TEST 4: PROSTHETIC DENTISTRY AND DENTAL MATERIALS Flashcards

(200 cards)

1
Q

For a mandibular denture, the secondary peripheral seal area is the:

A. Retromylohyoid space
B. Anterior lingual border
C. Retromolar pad area
D. Buccal shelf

A

B. Anterior lingual border

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2
Q

In lateral translation, the working condyle moves ___.

A. Downward, forward and laterally
B. Upward, backward and laterally
C. Downward, forward and medially
D. Upward, backward and medially

A

A. Downward, forward and laterally

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3
Q

A patient who wears a complete maxillary denture complains of a burning sensation in the palatal area of his mouth. This is indicative of too much pressure being exerted by the denture on the:

A. Incisive foramen
B. Palatal mucosa
C. Hamular notch
D. Posterior palatal seal

A

A. Incisive foramen

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4
Q

A 70-year-old patient presents for her recall appoint. She has been wearing her complete dentures for over 15 years and is ready for a new set of complete dentures. As you evaluate her oral mucosa during your routine cancer screening, you observe that her oral mucosal tissue is erythematous likely from overuse of her denture. Which of the following are issues should you address with the patient?

I. Removal of unacceptable dentures from the mouth for an extended period of time before impressions II. Reline the dentures with a tissue conditioner
III. Educate the patient
IV. Massage of the tissues and warm saline rinses

A. I and IV
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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5
Q

Which articulator is capable of duplicating the border mandibular movements of a patient?

A. Nonadjustable
B. Arcon-type
C. Nonarcon-type
D. Fully adjustable

A

B. Arcon-type

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6
Q

Type of finishing line is created on the facial surface of a posterior tooth being prepared for the reception of complete veneer metal crown

A. shoulder-bevel
B. chamfer
C. knife-edge
D. shoulder

A

B. chamfer

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7
Q

A 51-year-old male patient presents for the final
impression appointment for the fabrication of a complete upper denture. As you remove the final impression from the patient’s mouth in the custom tray, which of the following structures are you attempting to accurately capture?

I. Residual ridge
II. Labial and buccal frenum
III. Labial and buccal vestibules
IV. Tuberosities
V. Hamular notches
VI. Posterior palatal seal
VII. Fovea
VIII. Hard palate
IX. Rugae
X. Incisive papilla

A. I, II, III, IV, and V
B. II, IV, VI, VIII, and X
C. I, III, V, VII, and XI
D. VI, VII, VIII, IX, and X
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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8
Q

A 51-year-old male patient presents for the final impression appointment for the fabrication of a 8. What is the positive copy of the denture supporting structures and associated parts used for the purpose of fabricating the dental prosthesis?

A. Final impression
B. Master cast
C. Preliminary impression
D. Diagnostic cast

A

B. Master cast

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9
Q

Any unit of a removable partial denture that engages an abutment tooth in order to resist displacement away from the basal seat tissues

A. Major connector
B. Indirect retainer
C. Denture base
D. Direct retainer

A

D. Direct retainer

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10
Q

Border molding is the shaping of the denture border areas with impression materials typically compound. The shape and size of the vestibule is duplicated by either functional and/or manual manipulation of the soft tissue adjacent to the borders. Rubber base (polysulfide) is an elastomeric impression material for taking impressions after border molding has been completed on the custom tray. What are the advantages of using rubber base for this purpose?

I. Long setting time
II. Long working time
III. Flexible and tear resistant
IV. Very unpleasant odor and taste
V. Highest permanent deformation

A. I, III, and IV
B. I, II, and III
C. III, IV, and V
D. II and III
E. II and V

A

D. II and III

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11
Q

Which is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion in dentures?

A. To obtain balanced occlusion.
B. To stabilize dentures.
C. To obtain even occlusal contacts.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

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12
Q

Occlusal rest seats in crowns and inlays compared to those in enamel are made

A. smaller and deeper
B. larger and shallower
C. larger and deeper
D. smaller and shallower

A

C. larger and deeper

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13
Q

What restoration is used only for a short period of time as part of an ongoing procedure which provides function and protection for therapeutic purposes?

A. Temporary
B. Interim
C. Provisional
D. Transient

A

C. Provisional

Temporary/ Transient- while waiting for the final denture
Interim - while waiting for tx plan changes
Provisional - for therapeutic purposes

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14
Q

When does a fixed dental prosthesis (FDP), which was cast in one piece, need to be sectioned?

A. When a cantilever pontic is used.
B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a one-piece cast.
C. When single crowns are adjacent to the FDP.
D. Always, in order to achieve a good fit.

A

B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a one-piece cast.

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15
Q

For an occlusal appliance used for muscle relaxation to be effective, the condyles must be located in their most stable position from a musculoskeletal perspective. This is

A. Centric occlusion
B. At the vertical dimension of rest
C. Centric relation
D. Maximum intercuspal position

A

C. Centric relation

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16
Q

T, D, Sz are examples of _____.

A. Labial sounds
B. Alveolar sounds
C. Labiodental sounds
D. Sibilant sounds

A

B. Alveolar sounds

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17
Q

The treatment plan for a patient indicates that both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures are to be fabricated. The ideal way to do this is:

A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate denture first
B. Fabricate the mandibular immediate denture first
C. Fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time
D. None of the above

A

C. Fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time

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18
Q

In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Rigid plating
B. Minor connectors
C. Guide planes extended around the vertical line of abutments
D. Achieving balanced occlusion
E. Reciprocal clasp arms

A

D. Achieving balanced occlusion

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19
Q

When a patient needs a complete denture, per prosthetic surgery is generally not indicated when which of the following condition exists?

A. Pedunculated torus palatines
B. Papillary hyperplasia
C. Epulis fissurata
D. Root tips embedded in mandibular bone
E. Torus mandibularis

A

D. Root tips embedded in mandibular bone

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20
Q

The primary disadvantage of cast metal base

A. Poor esthetics
B. Inaccuracy of fit
C. Cannot be relined or rebased
D. High thermal conductivity

A

C. Cannot be relined or rebased

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21
Q

Aesthetics is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial denture for which of the following Kennedy classifications?

A. Kennedy Class I
B. Kennedy Class II
C. Kennedy Class III
D. Kennedy Class IV

A

D. Kennedy Class IV

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22
Q

A high survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indicates that:

A. The angle of cervical convergence is small
B. The angle of cervical convergence is large
C. The abutment tooth must be recontoured
D. A bar clasp is the clasp design of choice

A
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23
Q

Which of the following maxillary partially edentulous arches does not generally require record bases and occlusion rims (or framework) for an accurate face-bow record?

A. Kennedy Class I, modification 1
B. Kennedy Class III, modification 1
C. Kennedy Class II
D. Kennedy Class II, modification 2

A

B. Kennedy Class III, modification 1

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24
Q

Each of the following is a feature of papillary hyperplasia except one. Which one is not true?

A. It is a proliferative bone disease
B. It can be caused by wearing the dentures at night
C. It can be caused by poor oral hygiene
D. It can be caused by an ill-fitting denture

A

A. It is a proliferative bone disease❌ (Paget’s disease)

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25
Which may be a consequence of occlusal trauma on implants? A. Widening of the periodontal ligament. B. Soft-tissue sore area around the tooth. C. Bone loss. D. All of the above.
C. Bone loss.
26
All new dentures should be evaluated: A. 3 hours after delivery B. 12 hours after delivery C. 24 hours after delivery D. 48 hours after delivery
C. 24 hours after delivery
27
All of the following are landmarks concerned with location of the posterior palatal seal except the A. Fovea palatine B. Hamular notch C. Anterior nasal spine D. Posterior vibrating line E. Aponeurotic palate
C. Anterior nasal spine
28
Attach the sprue at the _____. A. perpendicular surface of the wax pattern B. thinnest part of the wax pattern C. neck of the wax pattern D. bulkiest part of the wax pattern
D. bulkiest part of the wax pattern
29
What is caused by fluids and bacteria moving in and out of the margin between the restoration and the tooth? A. Pulpitis B. caries C. postoperative Sensitivity D. pain
C. postoperative Sensitivity
30
The incisive papilla provides a guide for the anteroposterior placement of maxillary anterior denture teeth. The labial surfaces of natural teeth are generally 8 to 10 mm anterior to this structure. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.
A. Both statements are true.
31
The following are characteristics of a postpalatal seal of complete dentures, except which one? A. Compensates for shrinkage of the acrylic resin caused by its processing. B. May reduce the gag reflex. C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture. D. It is most shallow in the midpalatal suture area.
C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture.
32
Which of the following is the most likely cause of an occlusal rest fracture? A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation B. Improper rest location C. Structural metal defects D. Occluding against the antagonist tooth
A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation
33
The main function of the direct retainer of a removable partial denture is _____. A. Stabilization B. Retention C. Support D. Add strength to the major connector
B. Retention
34
Glass ionomer and compomers cements are not recommended for all ceramic restorations because of its A. Fluoride release B. low compressive strength C. low tensile strength D. excessive hygroscopic expansion
D. excessive hygroscopic expansion
35
The three dimensions of the Munsell Color Order System, the basis for shade guides such as Vita Lumin™, are _____. A. Absorption, scattering and translucency B. Color, translucency, and gloss C. Size, shape, and interactions with light D. Hue, value, chroma
D. Hue, value, chroma
36
Which of the following conditions can be caused in an edentulous patient by an ill-fitting denture flange? A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Epulis fissuratum C. Candidiasis D. Fibrous tuberosity
B. Epulis fissuratum
37
Inadequate rest-seat preparation for a removable partial prosthesis can cause _____. A. Tooth mobility B. Ligament widening C. Occlusal rest fracture D. Occlusal rest distortion
C. Occlusal rest fracture
38
Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base metal alloy in numerical value? A. Hardness B. Specific gravity C. Casting shrinkage D. Fusion temperature
B. Specific gravity
39
Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates _____. A. The degree of translucency B. The degree of saturation of the hue C. Combined effect of hue and value D. How dark or light is a shade
B. The degree of saturation of the hue
40
Forces on one side of the arch causes lifting forces on the contralateral side of the arch. Which can counteract such force? A. Denture base B. Rests C. Major connector D. Direct retainer design
D. Direct retainer design
41
In order for an alloy to be considered noble metal, it should _____. A. Contain at least 25% Ag B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd C. Contain 40% Au D. Contain at least 80% gold
B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd High Noble 40% Gold 60% Noble metal Noble >25% Noble metal Base <25% Noble metal
42
The purpose of fabricating a provisional restoration with correct contours and marginal integrity is _____. A. For protection B. To supervise the patient’s dental hygiene and give them feedback during this stage C. To preserve periodontal health D. All of the above
D. All of the above
43
A compomer cement _____. 1. Is indicated for cementation of metal-ceramic crowns. 2. Is indicated for cementation of all-ceramic restorations. 3. Is indicated for some all-ceramic crowns, inlays, and veneers with some contraindications. 4. Has low solubility and sustained release of fluoride. A. All are correct. B. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct. D. 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
44
Heating the metal structure in a furnace prior to opaque application in a metal-ceramic crown is necessary to _____. 1. Harden the metal. 2. Oxidize trace elements in the metal. 3. Eliminate oxidation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 only E. 3 only
D. 2 only
45
Which of the following are probably not clinically significant in terms of influencing the retention of a cemented restoration? 1. Tooth preparation 2. Surface textur 3. Casting alloy 4. Tooth taper 5. Luting agent A. 1, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 2, 3, 5 D. 3 and 5
D. 3 and 5
46
Which articulator is capable of duplicating the border mandibular movements of a patient? A. Nonadjustable B. Arcon-type C. Nonarcon-type D. Fully adjustable
B. Arcon-type
47
Tooth #30 is endodontically treated after a conservative access cavity was made through a typical MO amalgam restoration. The restoration of choice is a _. A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation B. Custom cast post and core C. Wire post and core D. Parallel-sided prefabricated post with cast core
A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation
48
The design of a restored occlusal surface is dependent upon the _____. 1. Contour of the articular eminence. 2. Position of the tooth in the arch. 3. Amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle. 4. Amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth. A. 1 and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only E. All of the above
E. All of the above
49
Which is a main function of a guide plane surface contacted by a minor connector of an RPD? A. Provides a positive path of placement and removal for an RPD B. Can provide additional retention C. Aids in preventing cervical movement D. All of the above E. Only A and B
E. Only A and B
50
From the following list of components of an RPD, which must be rigid? A. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp B. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector
C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector
51
Which type of clasps are generally used on a tooth supported removable denture? A. Circumferential cast clasp B. Combination clasp C. Wrought wire clasp’
A. Circumferential cast clasp
52
Which of the following disinfectants can be used with alginate impressions? A. Alcohol B. Iodophor C. Glutaraldehyde D. All of the above E. B and C only
E. B and C only
53
A dentist replaces an amalgam on tooth #5 and notices a small pulpal exposure. He elects to use a direct pulp cap procedure. Which of the following best predicts success? A. Size of the lesion B. Isolation of the lesion C. Use of calcium hydroxide D. Age of the patient
B. Isolation of the lesion
54
In handling impression materials, it is best to A. follows manufacturers instruction B. use the most popular brand C. buy what the most expensive brand D. buy what your friends use
A. follows manufacturers instruction
55
Which of the following best describes quenching? A. A metal is elevated to a temperature above room temperature and held there for a length of time B. A metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below C. Softening a metal by controlled heating and cooling D. None of the above
B. A metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below
56
There are four types of gypsum products approved for use in dentistry. Which of the following types is used rarely today? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type Ill D. Type IV
A. Type I
57
In a tooth-supported RPD with a circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is _____. A. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth B. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the edentulous area C. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the edentulous area D. Only B and C E. All of the above
E. All of the above
58
The catalyst composition of polysulfide that is responsible for giving a brownish color and a foul odor is A. Epoxyethane with crotonic acid B. Silicone with chloroplatinic acid C. Ethyl silicate with tin octoate D. Lead dioxide with Sulphur
D. Lead dioxide with Sulphur
59
The component that is responsible for connecting the major connector with the rest and clamp assembly is: A. The bar B. The minor connector C. The proximal plate D. The guide plane
B. The minor connector
60
The purpose of applying a layer of opaque porcelain in a metal-ceramic restoration is to _____. A. Create a bond between the metal and porcelain B. Mask the metal oxide layer as well as provide a porcelain–metal bond C. Create the main color for the restoration D. A and B are correct E. All of the above
D. A and B are correct
61
During the delivery appointment of your patient’s complete dentures, you are always sure to give proper instructions for oral tissue and denture care. You remind your patient that the denture should be kept off oral tissue for at least 6 to 8 hours each day, preferably when sleeping. Which of the following are the benefits of resting the oral tissue? I. Blood and lymph flow is improved II. Cheek and tongue function will massage the mucosa III. The constant film of stagnant saliva between the dentures and the mucosa is removed IV. Bruxing will not impinge on denture supporting tissue A. I and II B. I, II, and III C. II, III, and IV D. I and IV E. All of the above
E. All of the above
62
Fabricating a complete denture requires many important steps from impression taking to tooth shape and shade selection. What are the three factors for successful fit of a complete denture once it has been fabricated? A. Stability, resiliency, and temperature B. Stability, support, and retention C. Retention, resiliency, and temperature D. Support, temperature, and retention E. Retention, flexibility, and support
B. Stability, support, and retention
63
An edentulous patient with a diminished vertical dimension of occlusion is predisposed to suffer from which of the following conditions? A. Epulis fissuratum B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Papillary hyperplasia D. Angular chelosis
D. Angular chelosis
64
When performin a diagnostic occlusal adjustment on diagnostic casts, the mandibular cast should be mounted to the maxillary cast in an articulator using which of the following? A. A centric relation interocclusal record B. A hinge articulator C. A maximum intercuspation wax record D. A facebow transfer
A. A centric relation interocclusal record
65
A 62-year-old male presents to your office for the first time in several years. He has complete dentures that have been feeling loose for the last few months. Upon examination, you observe that the denture borders do not extend to cover all the supporting soft tissue. The patient is not ready for the fabrication of a new complete denture because he is comfortable with the way the teeth come together. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Stress that fabricating new dentures is the only treatment option B. Reline the denture C. Instruct the patient on how to use denture adhesive D. Rebase the denture E. Tell the patient that he will adjust to his existing dentures with time
D. Rebase the denture
66
What is a hard wax that is sticky when in a molten stage and returns to solid state when allowed to cool and is usually orange in color and melts at a higher temperature? A. Boxing wax C. Baseplate wax B. Sticky wax D. Inlay casting wax
B. Sticky wax
67
When fabricating dentures, posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause: A. Lip biting B. Tongue biting C. Cheek biting D. Gagging
C. Cheek biting
68
68. The primary indicator of the accuracy of border molding is: A. Adequate coverage of tray borders with the material used for border molding B. Contours of the periphery similar to the final form of the denture C. Stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth D. Uniformly thick borders of the periphery
C. Stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth
69
In designing tooth-borne removable partial dentures, where are the rests placed? A. Anywhere B. On the abutments next to the edentulous space C. Rests can be omitted D. Farthest possible from the edentulous space
B. On the abutments next to the edentulous space
70
Contraindications of RPI systems are the following EXCEPT: A. Lingually tilted abutment B. Mesiobuccal undercut C. High buccal undercut D. Distobuccal undercut
B. Mesiobuccal undercut
71
The amount of plastic strain produced in the specimen at fracture is referred to as _____. A. Toughness C. Strength B. Ductility D. Resilience
A. Toughness
72
How does porcelain chemically bond to metal? A. Interposition of an intermediate metal layer B. Mixing of oxidized metal layer with porcelain oxides C. Wetting of the porcelain onto the metal surface D. Mixing of the metal atoms with the porcelain structure
B. Mixing of oxidized metal layer with porcelain oxides
73
Centric occlusion (CO) is a: A. "Muscle-guided" position B. "Ligament-guided" position C. "Tooth-guided" position D. none of the above
C. "Tooth-guided" position
74
Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to an occluding vertical dimension that results in: A. A loss of interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (decreased freeway space) B. An excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (increased freeway space) C. Neither of the above, vertical dimension of occlusion does not affect interocclusal distance
B. An excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (increased freeway space)
75
Condylar guidance is a factor which: A. Is totally controlled by the dentist B. Is totally dictated by the patient C. Is partially dictated by the patient but can be adjusted by the dentist if necessary D. Can be adjusted by the laboratory technician
B. Is totally dictated by the patient
76
76. In a posterior fixed bridge, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. A pontic should be in contact in centric occlusion B. A pontic may or may not be in contact in working side movements C. A pontic should be in contact in non-working side movements D. none of the above
77
In a Kennedy Class I arch in which all molars and the first premolar are missing and the rest of the teeth have good periodontal support, the preferred choice of treatment is _____. A. A removable partial denture replacing all missing teeth B. A fixed dental prosthesis replacing the missing premolar and a removable partial denture replacing the molars C. Implant supported crowns replacing the first premolars and a removable partial denture replacing the molars D. A and B are preferred choice of treatment over C. E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A.
E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A.
78
Which of the following is(are) uses for the surveyor? A. To aid in the placement of an intracoronal retainer. B. To block out a master cast. C. To measure a specific depth of an undercut. D. All of the above. E. Only A and B are correct.
D. All of the above. E. Only A and B are correct.
79
The minor connector for a mandibular distal extension base should extend posteriorly about _____. A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge B. Half the length of the edentulous ridge C. One-third the length of the edentulous ridge D. As long as possible
A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge
80
Longer spatulation time of gypsum materials will tend to A. reduce setting time and reduce setting expansion B. reduce setting time and increase setting expansion C. increase setting tine and increase setting expansion D. increase setting time and reduce setting expansion
B. reduce setting time and increase setting expansion
81
One of the general requirements of a good luting agent is film thickness, the desired thickness is: A. 10-20 microns B. 25-30 microns C. 35-40 microns D. None of the above
A. 10-20 microns
82
For patients with medical condition such as certain types of cardiovascular disease or hyperthyroidism, this is used for cold impregnation: A. Alum B. Alcohol C. Sodium sulfate D. Racemic epinephrine
A. Alum
83
The recommended W/P ratio of Type III gypsum is 0.30-0.35. This means that you need to mix _______ml of water per 100 grams of powder A. 130 -135 B. 70 -75 C. 30 -35 D. 20- -25
C. 30 -35
84
The elastic modulus is a measure of: A. Viscoelasticity B. Toughness C. Stiffness D. Plasticity
C. Stiffness
85
It is the scavenger of oxides in an amalgam filling. A. Zinc B. Silver C. Tin D. Copper
A. Zinc
86
The procedure of removing surface tarnish or oxidation is: A. Soldering B. Boiling C. Casting D. Pickling
D. Pickling
87
The principal constituent of dental stone: A. Beta-calcium sulfate hemihydrate B. Alpha-calcium sulfate hemihydrate C. Borax D. Diatomaceous earth
B. Alpha-calcium sulfate hemihydrate
88
Which component of gypsum-bonded investment material provides expansion? A. Opaquer B. Refractory material C. Modifier D. Binder
B. Refractory material
89
Which component of porcelain serves as matrix for high fusing quartz? A. Feldspar B. Quartz C. Kaolin D. Metallic oxides
A. Feldspar
90
If careless handling of the prosthesis has distorted the major connector, the steps taken in the corrective procedure are to: i. Reestablish the taper of the clasp arm ii. Accomplish a functional reline iii. Remake prosthesis iv. Remount and equilibrate the prosthesis v. Adjust the major connector A. iii, iv, ii, I B. iii, iv, v, i C. v, iii, iv, i D. iii, ii, iv, i
B. iii, iv, v, i
91
Acrylic resin artificial teeth rather than porcelain artificial teeth are generally used as posterior tooth replacements in a removable partial denture because i. Acrylic resin teeth are easily adjusted to accommodate the retentive meshwork and the minor connectors ii. acrylic resin teeth maintain the vertical dimension of occlusion over a longer period of time iii. the occlusal surface of acrylic resin teeth need no modification to occlude against natural teeth iv. acrylic resin teeth are potentially less destructive when opposed by natural teeth or gold restorations A. i, iii and iv B. i, iv C. ii, iii D. all of the above
B. i, iv
92
True reciprocation infers that the reciprocal component of a clasp assembly A. Lies on the middle one-third of the clinical crown B. Is a lingual blanket rather than a lingual arm C. Contacts the abutment tooth simultaneously with the retentive arm D. Contacts the tooth immediately after the retentive arm assumes its passive position on the retentive area
C. Contacts the abutment tooth simultaneously with the retentive arm
92
What type of pontic design would you use in a patient with a high esthetic demand when preparing teeth numbers 9-11 for a fixed partial denture? A. The saddle-ridge-lap pontic B. The sanitary (hygienic) pontic C. The modified ridge-lap pontic D. An ovate pontic E. A conical pontic
C. The modified ridge-lap pontic
93
When preparing partial crown on a maxillary incisor, the promixal grooves should be parallel to the: A. Long axis of the tooth B. Gingival 2/3 of the labial surface C. Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface D. Middle third of the labial surface
C. Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface
94
Metamerism invariably involves _____? A. A color difference between two objects under one or more illuminant(s) B. One object having a lower chroma than another. C. One object having a lower lightness than another D. A significant color change of one object as it moves from one illuminant to another
A. A color difference between two objects under one or more illuminant(s)
95
Periodontal health of the gingival tissues is a major concern in any fixed prosthodontic treatment. For optimum periodontal health, restoration finish lines should be: A. Within the sulcus at least 1.0 mm and away from the free gingival margin without encroaching on the biologic width B. Terminated at the free gingival margin C. Supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5 mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing D. As far as possible subgingivally into the attachment apparatus
C. Supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5 mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing
95
You are treatment planning a patient who has selected a PFM (Porcelain Fused to Metal) crown restoration for tooth#8.The patient would like to know how much tooth structure will be removed during your PFM preparation. Which one of the following statements about your reduction for tooth preparation would be incorrect? A. The desired incisal reduction for a PFM crown is 2.0mm inintercuspal position and in excursive movements B. A labial reduction of 1.2 to 1.5 mm (one plane) is mandatory for PMF preparations C. The lingual concavity is prepared to allow 1-mm clearance if the contacts are to be located on metal D. Shoulder must extend at least 1-mm lingual to proximal contact area
B. A labial reduction of 1.2 to 1.5 mm (one plane) ❌ A labial reduction of 1.2 to 1.5 mm (two planes)
96
For a maxillary denture, the primary stress bearing areas are the: A. Maxillary tuberosity B. Horizontal process of the palatine bone C. Residual ridges D. Median palatine raphe
C. Residual ridges
97
For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors should follow the _____. A. Lower lips during smiling B. Upper lips during smiling C. Lower lips when relaxed D. Upper lips when relaxed
A. Lower lips during smiling
98
Inherent factor/s that affect/s retention and stability of the complete dentures. A. Balanced articulation B. Patient's adaptability C. Denture adaptation D. None of the options E. All of the options
E. All of the options
99
What is the primary purpose of a occlusal splint in prosthodontics? A. To provide a temporary restoration B. To support a dental implant C. To fabricate a denture base D. To treat temporomandibular joint disorder
D. To treat temporomandibular joint disorder
100
What is the primary purpose of a gingival mask in prosthodontics? A. To create a natural-looking gingival margin B. To provide a temporary restoration C. To support a dental implant D. To fabricate a denture base
A. To create a natural-looking gingival margin
100
During the denture border molding and final impression appointment, it is important to observe which support and relief areas are for primary support in both maxilla and mandible. What are the primary denture support areas on the maxilla and mandible? A. Rugae, residual ridge B. Residual ridge, buccal shelf C. Residual ridge, residual ridge D. Rugae, buccal shelf E. Incisive papilla, residual ridge
B. Residual ridge, buccal shelf
101
Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base metal alloy in numerical value? A. Hardness B. Specific gravity C. Casting shrinkage D. Fusion temperature
B. Specific gravity
102
You are planning to replace a maxillary central incisor with a fixed prosthetic device (FPD). The edentulous space is slightly wider than the contralateral tooth. In order to achieve acceptable esthetics, you should ensure that _____. A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth B. The pontic should be made smoother than the contralateral tooth C. The pontic should have a higher value than the contralateral tooth D. The line angles should be shaped to converge incisally on the pontic
A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth
103
Polycarboxylate cement achieves a chemical bond to tooth structure. The mechanism for this bond is _____. A. Ionic bond to phosphate. B. Covalent bond to the collagen. C. Chelation to calcium. D. These cements do not form a chemical bond.
C. Chelation to calcium.
104
Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates _____. A. The degree of translucency B. The degree of saturation of the hue C. Combined effect of hue and value D.How dark or light is a shade
B. The degree of saturation of the hue
105
Which of the following impression materials has the highest tear strength? A. Polyether B. Polysulfide C. Addition silicone D. Condensation silicone
B. Polysulfide
106
The purpose of fabricating a provisional restoration with correct contours and marginal integrity is _____. A. For protection B. To supervise the patient’s dental hygiene and give them feedback during this stage C. To preserve periodontal health D. All of the above
D. All of the above
107
Heating the metal structure in a furnace prior to opaque application in a metal-ceramic crown is necessary to _____. 1. Harden the metal. 2. Oxidize trace elements in the metal. 3. Eliminate oxidation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 only E. 3 only
D. 2 only
107
In order for an alloy to be considered noble metal, it should _____. A. Contain at least 25% Ag B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd C. Contain 40% Au D. Contain at least 80% gold
B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd
108
A compomer cement _____. 1. Is indicated for cementation of metal-ceramic crowns. 2. Is indicated for cementation of all-ceramic restorations. 3. Is indicated for some all-ceramic crowns, inlays, and veneers with some contraindications. 4. Has low solubility and sustained release of fluoride. A. All are correct. B. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct. D. 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
109
Which primary design-quality of the occlusal rest would categorize it as a “positive" rest? A. Allow no tilting of the appliance B. Prevent the movement of the appliance C. Transmit stress down the long axis of the tooth D. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors E. Have a thickness of 1.5 mm
D. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors
109
What is the primary purpose of a facebow transfer in prosthodontics? A. To record the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible B. To record the relationship between the maxilla and the cranial base C. To provide a temporary restoration D. To fabricate a denture base
B. To record the relationship between the maxilla and the cranial base
110
When surveying casts, the clinician/technician must perform an important step in order to correctly record the path of insertion, the position of the survey line and the location of undercut and non undercut areas. Which of the ff. is considered to be that step? A. The recontouring of proximal walls of abutments parallel to the path of insertion B. The use of indelible lead marker C. Placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor D. Fixing the casts with screws on the surveying table E. All of the above steps are equally important
C. Placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
111
Which articulator is capable of duplicating the border mandibular movements of a patient? A. Nonadjustable B. Arcon-type C. Nonarcon-type D. Fully adjustable
B. Arcon-type
112
Tooth #30 is endodontically treated after a conservative access cavity was made through a typical MO amalgam restoration. The restoration of choice is a _. A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation B. Custom cast post and core C. Wire post and core D. Parallel-sided prefabricated post with cast core
A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation
113
Potential problems in connecting implants to natural teeth include all of the following except _____. A. Stress is concentrated at the superior portion of the implant B. Breakdown of osseointegration C. Cement failure on the natural abutment D. Screw or abutment loosening E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis
E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis
114
Which is true of a minor connector of an RPD? A. Should be thin to not interfere with the tongue B. Should be located on a convex embrasure surface C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure D. All of the above E. A and C only
C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure
114
The design of a restored occlusal surface is dependent upon the _____. 1. Contour of the articular eminence. 2. Position of the tooth in the arch. 3. Amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle. 4. Amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth. A. 1 and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only E. All of the above
E. All of the above
115
What is the primary advantage of using a polyether impression material over a polysulfide impression material? A. Higher accuracy B. Lower cost C. Improved dimensional stability D. Easier to mix and handle
C. Improved dimensional stability
116
From the following list of components of an RPD, which must be rigid? A. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp B. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector
C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector
117
Which type of clasps are generally used on a tooth-supported removable denture? A. Circumferential cast clasp B. Combination clasp C. Wrought wire clasp’
A. Circumferential cast clasp
118
Which of the following disinfectants can be used with alginate impressions? A. Alcohol B. Iodophor C. Glutaraldehyde D. All of the above E. B and C only
E. B and C only
119
A dentist replaces an amalgam on tooth #5 and notices a small pulpal exposure. He elects to use a direct pulp cap procedure. Which of the following best predicts success? A. Size of the lesion B. Isolation of the lesion C. Use of calcium hydroxide D. Age of the patient
B. Isolation of the lesion
120
In a tooth-supported RPD with a circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is _____. A. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth B. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the edentulous area C. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the edentulous area D. Only B and C E. All of the above
E. All of the above
121
What is a nonrigid connector? A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another B. An appliance that is used to connect two crowns rigidly fixed C. A bar appliance that is used to maintain a space for a tooth that has not erupted D. None of the above
A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another
122
What is the primary mechanism of bonding between a resin-based composite and a ceramic restoration? A. Mechanical retention B. Chemical bonding C. Thermal expansion D. Diffusion
B. Chemical bonding
123
The purpose of applying a layer of opaque porcelain in a metal-ceramic restoration is to _____. A. Create a bond between the metal and porcelain B. Mask the metal oxide layer as well as provide a porcelain–metal bond C. Create the main color for the restoration D. A and B are correct E. All of the above
D. A and B are correct
124
An edentulous patient with a diminished vertical dimension of occlusion is predisposed to suffer from which of the following conditions? A. Epulis fissuratum B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Papillary hyperplasia D. Angular chelosis
D. Angular chelosis
125
When performing a diagnostic occlusal adjustment on diagnostic casts, the mandibular cast should be mounted to the maxillary cast in an articulator using which of the following? A. A centric relation interocclusal record B. A hinge articulator C. A maximum intercuspation wax record D. A facebow transfer
A. A centric relation interocclusal record
126
In 1 hour, you will see your first complete denture patient as a “real dentist.” In your excitement and just to keep on the safe side, you review the proper steps for each appointment from beginning to end for the fabrication of a complete upper and lower denture. Which of the following complete denture appointments is the longest appointment? A. Diagnosis and preliminary impressions B. Border molding and final impressions C. Wax rim try-in, VDO, CR D. Tooth setup try-in E. Delivery/insertion
E. Delivery/insertion
126
What is the primary purpose of a dental impression? A. To create a positive replica of the teeth and surrounding tissues B. To create a negative replica of the teeth and surrounding tissues C. To provide a temporary restoration D. To provide a permanent restoration
B. To create a negative replica of the teeth and surrounding tissues
127
A 62-year-old male presents to your office for the first time in several years. He has complete dentures that have been feeling loose for the past few months. Upon examination, you observe that the denture borders do not extend to cover all the supporting soft tissue. The patient is not ready for the fabrication of a new complete denture because he is comfortable with the way the teeth come together. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Stress that fabricating new dentures is the only treatment option B. Reline the denture C. Instruct the patient on how to use denture adhesive D. Rebase the denture E. Tell the patient that he will adjust to his existing dentures with time
D. Rebase the denture
128
What is the recommended prosthodontic treatment of a patient missing four maxillary incisors with severe ridge resorption and limited finances? A. No treatment B. Fixed bridgework C. Maxillary removable partial denture D. Maryland bridge
C. Maxillary removable partial denture
129
When fabricating dentures, posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause: A. Lip biting B. Tongue biting C. Cheek biting D. Gagging
C. Cheek biting
130
Which of the following is false concerning Applegate’s rules governing the application of Kennedy Classification? A. If a third molar is missing and is not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification B. If a second molar is missing and is not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification C. The most posterior edentulous area always determines the classification D. Edentulous areas other than those determining the classification are referred to as modifications and are designated by their number E. There can be only one modification area in Class IV arches
E. There can be only one modification area in Class IV arches
131
The primary indicator of the accuracy of border molding is: A. Adequate coverage of tray borders with the material used for border molding B. Contours of the periphery similar to the final form of the denture C. Stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth D. Uniformly thick borders of the periphery
C. Stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth
132
In designing tooth-borne removable partial dentures, where are the rests placed? A. Anywhere B. On the abutments next to the edentulous space C. Rests can be omitted D. Farthest possible from the edentulous space
B. On the abutments next to the edentulous space
133
Contraindications of RPI systems are the following EXCEPT: A. Lingually tilted abutment B. Mesiobuccal undercut C. High buccal undercut D. Distobuccal undercut
B. Mesiobuccal undercut
134
Vertical dimension relates to: A. Physiologic rest of the mandible B. Face length C. Interarch distance D. Freeway space
B. Face length
135
A midline fracture of the maxillary denture is most often due to the: A. Acrylic being too thin B. Excessive resorption of the alveolar ridge C. Use of poor grade acrylic D. Patient biting too hard
A. Acrylic being too thin
135
While anterior tooth selection is based on shape, size, and shade, the posterior tooth selection is based on cusp angle. Which one of the follow occlusal schemes is correctly paired with its cusp angle? A. Anatomic: 0 degrees B. Semi-anatomic: 33 to 45 degrees C. Nonanatomic/flat: 10 to 20 degrees D. Semi-anatomic: 10 to 20 degrees E. Anatomic: 33 to 45 degrees
E. Anatomic: 33 to 45 degrees
136
Postural position is: A. Muscle-guided B. Ligament-guided C. Bone-guided D. Tooth-guided
A. Muscle-guided
137
Which of the following types of dental cements is most suitable for luting a ceramic restoration? A. Zinc phosphate cement B. Glass ionomer cement C. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement D. Resin cement
D. Resin cement
138
The finish line of choice when fabricating an all-ceramic crown is: A. Shoulder B. Bevel C. Chamfer D. Shoulder with bevel
A. Shoulder
139
The minimum acceptable crown:root ratio A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 2:3 D. 1:3
A. 1:1
140
Composite resin has, to a large extent, replaced unfilled direct filling resin as a restorative material. The main advantage of composites is their: A. Aesthetic excellence B. Thermal coefficient of expansion C. Higher solubility in saliva D. Lower modulus of elasticity
A. Aesthetic excellence
141
Which impression material has the best wettability? A. Polyether B. Polysulfide C. Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible) D. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)
142
Custom trays are an important part of rubber base impression techniques, since elastomers are A. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to 1.0 mm thick B. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 1.0 to 1.5 mm thick C. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick D. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to 6.0 mm thick
C. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick
143
The first step in the treatment of abused tissues in a patient with existing dentures is to: A. Fabricate a new set of dentures B. Reline the dentures C. Educate the patient D. Excise the abused tissues
C. Educate the patient
144
Which of the following types of dental restorations is most suitable for a tooth with a high occlusal load? A. Amalgam restoration B. Composite restoration C. Ceramic restoration D. Gold restoration
D. Gold restoration
145
Fabricating a complete denture requires many important steps from impression taking to tooth shape and shade selection. What are the three factors for successful fit of a complete denture once it has been fabricated? A. Stability, resiliency, and temperature B. Stability, support, and retention C. Retention, resiliency, and temperature D. Support, temperature, and retention E. Retention, flexibility, and support
B. Stability, support, and retention
146
An articulator is a mechanical instrument used to represent the temporomandibular joint and mandible. A classification system was developed to determine the variable movements an articulator can produce. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of articulator? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V
C. Class III
147
In handling impression materials, it is best to A. follows manufacturers instruction B. use the most popular brand C. buy what the most expensive brand D. buy what your friends use
A. follows manufacturers instruction
148
A patient requires a full-coverage crown on tooth #8. The dentist decides to use a zirconia crown. What is the primary advantage of using zirconia over other ceramic materials? A. Improved aesthetics B. Increased durability C. Enhanced biocompatibility D. Reduced cost
B. Increased durability
149
A 28-year-old asymptomatic male patient presents with active caries and active periodontal disease. What is the best treatment for a posterior endodontically treated premolar? A. Veneer B. Metal–ceramic crown C. MO amalgam D. Extraction E. Fixed partial denture
C. MO amalgam
150
At the wax try-in, the maxillary plane appears to be correct, yet when the patient closes lightly in centric relation, the mandibular teeth appear to show too much. The patient’s lips do not contact unless the patient forces them to do so. What is the most likely error that has occurred? A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion B. Inaccurate face-bow transfer C. Over closed vertical dimension of occlusion D. Excessive amount of freeway space
A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
151
68-year-old male presents with severe loss of tooth structure on an abutment for an existing removable partial denture. A crown is indicated for the tooth. Which of the following are important considerations when preparing a removable partial denture abutment to receive a crown? A. Path of draw B. Location of rests C. Orientation of guiding planes D. Placement of porcelain on metal finish lines E. All of the above
E. All of the above
151
What kennedy classification of a unilateral edentulous space with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior teeth A. class I B. class II C. class III D. class IV
C. class III
152
A patient with a complete upper denture and a bilateral lower partial denture presents in your office for the first time in 5 years. What can you expect to find after 5 years without RPD maintenance? A. Loss of vertical dimension of occlusion(VDO) and retrognathic facial appearance B. Decrease in VDO and prognathic facial appearance C. Premature posterior contacts and retrognathic facial appearance D. Increase in VDO and premature posterior contacts
B. Decrease in VDO and prognathic facial appearance
152
CAD CAM A. Computer-Aided design and computer aided manufacturing B. Computer-Aided design and computer aided machining C. Computer-Aided detailing and computer aided mechanism D. Computer-Aided designing and computer aided manufacture
A. Computer-Aided design and computer aided manufacturing
153
Recognition of wall convergence angles in crown preparation will determine if undercuts are produced when taper is too small and if retention is undermined when taper is too large. What degree of wall convergence during crown preparation will give the prosthesis optimal retention? A. 1 to 3 degrees B. 3 to 6 degrees C. 4 to 8 degrees D. 6 to 9 degrees
B. 3 to 6 degrees
154
In what order would you mix your plaster? A. water into powder B. powder into water C. same time D. the order does not matter
B. powder into water
154
Ceramic shade matching is an important step in achieving natural esthetics in dental tooth restoration. What is the most important dimension of color for dental restorations? A. Color B. Hue C. Value D. Chroma E. Metamerism
C. Value
155
In a Provisional Fixed Partial Denture that is seated immediately after the extraction of a tooth, which of the following pontic forms will result in tissue blanching and provide the best support to the surrounding papillae while also providing for the best esthetic outcome following healing of the extraction site? A. Sanitary (hygienic) pontic B. Conical pontic C. Ovate pontic D. Modified ridge lap pontic E. None of the above
C. Ovate pontic
155
What is the ideal amount of remaining dentin thickness that is required for an amalgam preparation? A. 0.5 mm B. 1.0 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2.0 mm E. 2.5 mm
D. 2.0 mm
156
What should you do initially if you see that your patient is gagging upon taking impressions? A. Check and trim excess tray B. Instruct patient proper breathing C. insert tray posteriorly then anteriorly D. Switch to a flavored impression material
B. Instruct patient proper breathing
157
What is the best material for final impression for complete denture? A. Alginate B. Condensation silicone C. ZOE D. Addition silicone
A. Alginate
158
Maxillary occlusion rim is parallel to the: A. Inferior border of the body of the mandible B. Sella -nasion line C. Ala-tragus line D. Frankfort horizontal plane
C. Ala-tragus line
158
Which layer of ceramic in a porcelain fused to metal restoration masks color of the metal? A. Body B. Opaque C. Enamel D. Glaze
B. Opaque
159
The shape and amount of the distobuccal extension of a complete mandibular edentulous impression is determined during border molding by the A. Ramus of the mandible B. Position and action of the masseter muscle C. Lateral pterygoid muscle D. Tone of the buccinator muscle E. Size and location ofthe buccal frena
B. Position and action of the masseter muscle
160
All new dentures should be evaluated: A. 3 hours after delivery B. 12 hours after delivery C. 24 hours after delivery D. 48 hours after delivery
C. 24 hours after delivery
161
Sintering of a ceramic: A. Involves heating the raw materials above the melting point B. Results in an increase in porosity C. Decreases its mechanical strength D. Increases its density
D. Increases its density
162
Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to: A. Minimize distortion B. Reduce setting time C. Eliminate air bubbles D. Increase the setting time
C. Eliminate air bubbles
163
A wire-gauge is selected on the basis of its active length. A short arm clasp (<7mm) should be made in what gauge of wire for optimum function below its proportional limit? A. 20 – gauge B. 19 - gauge C. 18 – gauge D. 16 – gauge
A. 20 – gauge
164
The size of the posterior teeth for a removable partial denture is determined primarily by which TWO of the following? i. The useful posterior tooth space ii. The lip line of the patient iii. The age of the patient iv. The characteristics of the denture-supporting tissues v. The face-bow transfer A. i and v B. ii and iv C. i and iv D. iii and v E. ii and iii
C. i and iv
165
How would you classify a removable partial denture in which a portion of the functional load is carried by the residual ridge at one end of the denture base segment while the other end of the base segment is supported by natural teeth? A. A tooth-borne removable partial denture B. A bilateral distal extension removable partial denture C. A unilateral distal extension removable partial denture D. None of the above
C. A unilateral distal extension removable partial denture
166
The process by which a casting is heated in a porcelain furnace to a temperature of 980 degrees Celsius to burn off any remaining impurities prior to adding porcelain is called: A. Quenching B. Pickling C. Degassing D. Investing
C. Degassing
167
All of the following are advantages of precision attachment restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. They provide retention without an unsightly display of metal B. They are easy to repair C. The functional load is dispersed down the long axis of the abutments by virtue of the low central loading at the base of the attachments D. The restorations permit the patient access to all areas of the tissues when the denture is not in place E. If both sides of the dental arch have this type of restoration and are joined by a rigid major connector, excellent bilateral stabilization is provided to the abutments
B. They are easy to repair
168
When designing a clasp assembly for the abutment tooth of a distal extension RPD, on which part of the crown surface should the retentive and reciprocal clasp arms be located? A. Occlusal third B. Middle third C. Gingival third D. none of the above
C. Gingival third
169
The cingulum rest is usually confined to preparation on: A. Maxillary lateral incisors B. Maxillary canines C. Mandibular lateral incisors D. Mandibular canines
B. Maxillary canines
170
In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Rigid plating B. Minor connectors C. Guide planes extended around the vertical line of abutments D. Achieving balanced occlusion E. Reciprocal clasp arms
D. Achieving balanced occlusion
171
All of the following are true regarding indirect retention EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. It is a rest seat B. It is located as far anterior as possible C. The function is to prevent vertical dislodgement of the distal extension base of a removable partial denture D. It is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
D. It is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
172
It is important that a wrought wire clasp have an elongation percentage of: A. More than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties B. More than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties C. Less than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties D. Less than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
B. More than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
173
All of the following are indications for using a linguoplate as a mandibular major connector EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION A. When the lingual frenum is high or the space available for the lingual bar is limited B. In Class I situations in which the residual ridges have undergone excessive vertical resorption C. For stabilizing periodontically weakened teeth D. Severe anterior crowding E. When the future replacement of one or more incisor teeth will be facilitated by the addition of retention loops to an existing linguoplate
D. Severe anterior crowding
174
What is the recommended treatment for a patient who has lost her four maxillary incisors some time ago and has suffered excessive ridge resorption? A. A conventional six - unit fixed bridge B. No treatment C. A removable partial denture D. A Maryland bridge
C. A removable partial denture
175
Which of the following Kennedy classes of removable partial dentures are not tooth-borne? SATA i. Class I ii. Class II iii. Class III iv. Class IV A. i and iii B. iii and iv C. i and ii D. ii and iii
A. i and iii
176
Which of the following indirect retainers will provide the best leverage against lifting of denture base? A. The one located the closest to the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area B. The one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area C. The one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area
B. The one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area
177
All of the following are advantages of infrabulge retainers as compared to suprabulge retainers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? i. More efficient retention ii. Less distortion of coronal contours iii. Less tooth contact iv. Cleaner v. Less bothersome to vestibular tissues vi. Less prone to caries vii. Esthetically superior in most cases viii. Greater adjustability A. ii B. iv C. v D. vii E. viii
C. v
178
The type or form of clasp is generally selected after: A. Looking at the x-rays B. Talking to the patient C. Surveying the cast D. The initial try-in of the metal framework
C. Surveying the cast
178
Suprabulge retainers (clasps) originate: A. Below the height of contour B. Above the height of contour C. Above the 0.08" undercut D. Above the occlusal surface of most molars
B. Above the height of contour
179
All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for RPD EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Resistance to tarnish B. Low material cost C. Low density (weight) D. High flexibility E. High modulus of elasticity (stiffness)
E. High modulus of elasticity (stiffness)
180
A mandibular lingual bar major connector requires a minimum of: A. 3 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth B. 5 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth C. 7 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth D. 9 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
C. 7 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
181
When designing an anterior-posterior palatal bar maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior, and lateral straps should be about: A. 2-4 mm wide B. 6-8 mm wide C. 8-10 mm wide D. At least 12 mm wide
C. 8-10 mm wide
182
The major connector is: A. The connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis B. The part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border of the denture C. The unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side D. None of the above
C. The unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side
183
Free end saddles are liable to be displaced under occlusal pressure (antero-posterior rocking around the abutment tooth, which act as a pivot). This is as a result of the displaceability of the mucosa. Which technique is employed to try and prevent this by taking an impression of the mucosa under controlled pressure? A. The functional load technique B. The altered cast technique C. The residual ridge technique D. The total occlusal load technique
B. The altered cast technique
184
Low-fusing porcelain is usually used for the manufacture of: A. Denture teeth B. All ceramic crowns C. Metal-ceramic crowns D. All of the above
C. Metal-ceramic crowns
185
A patient of yours walks into your office with the following complaint: “When I smile, my upper denture doesn’t hold.” Which area of the denture base needs to be adjusted? A. Labial notch and labial flange B. Buccal notch and buccal flange C. Posterior border D. Distobuccal flange
B. Buccal notch and buccal flange
186
Which of the following is defined as "The quality of a restoration to be firm, steady, constant and not subject to change of position when forces are applied?" A. Retention B. Stability C. Adhesion D. Reciprocation
B. Stability