Test 4 Kahoot questions Flashcards

1
Q

Select all that appy:
Surgery is indicated for aortic aneurysms that exceed…
* 5.5mm
* >10cm per year
* 5.5cm
* >10mm per year

A
  • 5.5cm
  • > 10mm per year
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2
Q

Select all that apply:
Anterior spinal artery syndrome is characterized by:
* Loss of motor function
* Autonomic dysfunction
* Pain
* Hypotension

A
  • Loss of motor function
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Hypotension
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3
Q

Select all that apply:
The most common causes of anterior spinal artery syndrome include:
* Aortic aneurysms
* Atrial fibrillation
* Aortic dissections
* Atherosclerosis

A
  • Aortic aneurysms
  • Aortic dissections
  • Atherosclerosis
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4
Q

Select all that apply:
Ascending aortic aneurysms include:
* Debakey 1
* Stanford A
* Debakey 2
* Standford B

A
  • Debakey 1
  • Stanford A
  • Debakey 2
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5
Q

What is the most common defecit associated with aortic arch replacement requiring cardiopulmonary bypass?
* Renal
* Cardiac
* Pulmonary
* Neurologic

A
  • Neurologic
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6
Q

Select all that apply:
Which population is aortic dissection most common in?
* Males
* 2nd semester pregnancy
* females
* 3rd semester pregnancy

A
  • Males
  • 3rd semester pregnancy
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7
Q

Most abdominal aortic aneurysms reupture into the:
* Right retroperitoneum
* Left retroperitoneum
* Left lower quadrant
* Right lower quadrant

A
  • Left retroperitoneum
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8
Q

Select all that apply:
Primary causes of mortality related to surgeries of the thoracic aorta include:
* CVA
* Liver failure
* PE
* MI

A
  • CVA
  • MI
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9
Q

Select all that apply:
Most commonly, cardiogenic embolisms originate from?
* Left atrial thrombus
* Right atrial thrombus
* Left ventricular thrombus
* Right ventricular thrombus

A
  • Left atrial thrombus
  • Left ventricular thrombus
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10
Q

subclavian steal syndrome leads to:
* Retrograde blood flow in the contralateral SCA
* Retrograde blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
* Retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery
* Reotrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral SCA

A
  • Reotrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral SCA
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11
Q

Superficial thrombophlebitis and DVT are most seen with almost half of patients undergoing which specific surgery?
* Total hip replacement
* Intramedullary femur nailing
* Total knee replacement
* Shoulder repair

A
  • Total hip replacement
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12
Q

Select all that apply:
Which is true regarding LMWH vs unfractioned heparin?
* Shorter half life
* Reversible
* longer half life
* Not reversible

A
  • Longer half life
  • Not reversible
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13
Q

Patients with a history of a TIA have a ___ times greater risk of CVA.
* 2
* 6
* 10
* 8

A

*10

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14
Q

Select all that apply:
Cerebral O2 consumption/metabolic rate is most affected by:
* temperature
* PaCO2
* Hemoglobin
* Depth of anesthesia

A
  • temperature
  • Depth of anesthesia
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15
Q

What is the lifespan of non-activated platelets?
* 5-10 days
* 2-5 days
* 8-12 days
* 12-15 days

A
  • 8-12 days
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16
Q

The platelet activation phase occurs:
* upon exposure to ECM proteins
* When granular contents are released
* upon tissue injury
* upon interaction with collagen and tissue factor

A
  • upon interaction with collagen and tissue factor
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17
Q

Which element is an essential part of coagulation tenase complexes?
* Calcium
* Magnesium
* potassium
* sodium

A
  • Calcium
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18
Q

Select all that apply:
Prothrombinase complex is composed of which factors?
* tissue factor
* Factor Va
* Facture Xa
* Factor VIIa

A
  • Factor Va
  • Facture Xa
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19
Q

Which factors activate factor IX?
* TF/VIIa complex
* Xa
* XI
* XIa

A
  • TF/VIIa complex
  • XIa
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20
Q

Phase II hemostasis is primarily initiated by:
* platelet adhesion
* extrinsic pathway
* intrinsic pathway
* platelet aggregation

A
  • extrinsic pathway
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21
Q

Which system mainly amplifies thrombin generation?
* Intrinsic pathway
* Common pathway
* Extrinsic pathway
* platelet activation

A
  • Intrinsic pathway
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22
Q

Select all that apply:
Prothrombinase complex converts:
* Fibrinogen to fibrin
* Factor II to IIa
* Prothrombin to thrombin
* Factor VIII to VIIIa

A
  • Factor II to IIa
  • Prothrombin to thrombin
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23
Q

Select all that apply:
Coagulation counter mechanisms include:
* Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
* Serine protease inhibitors
* Protein C
* Endovascular TPA and urokinase

A
  • Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
  • Serine protease inhibitors
  • Protein C
  • Endovascular TPA and urokinase
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24
Q

Select all that apply:
Suppliments that cause blood thinning include:
* Vitamin K
* Tumeric
* Vitamin D
* Vitamin E

A
  • Tumeric
  • Vitamin E
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25
vWF prevents degredation of which factor? * VII * VIII * X * IX
* VIII
26
Which lab value may be abnormal with hemophilia? * PTT * INR * platelets * PT
* PTT
27
Which clotting factor is not produced in the liver? * VIII * II * X * IX
* VIII
28
Select all that apply: Which anticoagulant factors are produced in the liver? * Protein C * Urokinase * Protein S * Antithrombin
* Protein C * Protein S * Antithrombin
29
Select all that apply: anemia of chromic kidney disease is due to: * EPO deficiency * Factor XIII deficiency * Thrombocytopenia * Platelet dysfunction
* EPO deficiency * Platelet dysfunction
30
Select all that apply: Lab findings associated with DIC included: * Thrombocytopenia * increased fibrin degredation * Increased fibrin * Prolonged PT/PTT
* Thrombocytopenia * increased fibrin degredation * Increased fibrin * Prolonged PT/PTT
31
What is the innermost layer of the GI tract? * serosa * submucosa * mucosa * circular muscle
* mucosa
32
Which is the best test to detect gastroparesis? * GI series with ingested barium * High resolution monometry * Gastric emptying study * Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
* Gastric emptying study
33
Which type of achalasia is associated with the worst outcomes? * Type 1 * Type 2 * Type 3 * Type 4
* Type 3
34
What is the most effective nonsurgical treatment for achalasia? * Endoscopic botox injections * Laproscopic hellar myotomy * Pneumatic dilation * Peri-oral endoscopic myotomy
* Pneumatic dilation
35
Normal LES pressure is? * 15mmHg * 25mmHg * 20mmHg * 29mmHg
* 29mmHg
36
The descending colon and distal GI tract are innervated by the: * Celiac plexus * Lumbar plexus * Sacral plexua * Hypogastric plexus
* Hypogastric plexus
37
Which of the following describes an independent nervous system, which controls motility, secretion, and blood flow? * Extrensic nervous system * Enteric nervous system * autonomic nervous system * parasympathetic nervous system
* Enteric nervous system
38
Select all that apply: Which feature of the myenteric plexus controls motility? * Enteric neurons * Circular muscle layer * Interstitial cells of cajal * Smooth muscle cells
* Enteric neurons * Interstitial cells of cajal * Smooth muscle cells
39
Which of the following presents a major anesthesia challenge in colonoscopy? * Dehydration * sharing the airway * hypertension * Aspiration
* Dehydration
40
Select all that apply: Which hormones play a role in gastric motility? * Gastrin * Gastric inhibitory peptide * Somatostatin * Motilin
* Gastrin * Gastric inhibitory peptide * Motilin
41
Select all that apply: Common causes of gastric ulcers include: * ETOH * Direct acting oral anticoagulants * H. Pylori * NSAIDS
* ETOH * H. Pylori * NSAIDS
42
Select all that apply: Which of the following are beneficial preop interventions for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome? * Administer PPIs * RSI * Correct electrolytes * Suction at head of bed
* Administer PPIs * RSI * Correct electrolytes * Suction at head of bed
43
Select all that apply: Symptoms associated with Chrones disease include: * Steatorrhea * Malabsorption * Peptic ulcers * Ileocolitis
* Steatorrhea * Malabsorption * Ileocolitis
44
Select all that apply: IBD treatment includes: * Steroids * Vancomycin * 5-acetylsalicylic acid * Rifaxamin
* Steroids * 5-acetylsalicylic acid * Rifaxamin
45
Which drug should be given prior to resection of a carcinoid tumor? * Glucorticoids * DDAVP * Azathioprine * Octreotide
* Octreotide
46
Select all that apply: There are 6 anterior pituitary hormones, they include: * Growth hormone (somatotrophin) * Prolactin * Thyroid stimulating hormone * Oxytocin
* Growth hormone (somatotrophin) * Prolactin * Thyroid stimulating hormone
47
Select all that apply: The 2 posterior pituitary hormones are? * ADH * Oxytocin * Follicle stimulating hormone * Luteinizing hormone
* ADH * Oxytocin
48
True/False: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urine production: * True * False
* True
49
Select all that apply: SIADH is annapropriate release of ADH seen with: * Cancer of the lung * Hypothyroidism * Porphyria * Intracranial tumors
* Cancer of the lung * Hypothyroidism * Porphyria * Intracranial tumors
50
Select all that apply: Treatment of SIADH includes: * Fluid restriction * Vasopressin * Hypotonic saline * Demeclocycline
* Fluid restriction * Vasopressin * Hypotonic saline * Demeclocycline
51
Select all that apply: Anesthesia considerations associated with acromegaly include: * Vocal cord hypertrophy * Skeletal muscle weakness * micronathia * soft tissue overgrowth
* Vocal cord hypertrophy * Skeletal muscle weakness * soft tissue overgrowth
52
Select all that apply: The types of diabetes mellitus include: * Type 1a: autoimmune, destruction of beta cells * Type 1b: absent insulin production * Type II: beta cell insufficiency or insulin resistant * Type 1c: autoimmune pancrease destruction
* Type 1a: autoimmune, destruction of beta cells * Type 1b: absent insulin production * Type II: beta cell insufficiency or insulin resistant
53
DM can result in what type of coma? * Hypoglycemic: BG <50mg/dL in adults * Diabetic ketoacidosis: >ketoacids and metabolic acidosis. hyperglycemia * Hyperglycemia: hyperosmolar nonketotic coma, Type 2: serum osmolarity >320 * Neurogenic
* Hypoglycemic: BG <50mg/dL in adults * Diabetic ketoacidosis: >ketoacids and metabolic acidosis. hyperglycemia * Hyperglycemia: hyperosmolar nonketotic coma, Type 2: serum osmolarity >320 * Neurogenic
54
True/False: DKA is more common in type 2 diabetics? * True * False
* False
55
Select all that apply: Treatment of DKA includes: * Permissive hypotension * Insulin 0.1u/kg/hour * Aggressive isotonic resuscitation * Correct electrolyte derangements
* Insulin 0.1u/kg/hour * Aggressive isotonic resuscitation * Correct electrolyte derangements
56
Select all that apply: The symptoms of whipples triad strongly associated with insulinoma include: * symptoms of hypoglycemia provoked by fasting * Relief of symptoms with glucose * BG <50mg/dL * Hyperglycemia
* symptoms of hypoglycemia provoked by fasting * Relief of symptoms with glucose * BG <50mg/dL
57
Select all that apply: S/S of cushings disease or hypercortisolism include: * Hypertension * weight gain * hypotension * hyperglycemia
* Hypertension * weight gain * hyperglycemia
58
Select all that apply Addison's disease has 2 types: * Primary * tertiary * secondary * aviary
* Primary * Secondary
59
Select all that apply: Management goals for patients undergoing adrenalectomy include: * Regulate hypertension * Control hyperglycemia * Overhydrate * Anticipate hyperkalemia
* Regulate hypertension * Control hyperglycemia
60
Select all that apply: Plasma levels associated with pheochromocytoma include: * Elevated ADH * reduced ADH * elevated metanephrine * Elevated norepinephrine
* elevated metanephrine * Elevated norepinephrine