neurons (B) morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons (C) opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult (D) patients on opioids eat more (E) opioids increase vestibular sensitivity
(E) opioids increase vestibular sensitivity
29
``` Which of the following opioids is so lipophilic that it is marketed in a skin patch used to treat chronic pain? (A) morphine (B) naltrexone (C) scopolamine (D) methadone (E) fentanyl ```
(E) fentanyl
30
In a case of an opioid overdose, naloxone can be given in repeated doses because of which property of naloxone? (A) may have a shorter half-life than the opioid agonist (B) is only effective at high cumulative doses (C) is needed to stimulate the respiratory center (D) is safe only in extremely small doses (E) is only a partial opioid agonist
(A) may have a shorter half-life than the opioid agonist
31
Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for antiparkinsonism agents? (A) direct dopamine agonist (B) precursor loading (C) inhibit dopamine metabolism (D) block cholinergic receptors (E) selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
(E) selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
32
Cardiac arrhythmias following initial doses of levodopa (L-dopa) are occasionally observed. Which of the following explanations most likely explain this occurrence? (A) direct action on cardiac dopamine receptors (B) decreased release of catecholamines (C) direct β-adrenoceptor stimulation (D) increased release of dopamine (E) interaction with vagal cholinergic receptors
(C) direct β-adrenoceptor stimulation
33
Anticholinergic agents are useful in the treatment of parkinsonism because of which one of the following mechanisms? (A) decreased levels of acetylcholine from loss of neurons (B) continuing degeneration of dopamine neurons (C) neurotransmitter imbalance in the basal ganglia (D) increased activity of acetylcholinesterase (E) increased release of dopamine in basal ganglia
(C) neurotransmitter imbalance in the basal ganglia
34
Selegiline, an antidepressant also used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease, has which one of the following mechanisms of action? (A) it is a selective MAO-B inhibitor (B) it blocks the reuptake of dopamine (C) it irreversibly binds to COMT (D) increases release of dopamine vesicles (E) blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors
(A) it is a selective MAO-B inhibitor
35
Baclofen is used to treat muscle spasticity because of which of the following effects? (A) is a receptor agonist at GABAB receptors (B) blocks acetylcholine receptors (C) enhances the release of GABA vesicles (D) is an antagonist as glutamate receptors (E) increases GABA action at Cl- ion channel
(A) is a receptor agonist at GABAB receptors
36
Disulfiram effectively treats alcohol (ethanol) dependence by which of the following mechanisms? (A) increasing plasma ethanol concentration (B) preventing the conversion of ethanol to methanol in the liver (C) increasing circulating acetaldehyde concentrations (D) blocking the action of ethanol at its cell membrane receptor (E) stabilizing the cell membrane to prevent ethanol disruption
(C) increasing circulating acetaldehyde concentrations
37
The fact that the degree of reinforcement for morphine is less than that of heroin is best explained by which one of the following statements? (A) morphine is a partial agonist (B) heroin binds tighter to opioid receptors (C) morphine is metabolized faster than heroin (D) morphine is first metabolized to heroin (E) heroin is distributed more rapidly to the brain
(E) heroin is distributed more rapidly to the brain
38
``` Synesthesia is an acute pharmacologic effect of which drug of abuse? (A) marijuana (B) LSD (C) cocaine (D) PCP (E) alcohol ```
(B) LSD
39
``` Which of the following has not been reported as a health hazard of chronic marijuana abuse? (A) low birth weight in neonates (B) decreased testosterone in men (C) anovulatory cycle in females (D) increased fetal malformations (E) increased intraocular pressure ```
(E) increased intraocular pressure
40
Crack cocaine in the 1990s became more problematic than the powder cocaine of the 1980s because of which difference between the two forms of cocaine? (A) cocaine in crack is more potent than cocaine in powder form (B) crack cocaine is not metabolized in humans (C) reinforcement is greater with inhalation versus insufflation (D) powder cocaine reaches the brain more rapidly than crack cocaine (E) coca plants in the 1990s were bred for greater cocaine content
(C) reinforcement is greater with inhalation versus insufflation