Test 5 kahoot questions Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Select all that apply:
Common causes of secondary HTN in middle aged adults include:
* Hyperthyroid
* Cholecystitis
* Liver disease
* OSA

A
  • Hyperthyroid
  • OSA
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2
Q

Select all that apply:
Drugs that may increase BP as a side effect include:
* NSAIDS
* Birth control pills
* Tylenol
* Prednisone

A
  • NSAIDS
  • Birth control pills
  • Prednisone
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3
Q

Refractory hypertension is:
* Uncontrolled BP on 2+ drugs
* Uncontrolled BP on 4+ drugs
* Uncontrolled BP on 3+ drugs
* Uncontrolled BP on 5+ drugs

A
  • Uncontrolled BP on 5+ drugs
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4
Q

Select all that apply:
Dietary intake of which electrolytes is inversely related to hypertension?
* Calcium
* Potassium
* Sodium
* Chloride

A
  • Calcium
  • Potassium
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5
Q

Which of the following is the best antihypertension drug for induction?
* Esmolol
* Hydralazine
* Labetelol
* Nicardepine

A
  • Esmolol
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6
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension is defined as a mPAP above:
* 15
* 25
* 20
* 30

A
  • 20
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7
Q

Select all that apply:
Pulmonary vasodilating drug classes for PAH (pulmonary artery hypertension) include:
* Prostanoids
* Alpha-2 agonists
* Calcium channel blockers
* Endothelin receptor antagonists

A
  • Prostanoids
  • Endothelin receptor antagonists
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8
Q

A systemic to pulmonary shunt may cause pulmonary hypertension (PH) in which form?
* Precapillary PH
* Combined pre- and postcapillary PH
* Isolated postcapillary PH
* High flow PH

A
  • High flow PH
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9
Q

Select all that apply:
Therapeutic effects of prostinoids include:
* Anti-inflammatory
* Anti-platelet aggregation
* Pulmonary vasodilation
* Antibiotic

A
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Anti-platelet aggregation
  • Pulmonary vasodilation
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10
Q

Which class of drug cna prolong the action of nitric oxide?
* Phosphodiasterase-5 inhibitors
* Nitroglycerin
* Sodium nitroprusside
* Phosphodiasterase-2 inhibitors

A
  • Phosphodiasterase-5 inhibitors
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11
Q

Select all that apply:
Physical symptoms of pulmonary artery hypertension include:
* S3 gallop
* JVD
* Aortic Click
* Respiratory wheezing

A
  • S3 gallop
  • JVD
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12
Q

The definitive test for PAH is:
* echocardiogram
* left heart catheterization
* wedge pressure
* Right heart catheterization

A
  • Right heart catheterization
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13
Q

What is the primary characteristic of systolic heart failure:
* Elevated right ventricular end diastolic pressure
* decreased ejection fraction
* impaired relaxation
* Increased ventricular relaxation

A
  • decreased ejection fraction
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14
Q

Select all that apply:
What symptoms are commonly associated with heart failure?
* S3 gallop
* Dyspnea
* Hypothyroidism
* Hyperglycemia

A
  • S3 gallop
  • Dyspnea
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15
Q

What cardiac pressure does the BMP level primarily reflect?
* RA systolic wall stress
* LV end diastolic wall stress
* RV end diastolic pressure
* LV systolic wall stress

A
  • LV end diastolic wall stress
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16
Q

What is the primary goal in cardiac resynchronization therapy in heart failure?
* Reduce blood pressure
* reduce heart rate
* synchronize RV and LV contractions
* Improve cardiac output

A
  • Improve cardiac output
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17
Q

Select all that apply:
Which lifestyle modifications are recommended for heart failure patients?
* Stop smoking
* Increase sodium intake
* bedrest
* aerobic fitness

A
  • Stop smoking
  • aerobic fitness
18
Q

What is a potential complication in advanced heart failure?
* hypertension
* Dementia
* dysrhythmias
* hypercalcemia

19
Q

Select all that apply:
What are the most effective treatment choices for HFrEF?
* beta blocker
* Ace-inhibitor
* Blood glucose control
* Vaping instead of smoking

A
  • beta blocker
  • Ace-inhibitor
20
Q

What are the primary diuretic recommended guidelines for heart failure according to ACC and ESC guidelines?
* Osmotic diuresis
* Thiazide diuretics
* Loop diuretics
* Potassium-sparing diuretics

A
  • beta blocker
  • Ace-inhibitor
21
Q

Which device prevents sudden cardiac death due to dysrythmias?
* ICD
* LVAD
* CRT
* Revascularization

22
Q

What is the leading cause of de novo heart failure?
* Increased afterload
* Dysrhythmias
* increased preload
* Coronary artery occlusion

A
  • Coronary artery occlusion
23
Q

What is the first line treatment for acute heart failure?
* Calcium channel blockers
* vasodilators
* diuretics
* Beta blockers

A
  • Beta blockers
24
Q

Select all that apply:
What are the effects of increasing cAMP on cardiac contractility?
* Increased intracellular calcium
* Decreased intracellular calcium
* Increased excitation contraction coupling
* Decreased excitation contraction coupling

A
  • Increased intracellular calcium
  • Increased excitation contraction coupling
25
What is the main therapeutic effect of nesiritide on intracardiac pressures? * Decreased LVEDP * Increased LVEDP * Decreased RVESP * Increased RVEDP
* Increased intracellular calcium * Decreased intracellular calcium * Increased excitation contraction coupling
26
What is the most appropriate ballon pump setting for a tachycardic heart failure patient (inflation to heartbeat)? * 1:1 * 2:1 * 1:2 * 2:2
* 1:2
27
Select all that apply: What are the disadvantages of peripheral ventricular assist devices? * Thoracotomy placement * Complete ventricular decompression * hemolysis * lower flow rates
* hemolysis * lower flow rates
28
Which neurohormonal system plays a significant role in the progression of heart failure? * Dopiminergic system * Serotonergic system * renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system * Parasympathetic nervous system
* renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
29
Which cardiac disorder is associated with Cor-pulmonale? * RA failure * LA failure * RV failure * LV failure
* RV failure
30
What pathology is responsible for the majority of URI's? * Infectious laryngitis * Infectious nasopharyngitis * Infectious bronchitis * Infectious cystsic fibrosis
* Infectious nasopharyngitis
31
Select all that apply: Which interventions can minimize the risk of laryngospasm? * LMA * Bronchodilators * Nebulized local anesthetics * Oropharyngeal suctioning
* LMA * Nebulized local anesthetics * Oropharyngeal suctioning
32
Select all that apply: The main inflammatory mediators implicated in asthma include: * Histamine * Free radicals * Prostaglandin D2 * Leukotrienes
* Histamine * Prostaglandin D2 * Leukotrienes
33
Which spirometric value refers to the volume of air exhaled with max effort after deep inhalation? * FEV1 * TLC * FRC * FVC
* FVC
34
Which spirometric value remains unchanged during an acute asthma attack? * DLCO * FVC * FEV1 * FEF
* DLCO
35
What is mechanism stimulated tachypnea and hyperventilation during an asthma attack? * Hypoxemia * Pulmonary neural reflexes * Hypercarbia * Metabolic acidosis
* Pulmonary neural reflexes
36
At what level of FEV1 does the PaCO2 increase? * <25% * <40% * <30% * <50%
* <25%
37
Select all that apply: Select 2 types of surgery that are associated with a higher risk of bronchospasm? * Oncologic surgery * Laparoscopic Surgery * Upper abdominal surgery * Neurosurgery
* Oncologic surgery * Upper abdominal surgery
38
Which lung volume may be decreased in COPD? * TLC * FRC * VC * RV
* VC
39
Which radiologic finding confirms a diagnosis of COPD/emphasema? * Bullae * Kerly lines * Hyperlucency * Blebs
* Bullae
40
Which disorder is associated with irreversible airway dilation, inflammation, and chronic bacterial infection? * Cystic fibrosis * Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia * Bronchiectasis * Bronchiolitis Obliterans
* Bronchiectasis
41
Which respiratory disorder is commonly associated with situs inversus? * Primary ciliary dyskinesia * Bronchiolitis obliterans * Cystsic fibrosis * Bronchiectasis
* Bronchiectasis