TEST 3 - WBC, INFL, IMMUNITY Flashcards

(200 cards)

1
Q

ANY substance that can elicit an immune response

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An antigen can be an exogenous substance that enters the. Body or an endogenous substance. TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antigen is usually a ________

A

Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can by secreted by microorganisms and can be antigens

A

Polysaccharides
Lipids
Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An antigen is anything whatsoever that induces an ________ in the host.

A

Immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All living cells express antigens on their cell ________; all living cells considered antigenic.

A

Membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Projections on antigen; elicit different responses from the immune system

A

Epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antigens are genetically determined through ________

A

Gene (DNA) inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antigens are cell _______ and differentiate self from ________.

A

Cell markers

Self from non-self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normally ______ antigens do not activate the person’s immune system.

A

Self antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Non-self/foreign antigens that can activate the immune system in an attempt to destroy the antigen

A

Microorganisms
Rbc antigens
Transplant antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Determines a person’s ABO antigen profile or blood type

A

Genes from each parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rh stands for what

A

Rhesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rh is also inherited from parents. TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rh+; about _____ % of ppl have the Rh gene and express this antigen on their RBC’s

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rh-; about ___% of ppl do not inherit the Rh gene and do not express the antigen on their RBCs

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

There are naturally occurring antibodies for Rh antigen. TRUE/FALSE

A

FALSE

There are NO naturally occurring antibodies for Rh antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antibodies for Rh antigen are only developed when Rh__ individual is exposed to Rh___; when can this happen?

A

Rh- exposed to Rh+

Pregnancy; have to do tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When can fetus develop antibodies and cause an immune response?

A

If baby is Rh- and mom is Rh+??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are antigens located?

A

On the RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are antibodies located?

A

In the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If have antigen A (type A), what type of antibodies to you have?

A

Anti-B antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If have antigen B (type B), what type of antibodies to you have?

A

Anti-A antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If have antigens A and B (type AB), what type of antibodies to you have?

A

Neither anti-A or anti-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
If have neither antigen A or B (type O), what type of antibodies to you have?
Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies
26
Universal recipient blood type; no antibodies against type A or B
Type AB
27
Universal donor; antibodies against type A and type B
Type O
28
Donor for O- recipient
O- only
29
Donors for O+ recipient
O- | O+
30
Donors for A- recipient
O- | A-
31
Donors for A+ recipient
O- O+ A- A+
32
Donors for B- recipient
O- | B-
33
Donors for B+ recipient
O- O+ B- B+
34
Donors for AB- recipient
O- A- B- AB-
35
Donors for AB+ recipient
O-/O+ A-/A+ B-/B+ AB-/AB+ ALL OF THEM
36
Why is AB+ the universal recipient?
Do not have to worry about Rh and no antibodies present
37
Trauma blood
O-
38
Plasma donor for O recipient
O A B AB
39
Plasma donor for A recipient
A | AB
40
Plasma donor for B recipient
B | AB
41
Plasma donor for AB recipient
AB
42
We have to worry about Rh antigen and antibodies when giving plasma. TRUE/FALSE
FALSE Only has antibodies; no Rh antigen
43
Universal PLASMA donor
AB
44
Universal plasma recipient
Type O
45
Each person inherits __ MHCs from each parent for a total of __ MHC's in each person
6 MHC's 12 total
46
MHCs are Divided into class ___ and class____
I | II
47
MHCs are expressed on all _______ body cells
Uncleared
48
Allow immune system to differentiate self form non-self antigens
MHCs
49
Types of body cells MHC's not expressed on
RBC | Plts
50
Class___ MHCs designated MHC- A, B, or C
Class I
51
Class I MHCs combine with ________ antigens to form a complex that is displayed on the cell ________
Intracellular antigens Cell's surface
52
Class I/ ______ antigen complex prompts the immune system to ______ the displaying cell
Foreign Destroy
53
Class I MHCs mainly interact with what type of T cells?
Cytotoxic (CD8+) cells
54
Designated MHC- DB, DQ, or DR
Class II MHCs
55
Class I MHCs expressed on what type of cells?
Nucleated body cells
56
Class II MHCs expressed on antigen-presenting cells such as?
B cells Macrophages Monocytes Dendritic cells
57
Antigen presenting cells--_________ of foreign antigens--antigens broken down and combine with class ___ MHCs-- class __ MHC/antigen complex presented to other _______ cells
Endocytosis of foreign Combine with class II Class II/antigen complex Immune cells
58
Class II MHCs mainly interact with _______ T cells
Helper (CD4+) T cells
59
Very large proteins; MW 150,000-900,000 daltons
Immunoglobulins (Ig)
60
Immunoglobulins are produced by what in response to antigens?
B-lymphocytes/plasma cells B cells differentiate into plasma cells and the plasma cells produce antibodies
61
Ig's are produced in response to _______
Foreign antigens
62
Each antibody is antigen ________.
Specific
63
Two regions of an antibody
Constant regions Variable regions
64
Types of chains in antibody structure
Light and heavy chains
65
Region same form one antibody to the next
Constant region
66
Area modified in response to specific antigen on the antibody
Variable region
67
75% of all antibodies; activate complement system and promote phagocytosis
IgG antibody
68
IgG is the ____ antibody to respond to antigens
2nd to respond
69
Respond to bacteria, viruses, parasites, fungi and toxins
IgG
70
Largest size antibodies; first antibody to respond to antigens
IgM
71
IgM function is similar to Ig__
IgG
72
Antibody responsible for blood transfusion rxns
IgM
73
Second most abundant antibodies; present in body secretions
IgA
74
Major antibodies in allergic and inflammatory responses
IgE
75
Includes lymph, lymphatic vessels/tissue/nodules, tonsils, spleen and thymus
Lymphatic system
76
3 main fxns of lymphatic system
Fluid balance Lipid absorption Defense
77
What is stored in the middle of lymph nodes
A lot of WBC and other immune cells
78
Lymph fluid is carried out and into other lymph nodes, usually in sequence and then eventually returned to _________ veins and circulation
Subclavian
79
What happens to lymph nodes when chronically respond to bacteria and infection. Examples?
Swell; lymphadenopathy Chronic allergies; cancer, etc
80
Originate in terminal lymphatic spaces in interstitial spaces
Lymphatic vessels
81
Responsible for draining breast tissue, usually the ones that swell with breast cx/tumors
Infraclavicular lymph nodes
82
Spleen is reservoir for WBC and RBC; where are they sequestered here?
WBC white pulp RBC red pulp
83
_________ response causes spleen to contract and release WBC/rbc into circulation
Sympathetic
84
Where T lymphocytes expressed; behind sternum
Thymus
85
Duct where lymph fluid returned back to subclavian
Thoracic duct
86
More lymphatic drainage to RIGHT/LEFT SIDE
LEFT
87
3 TYPES of WBC
Polymorphonuclear granulocytes Lymphocytes Monocytes
88
3 types of Granulocytes
Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils
89
Types of lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes T-lymph's
90
Types of T lymphocytes
Helper (T4/CD4 cells) Cytotoxic (T8/CD8) Memory Suppressor
91
4 derivatives of WBCs
Macrophages Mast cells Natural killer cells Plasma cells
92
Majority of leukocytes (50-70%); major role is phagocytosis
Neutrophils
93
Released by neutrophils; attracts other WBC
Chemotactants
94
Released by neutrophils; causes fevers
Pyrogens
95
Primary involved in allergic rxns and parasitic invasions
Eosinophils
96
Found in the blood stream; secrete histamine and heparin
Basophils
97
Transform in to plasma cells which secrete antibody
B-lymphocytes
98
B-lymphocytes are responsible for ________ immunity
Humoral
99
Stored in lymphoid tissue and respond rapidly to subsequent exposure to same antigen
Memory B lymphocytes
100
Initially produced in bone marrow, then mature in thymus and other lymphoid tissue
T-lympocytes
101
T-lymphocytes are responsible for ________ immunity
Cell mediated
102
T lymphocytes secrete ________; inflammatory mediators
Cytokines
103
T-cells that initiate b lymphocyte response
Helper
104
T cell that destroy foreign antigens directly
Cytoxic
105
T cells stored in lymphoid tissue and respond rapidly to subsequent exposure to the same antigen
Memory T cells
106
T cells slow down or stop immune response
Suppressor T cells or | "Regulator T cells"
107
Produced in the bone marrow; after leaving vascular system, transformed into tissue macrophages
Monocytes
108
Phagocytosis of foreign microorganisms and cellular debris; antigen-presenting cells (present to T lymph's)
Macrophages
109
Locations for macrophage systems in the body
Alveoli CNS: microglia Sinusoids of the liver Subcutaneous tissue
110
Found in tissues surrounding blood vessels; secrete histamine and heparin
Mast cells
111
Fxn similar to cytotoxic T cells; respond to tumor formation and virally infected cells
Natural killer cells
112
Derived from B-lymphocytes; secrete antigen-specific antibody
Plasma cells
113
Where B lymphocyes are processed?
Human bursa equivalent | Thymus
114
PHSC process to granulocytes/agranulocytes
PHSC-- CFU-GM-- WBCs
115
T-lymphocytes are processed in the fetal thymus; produce ________ of t-lymphs and laid down in lymphatic tissue
Clones
116
Group of T-lymphs that respond to a specific antigen; in theory one for every antigen to ever come in contact with
Clones
117
When T-lymph clones that would amount an immune response later in life against your own body cells are not destroyed, these lead to ________ diseases
Autoimmune
118
Examples of autoimmune diseases
DM I Hoshimotos thyroiditis Lupus RA
119
Helps clones differentiate into different T lymphocyes
Exposure to antigen
120
Biochemicla mediators that promote inflammation
Vasodilation Vascular permeability Attracting WBC Stimulating phagocytosis
121
Cellular destruction causes mast cells to produce histamine which results in what? Purpose?
Local vasodilation Increased vascular permeability Gets more blood flow and oxygen can cross to tissue
122
Results of kinins (bradykinin)
Local vasodilation Increased vascular permeability Chemotaxis Stimulation of pain receptors in area of injury
123
Stimuli that can elicit inflammatory process and release of eicosanoids
Physical Chemical Hormonal Neuronal
124
Stimulation works with this enzyme and fatty acid in cell membrane to produce arachidonic acid
Phospholipase A2
125
Inhibits phospholipase A2; most effective class of drugs to effective treat the inflammatory process
Glucocorticoids | Prednisone, methylprednisone, dexamethasone, etc.
126
After arachidonic acid, what are the two pathways?
Lipoxygenase-- Leukotrienes-- Cyclooxygenase-- PGG2/PGH2 (various prostaglandins)
127
Leukotrienes are secreted from where?
Leukocytes Mast cells Plts Lung and heart vascular tissue
128
Leukotrienes lead to what?
Inflammation Smooth muscle contraction Chemotactants Increased vascular permeability
129
When are a lot of leukotrienes released?
Asthma attack
130
Resulted of PGG2/PGH2
Prostaglandins PGI2 (prostacyclin) TxA2 (thromboxane)
131
What do prostaglandins do?
Multiple effects; vasodilation
132
What does PGI2 (prostacyclin) do?
Platelet anti-aggregator
133
What does TxA2 (thromboxane) do?
Platelet aggregation/vasoconstriction
134
Prostaglandins, PGI2, and TxA2 have a built in _________
Counterbalance
135
Enhance NK cell activity
Interferons
136
Extremely pro-inflammatory and pro-catabolic; extremely pro-sleep.
Tumor necrosis factor
137
Promote development and differentiation of T and B lymphocytes
Interleukins 1,2.3.4.5.6...etc.
138
Complement system is composed to ~__ proteins
~20
139
The complement system is normally active. TRUE/FALSE.
FALSE Normally INACTIVE
140
Complement system that begins when antibody binds with antigen
Classical pathway
141
Complement systemthat begins when protein C3 becomes active
Alternative pathway
142
Classical pathway begins with _______ complex
Antigen-antibody complex
143
Alternative pathway is activated by _______ substances and factors ____, ____, and ____
Foreign substances Factors B, D, and P
144
At protein ____, alternative and classical pathways become a common pathway
C3
145
Promotes phagocytosis, inflammation, and chemotaxis; enhances/complements overall inflammatory process and immune response
Complement system
146
How does the complement system lyse cells?
Complement proteins form a membrane attack complex and drill holes in the wall of foreign material so water rushes in a lyses cell
147
Inflammatory response is _________ response to cell damage; may or may not involve foreign antigens
NONSPECIFIC
148
Example of inflammatory response but foreign antigens not present
MI; injury and inflammation present but no foreign antigen
149
Stimulates release of biochemical mediators such as histamine, kinins, eicosanoids, complement system
Cellular damage
150
What 3 things does release of biochemical mediators do?
Tissue macrophages migrate to area of injury (first line defense) Margination and diapedesis of neutrophils Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
151
First line of defense in acute inflammatory response
Tissue macrophages migrate to area of injury
152
What is margination?
Where neutrophils start to line walls of the capillaries
153
What is diapedesis?
Neutrophils move through the spaces in capillaries and into tissue spaces
154
When do neutrophils become the primary line of defense in acute inflammatory defense?
Margination and diapedesis
155
Purpose of "walling off effect" in acute infl response
Localized injury; prevents spread of toxins
156
The immune response is a ___________ response to exogenous or endogenous antigens
SPECIFIC
157
The immune response involves T and B lymphocytes. TRUE/FALSE
True
158
__-lymphocytes/antibodies respond to antigens in body fluids
B-lymphs
159
_______- lymphocytes respond to antigens inside body cells
Cytotoxic T-lymph's
160
Once activated, the immune response provides __________ immunity against the specific antigen
Long-lasting
161
Macrophage recognition, processing, and presentation to helper-T lymphocytes
Phagocytose foreign antigen Breaks it down and combines with class II MHC Presented on surface of the macrophage Stimulates the immune response and CD4 helper T's to respond
162
Macrophages release this to help attract helper T cells
Interleukin-1
163
Secreted by helper T cells; acts on its own cells and causes differentiation and proliferation of the helper T cells; "T cell growth factor"
Interleukin 2
164
When a non-macrophage body cell is already infected, it is processed and combines with __________ MHC, and presented on the cell surface. This MHC and a ________ antigen Activates ______ cells.
Class 1 Foreign antigen CD8 cells
165
Helps CD8 cells and allows them to differentiate and proliferate.
Interleukin-2 secreted by helper T cells
166
Cytotoxic T cells release _________ and do contact _________.
Cytokines Contact killing
167
B lymphocytes directly identify and process foreign antigen, presents with ________ MHC, helper T responds and interleukins _________ are released
Class 2 MHC Interleukins 4,5,6
168
What do interleukins 4,5,and 6 do after released from helper T cells?
4: differentiation of B cell 5: stimulate differentiation from B cell into plasma cell 6: promotes antibody production from the plasma cell
169
Outcomes of antigen-antibody complexing
Inactivation of antigens Agglutination/clumping of antigens Activation of complement via classical pathway Enhances inflammatory processes; esp mast cells/basophils Enhances phagocytosis by neut's and macrophages
170
How are antigen-antibody complexes removed?
Phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages
171
Explain The primary response to a specific antigen
Small magnitude of response Longer response time 3-14 days
172
Explain secondary response to specific antigen
High magnitude response Shorter response time hours to a few days
173
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Species specific; intact skin
Innate
174
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? IgA and enzymes in saliva, tears, perspiration
Innate
175
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Requires exposure to antigen; develops SPECIFIC to each antigen
Aquired
176
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Acid of stomach; GI tract enzymes and IgA
Innate
177
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Memory T and B lymphocyte/antibodies
Aquired
178
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Neutrophils and macrophages phagocytosis
Innate
179
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Complement alternative pathway; interferons
Innate
180
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Two types: Passive and active
Aquired
181
Innate (natural) or Aquired immunity? Natural antibodies; NKCs; various cytokines
Innate
182
Person recieves immunity but did not develop it on their own; such as mother/fetus
Passive immunity
183
Develop this type of immunity on your own after exposure; such as exposure to elements in nature
Active natural immunity
184
Develop this type of immunity on your own but after artificial presentation (immunizations)
Active artificial
185
How do we halt the immune response? (4)
Elimination of foreign antigen Suppressor T-lymph's Feedback inhibition Idiotypes (antiidiotypes--antianti...)
186
Subcomponent to antibody; body recognizes as a foreign substance and develops these to take care of it; helps to slow and stop the immune response
Idiotypes--antiidiotypes-- antiantiidiotypes etc...
187
Most frequently encountered hypersensitivity rxn during anesthesia
Type I (allergy)
188
Type I allergy rxns are _____ mediated; what are some examples?
IgE mediated Anaphylaxis, asthma
189
IgG, IgM, Complement mediated; ABO incompatibility
Type II (cytotoxic)
190
IgG, Complement, neutrophil mediated; RA, systemic lupus
Type III (immune complex)
191
T-cell mediated; multiple sclerosis
Type IV (cell mediated)
192
How often do allergic rxns happen during anesthetics
Once every 5,000-25,000 anesthetics
193
Mortality % for allergic rxns
3.4%
194
You have a ___ min time frame with allergic rxns
3 min
195
Respiratory identification of allergic rxns
Wheezing Increased peak pressures Decreased pulm compliance
196
Allergic identification cardiovascular signs
Hypotension Tachycardia Decreased SVR Arrhythmias
197
Cutaneous identification of allergic rxn
Urticaria | Generalized edema
198
In management of allergic rxns a plan must be established when?
Before the event
199
Primary tx of allergic rxn
1. Stop administration of offending agent 2. Maintain airway and administer 100% O2 3. DC anesthetic agents 4. Intravascular volume expansion 5. Epinephrine
200
Secondary treatment of allergic rxn
Diphehydramine Bronchodilator Corticosteroids